Pharm.D. Doctor of Pharmacy Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Pharm.D. Doctor of Pharmacy facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which laboratory method is the gold standard for confirming a diagnosis of active pulmonary tuberculosis? → Sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) culture with drug susceptibility testing
2. A patient experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction. What is the first-line treatment? → Epinephrine IM 0.3–0.5 mg
3. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the daily sales limit for pseudoephedrine products per purchaser? → 3.6 grams
4. Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the volume of plasma cleared of a drug per unit time? → Clearance
5. What is the recommended first-line regimen for Helicobacter pylori eradication in regions with low clarithromycin resistance (below 15%)? → PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin for 14 days
6. Which type of drug interaction involves competition for the same plasma protein binding site? → Pharmacokinetic displacement
7. Which beta-blocker is considered cardioselective due to its preferential beta-1 receptor blockade? → Metoprolol succinate
8. Which parameter determines the time required to reach steady-state plasma concentrations? → Half-life
9. Which DEA schedule includes drugs with accepted medical use but the highest potential for abuse among scheduled drugs with a medical use? → Schedule II
10. Which ingredient classification in a compounded preparation serves as the vehicle or base? → Excipient
11. What is the percentage strength of a solution made by dissolving 5 g of a drug in sufficient water to make 200 mL? → 2.5%
12. Which class of medications is contraindicated in patients with hyperkalemia and is known to cause hyperkalemia as a side effect? → Potassium-sparing diuretics (e.g., spironolactone)
13. A patient presents with signs of digoxin toxicity. Which electrolyte abnormality most potentiates this toxicity? → Hypokalemia
14. Which immunosuppressant requires monitoring of blood pressure and serum creatinine due to nephrotoxicity? → Cyclosporine
15. Tamoxifen is used in the treatment of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. Its mechanism of action is: → Selective estrogen receptor modulation (SERM) — blocks estrogen receptors in breast tissue
16. Serotonin syndrome is most likely to occur with which combination? → Tramadol + sertraline (SSRI)
17. Which class of medications is associated with Steven-Johnson Syndrome as a rare but severe adverse reaction? → Aromatic antiepileptics like carbamazepine
18. A patient on ACE inhibitor therapy develops a dry, persistent cough. What is the pharmacological mechanism? → ACE inhibitor-mediated accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs stimulates cough reflex
19. Which lipid-lowering drug class most effectively reduces LDL cholesterol and is first-line for ASCVD risk reduction? → Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors)
20. What is the primary molecular mechanism of methicillin resistance in MRSA? → Acquisition of mecA gene encoding altered PBP2a
21. Which organism is the most common bacterial cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in otherwise healthy adults? → Streptococcus pneumoniae
22. A patient on warfarin is started on ciprofloxacin. What interaction should the clinical pharmacist anticipate? → Increased INR due to reduced warfarin metabolism and gut flora suppression
23. A Type 2 diabetic patient with eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m² should avoid which antidiabetic medication? → Metformin
24. Which agency is responsible for regulating the manufacture and distribution of controlled substances in the United States? → DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)
25. A clinical pharmacist performing SOAP notes documents the patient's subjective complaints under which section? → Subjective
26. Which type of drug-receptor interaction is most easily reversed? → Ionic/electrostatic interaction
27. Which ethical principle requires pharmacists to act in the patient's best interest? → Beneficence
28. For CIII medications, how many refills are permitted? → 5
29. Which class of antidepressant carries a black box warning for increased suicidality in patients under 24 years of age? → All antidepressants
30. Which drug interaction requires INR monitoring when a statin is added to a stable warfarin regimen? → Rosuvastatin and warfarin (some warfarin level increase reported)