Cambridge B1 Preliminary (PET) Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the difference between 'skimming' and 'scanning' a text?

There is no difference — they are the same strategy
Skimming finds specific details; scanning gets the general idea
Skimming is slow and detailed; scanning is for understanding grammar
Skimming gets the general idea; scanning finds specific details (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Skimming gets the general idea; scanning finds specific details

Skimming gives you an overall sense of the text, while scanning is used to locate particular facts or words quickly.

Question 2: Find the error: 'The teacher, along with her students, are planning a field trip.'

are planning (Correct answer)
The teacher
along with her students
a field trip

Correct answer: are planning

Phrases beginning with 'along with' do not change the number of the main subject; it should be 'is planning'.

Question 3: In a PET listening task, a man says: 'I thought the restaurant would be expensive, but actually the prices were very reasonable.' What surprised him about the restaurant?

The food was poor quality
The service was slow
The prices were lower than expected (Correct answer)
The restaurant was fully booked

Correct answer: The prices were lower than expected

He expected it to be expensive but found the prices reasonable, which pleasantly surprised him.

Question 4: A tour guide says: 'The museum closes at six on weekdays, but stays open until eight on weekends.' If today is Saturday, when does the museum close?

6:00 PM
8:00 PM (Correct answer)
7:00 PM
5:00 PM

Correct answer: 8:00 PM

The guide says it stays open until eight on weekends, and Saturday is a weekend day.

Question 5: In a PET reading passage about health, the text says: 'Doctors recommend at least 30 minutes of exercise five days a week.' A question asks: 'How often should people exercise according to doctors?' What is the correct answer?

Whenever they feel like it
Twice a week for one hour
Every day for 30 minutes
Five times a week for at least 30 minutes each time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Five times a week for at least 30 minutes each time

The text specifies 30 minutes of exercise on five days per week, so the answer must reflect both elements.

Question 6: How does collaboration enhance Reading Comprehension Strategies in Preliminary English Test?

It creates unnecessary meetings
It reduces individual accountability
It slows down the process
It brings diverse perspectives and improves outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It brings diverse perspectives and improves outcomes

Collaboration brings together different viewpoints and expertise, leading to better decision-making and outcomes.

Question 7: Which word is spelled correctly?

definitly
definitely (Correct answer)
definatly
definately

Correct answer: definitely

The correct spelling is 'definitely', derived from the word 'definite' plus '-ly'.

Question 8: Which reading strategy helps in finding specific information quickly?

Scanning (Correct answer)
Summarizing
Guessing
Reciting

Correct answer: Scanning

Scanning is a reading strategy where you quickly move your eyes over a text to locate specific keywords, phrases, or pieces of information. Unlike skimming, which aims for the main idea, scanning focuses on finding particular details without reading the entire passage. This technique is highly effective for tasks like finding a specific fact or date.

Question 9: Which of the following is an example of a compound sentence?

She stayed inside to read a book.
Because it was raining, she stayed inside.
Staying inside, she read a book.
She stayed inside, and she read a book. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: She stayed inside, and she read a book.

A compound sentence joins two independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction like 'and.'

Question 10: Read the notice: 'Library books must be returned within two weeks. A fine of 10 cents per day applies to overdue items.' A student borrowed a book on March 1st. What happens if they return it on March 20th?

They pay 60 cents because the book is 6 days overdue. (Correct answer)
They pay nothing if they renew the book online.
They pay no fine because it is within the month.
They pay 20 cents because they kept it 20 days.

Correct answer: They pay 60 cents because the book is 6 days overdue.

The book is due March 15th (two weeks), and returning it March 20th is 5 days late, but 6 days overdue at 10 cents each = 60 cents.

Question 11: What does 'assessment' mean in Preliminary English Test practice?

Random guessing
Systematic evaluation (Correct answer)
Final decision
Quick overview

Correct answer: Systematic evaluation

Assessment is a systematic process of evaluating knowledge, skills, or conditions against established criteria.

Question 12: You want to check that you have understood what your teacher said. What do you say?

Explain everything again from the start.
I wasn't listening.
I understood everything.
So you mean we need to finish this by Friday — is that right? (Correct answer)

Correct answer: So you mean we need to finish this by Friday — is that right?

Paraphrasing what you heard and checking with 'is that right?' confirms understanding clearly.

Question 13: Which approach best supports quality outcomes in Writing Skills & Composition for Preliminary English Test?

Rushing through tasks
Avoiding quality checks
Relying solely on intuition
Systematic application of evidence-based methods (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Systematic application of evidence-based methods

Evidence-based methods provide a reliable foundation for achieving consistent, high-quality outcomes.

Question 14: Select the correct sentence: The news ___ very surprising.

is (Correct answer)
are
have been
were

Correct answer: is

'News' is always treated as singular in English and takes a singular verb.

Question 15: You hear a recorded message: 'Our offices are open from nine to five, Monday to Friday. On Saturdays we open from ten to two.' What are the Saturday opening hours?

9:00 AM – 2:00 PM
10:00 AM – 2:00 PM (Correct answer)
10:00 AM – 5:00 PM
9:00 AM – 5:00 PM

Correct answer: 10:00 AM – 2:00 PM

The message states Saturday hours are ten to two, which is 10:00 AM to 2:00 PM.

Question 16: Which sentence uses the correct punctuation for a list?

I need: eggs milk bread and butter.
I need eggs milk, bread and, butter.
I need, eggs, milk, bread and butter.
I need eggs, milk, bread, and butter. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: I need eggs, milk, bread, and butter.

Items in a list are separated by commas, with 'and' before the final item.

Question 17: A candidate frequently self-corrects during the PET speaking test (e.g., 'I go — I mean I went'). How does this affect the score?

The examiner will stop the test after three self-corrections
Self-correction always reduces the score significantly
Self-correction is forbidden in the PET speaking test
Occasional self-correction is natural and shows awareness of accuracy; it rarely harms and may help the score (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Occasional self-correction is natural and shows awareness of accuracy; it rarely harms and may help the score

Self-correction demonstrates metalinguistic awareness and is generally viewed positively, as long as it does not disrupt fluency excessively.

Question 18: Which sentence uses a semicolon correctly?

He studied hard; he passed the exam. (Correct answer)
They went; to the park.
I enjoy; reading books.
She likes tea; and coffee.

Correct answer: He studied hard; he passed the exam.

A semicolon correctly joins two closely related independent clauses without a conjunction.

Question 19: In PET Writing Part 1, candidates complete a sentence transformation. This task mainly tests:

Knowledge of grammar and different ways to express the same meaning (Correct answer)
The ability to describe pictures in detail
Spelling and punctuation only
The ability to write creative stories

Correct answer: Knowledge of grammar and different ways to express the same meaning

Sentence transformation tests whether candidates can express the same idea using different grammatical structures.

Question 20: Read the sign: 'No entry except for authorized personnel. Violators will be prosecuted.' What does 'authorized personnel' mean?

Customers with a ticket
Emergency services only
Anyone who works nearby
People with official permission to enter (Correct answer)

Correct answer: People with official permission to enter

'Authorized personnel' refers to people who have been officially granted permission to access an area.

Question 21: In the PET exam, which text type is most likely to include a subject line and a greeting such as 'Dear Sir or Madam'?

A short story
A formal email or letter (Correct answer)
A diary entry
A notice

Correct answer: A formal email or letter

Formal emails and letters in PET typically include a subject line and a formal greeting.

Question 22: Which sentence uses reported speech correctly? Direct: 'I will call you tomorrow,' he said.

He said he would call me the next day. (Correct answer)
He told he would call me the next day.
He said he will call me tomorrow.
He said I would call you the next day.

Correct answer: He said he would call me the next day.

In reported speech, 'will' becomes 'would' and 'tomorrow' becomes 'the next day' with pronoun shifts.

Question 23: Which option correctly rewrites: 'The teacher made the students redo the test'?

The students were made to redo the test. (Correct answer)
The students made to redo the test.
The students were making to redo the test.
The students were made redo the test.

Correct answer: The students were made to redo the test.

In passive causative with 'make,' the construction is 'be made + to + infinitive.'

Question 24: Why is identifying the main idea of a passage important?

To understand the central point of the text (Correct answer)
To rewrite the text in a different language
To memorize specific details
To count the number of words

Correct answer: To understand the central point of the text

Identifying the main idea is fundamental to comprehending any text, as it reveals the author's primary message or argument. This central point unifies all the supporting details and examples within the passage. Understanding the main idea allows readers to grasp the core purpose of the writing and effectively summarize or discuss its content.

Question 25: Which skill is most important for success in Grammar & Sentence Structure within Preliminary English Test?

Continuous learning and adaptation (Correct answer)
Working without any training
Resisting change
Avoiding feedback

Correct answer: Continuous learning and adaptation

Continuous learning ensures professionals stay current with evolving practices in Grammar & Sentence Structure.

Question 26: Choose the correct sentence using reported speech: He said, 'I am tired.' → He said that he ___ tired.

were
has been
is
was (Correct answer)

Correct answer: was

In reported speech, the present simple 'am' shifts back to past simple 'was'.

Question 27: Read the note: 'Tom — I've gone to the supermarket. Dinner is in the fridge. Heat it up for 10 minutes. Back by 7pm. — Mum.' What does Mum want Tom to do?

Order food from a restaurant
Cook dinner from scratch
Wait until she returns before eating
Warm up the food that is already prepared (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Warm up the food that is already prepared

Mum left dinner ready in the fridge and instructed Tom to heat it up, meaning it just needs reheating.

Question 28: Why is note-taking an effective listening strategy?

To distract from listening
To replace active engagement
To write down every single word
To retain key points and improve comprehension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To retain key points and improve comprehension

Note-taking is an effective listening strategy because it helps listeners actively process and summarize information, which in turn improves comprehension and retention of key points. By jotting down main ideas and important details, listeners engage more deeply with the content rather than passively receiving it. This also provides a valuable record for later review and recall, reinforcing learning.

Question 29: Which sentence contains an incorrect comparative form?

She runs faster than her brother.
He is the most tallest player on the team. (Correct answer)
This exam is more difficult than I expected.
This route is shorter than the other one.

Correct answer: He is the most tallest player on the team.

'Most tallest' is a double superlative; the correct form is simply 'the tallest'.

Question 30: The suffix '-tion' turns a verb into a ________.

verb
adjective
noun (Correct answer)
adverb

Correct answer: noun

The suffix '-tion' converts verbs like 'educate' into nouns like 'education'.

Question 31: When writing for PET, which approach best improves the range of vocabulary used?

Repeat the same words throughout to show you know them well.
Write every sentence in passive voice to sound more academic.
Use only the simplest words to avoid mistakes.
Use a thesaurus-style approach by substituting synonyms and varied expressions where appropriate. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use a thesaurus-style approach by substituting synonyms and varied expressions where appropriate.

Using synonyms and varied expressions demonstrates a wider vocabulary range and improves the writing score.

Question 32: Which sentence correctly uses a relative clause?

The book which was excellent I borrowed.
The book, which I borrowed, was excellent. (Correct answer)
The book which I borrowed it was excellent.
The book that I borrowed it was excellent.

Correct answer: The book, which I borrowed, was excellent.

A relative clause with 'which' does not need an extra pronoun like 'it' after the clause.

Question 33: I'm not sure, but she _____ arrive late because of the traffic.

should
might (Correct answer)
will
must

Correct answer: might

'Might' expresses possibility when the speaker is uncertain about an outcome.

Question 34: What is the importance of staying current with trends in Functional Language & Situations for Preliminary English Test?

Trends do not affect professional practice
It is only required for new professionals
It ensures practices remain effective and relevant (Correct answer)
It is not necessary once certified

Correct answer: It ensures practices remain effective and relevant

Staying current with industry trends ensures that professional practices remain effective, relevant, and aligned with evolving standards.

Question 35: In the sentence 'Despite the heavy traffic, they arrived on time,' what does 'despite' indicate?

The traffic was not heavy after all.
The traffic caused them to arrive late.
They arrived on time even though there was heavy traffic. (Correct answer)
They arrived on time because of the heavy traffic.

Correct answer: They arrived on time even though there was heavy traffic.

'Despite' shows that an obstacle (heavy traffic) did not prevent the expected outcome (arriving on time).

Question 36: Someone asks you 'How do you do?' at a formal introduction. What is the expected reply?

Not bad, thanks.
How do you do? (Correct answer)
Fine, and you?
I do very well, thank you.

Correct answer: How do you do?

'How do you do?' is a formal greeting and the conventional reply is to say 'How do you do?' back.

Question 37: In PET, when writing a 'thank you' email to a friend, which tone is most appropriate?

Formal and impersonal
Cold and distant
Friendly and informal (Correct answer)
Academic and technical

Correct answer: Friendly and informal

Emails to friends in PET should use a warm, friendly, and informal tone.

Question 38: Which linking phrase is best used to add a further point that supports the same idea?

On the other hand
In contrast
Nevertheless
Furthermore (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Furthermore

'Furthermore' adds an additional supporting point, reinforcing the same argument.

Question 39: Someone holds the door open for you. What is the appropriate response?

I can open my own doors.
Keep going, I've got it.
Finally, thanks.
Thank you so much! (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Thank you so much!

Thanking someone who holds the door is a basic and expected social courtesy.

Question 40: Which spelling is correct?

calender
calander
calendar (Correct answer)
calandar

Correct answer: calendar

The correct spelling is 'calendar', ending in '-ar' not '-er'.

Question 41: Which sentence contains an article error?

The honesty is the best policy. (Correct answer)
She plays the piano every evening.
He wants to be an engineer.
We had a great time at the party.

Correct answer: The honesty is the best policy.

Abstract nouns used in a general sense do not take 'the': 'Honesty is the best policy'.

Question 42: You are reading a PET passage and you notice the word 'however' at the start of a paragraph. What do you expect this paragraph to do?

Introduce a contrasting or limiting point to what was said before (Correct answer)
Continue the same argument made in the previous paragraph
Summarise all the information given so far
Give an example of the previous point

Correct answer: Introduce a contrasting or limiting point to what was said before

'However' is a discourse marker that signals the writer is about to present a contrasting or qualifying idea.

Question 43: A radio announcement says: 'The swimming pool will be closed on Monday and Tuesday for maintenance, and will reopen on Wednesday morning.' On which day can people swim again?

Tuesday
Thursday
Monday
Wednesday (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wednesday

The announcement states the pool will reopen on Wednesday morning.

Question 44: Which listening strategy is best for identifying the main idea of a conversation?

Listening for individual words
Listening for gist (Correct answer)
Guessing the meaning randomly
Ignoring intonation and context

Correct answer: Listening for gist

Listening for gist is the best strategy for identifying the main idea of a conversation because it involves focusing on understanding the overall topic or general message without getting bogged down by every single word. This approach encourages listeners to synthesize information and grasp the broader context. It helps to avoid information overload and provides a foundational understanding of the discussion's core subject.

Question 45: Choose the correct sentence: There ___ a lot of traffic on the road today.

were
be
are
is (Correct answer)

Correct answer: is

'Traffic' is an uncountable noun, so it takes the singular verb 'is'.

Question 46: What is the best way to determine the meaning of an unfamiliar word in a text?

Only looking at the first letter
Ignoring the word
Guessing randomly
Using context clues (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Using context clues

Context clues are hints found within a sentence, paragraph, or passage that a reader can use to understand the meaning of unfamiliar words. These clues can include definitions, synonyms, antonyms, examples, or the general sense of the surrounding text. Relying on context clues helps readers maintain reading fluency and comprehension without constantly consulting a dictionary.

Question 47: Read the short paragraph: 'Volunteers are needed this Saturday to help clean up the local park. No experience is necessary. All equipment will be provided. Refreshments will be available.' Which statement is TRUE?

Previous experience is required to participate.
The event takes place on a Sunday.
Food and drinks will be available for volunteers. (Correct answer)
Volunteers must bring their own tools.

Correct answer: Food and drinks will be available for volunteers.

The text states that refreshments will be available, confirming that food and drinks will be provided.

Question 48: A webpage heading reads: 'Frequently Asked Questions.' What is the purpose of this section on a website?

To display contact information
To provide answers to common customer questions (Correct answer)
To advertise new products
To explain the company's history

Correct answer: To provide answers to common customer questions

FAQ sections address common questions users have, saving them from needing to contact support.

Question 49: Choose the correct form: 'There has been a significant ________ in temperature this winter.'

drop (Correct answer)
dropped
dropping
drops

Correct answer: drop

After 'a' (indefinite article), you need a noun; 'drop' functions as a noun here.

Question 50: Find the error: 'If I was you, I would apologize immediately.'

No error
I would apologize
If I was you (Correct answer)
immediately

Correct answer: If I was you

In formal/standard English, the subjunctive 'were' is used in hypothetical conditions: 'If I were you'.

Question 51: What is the role of documentation in Idioms & Phrasal Verbs for Preliminary English Test?

It should only be done monthly
It provides an accurate record for accountability and reference (Correct answer)
It is unnecessary paperwork
It is only for management review

Correct answer: It provides an accurate record for accountability and reference

Proper documentation in Idioms & Phrasal Verbs ensures accountability, traceability, and serves as a reference for future decisions.

Question 52: A sign in a public place says: 'No food or drink permitted beyond this point.' What is the purpose of this text?

To give instructions (Correct answer)
To advertise a product
To tell a story
To express an opinion

Correct answer: To give instructions

Public signs with 'No…' or 'Do not…' language are instructional, telling people what they must or must not do.

Question 53: In PET Writing Part 3 (story), which element most helps create tension?

Using only simple vocabulary throughout.
Short, punchy sentences and time pressure for the character. (Correct answer)
Long lists of adjectives describing the setting.
Writing the story in alphabetical word order.

Correct answer: Short, punchy sentences and time pressure for the character.

Short sentences speed up the pace, and placing the character under pressure creates suspense.

Question 54: You are told to write a story beginning with 'It was the strangest day of my life.' What tense should the story mainly be written in?

Future simple throughout.
Present simple throughout.
Past tense, since the narrator is looking back on events. (Correct answer)
Mixed present and future tense.

Correct answer: Past tense, since the narrator is looking back on events.

The opening phrase shows the narrator is reflecting on past events, so past tense is appropriate.

Question 55: The athlete ___ after years of training and won the championship.

came across
came about
came through (Correct answer)
came around

Correct answer: came through

'Come through' means to succeed or achieve something despite difficulties.

Question 56: A sentence reads: 'Despite studying all night, Marco failed the exam.' What does 'despite' tell you?

Marco's failure was unexpected given how much he studied (Correct answer)
Marco did not study at all before the exam
The exam was too easy for Marco
Marco studied because he expected to fail

Correct answer: Marco's failure was unexpected given how much he studied

'Despite' introduces a contrast, showing that Marco's failure was surprising given his intensive preparation.

Question 57: Which word correctly fills the blank: 'The weather ________ dramatically last night.'?

change
changing
changes
changed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: changed

'Changed' is the simple past tense, matching the time marker 'last night'.

Question 58: A friend says they passed a difficult exam. What do you say?

I knew you could do it! Well done! (Correct answer)
Finally!
You got lucky.
That's not so hard.

Correct answer: I knew you could do it! Well done!

Expressing confidence in someone and congratulating them is a warm and supportive response.

Question 59: What is the purpose of an introductory paragraph in an essay?

To list all the points in detail
To include only personal opinions
To introduce the main idea and provide background (Correct answer)
To summarize the entire essay

Correct answer: To introduce the main idea and provide background

An introductory paragraph serves to hook the reader's attention, provide necessary background information on the topic, and clearly state the essay's main argument or thesis statement. It sets the stage for the discussion that follows, outlining what the essay will cover. A strong introduction is crucial for establishing the essay's purpose and direction.

Question 60: A PET task instructs: 'Write your answer in 35-45 words.' You write 30 words. What is the likely penalty?

No penalty if the content is accurate
Loss of marks for not completing the task fully (Correct answer)
Automatic disqualification from the exam
Bonus marks for being concise

Correct answer: Loss of marks for not completing the task fully

Falling below the word limit suggests incomplete task fulfilment, which costs marks in PET writing.

Cambridge B1 Preliminary (PET) Test

The Cambridge B1 Preliminary (PET) exam certifies intermediate English language proficiency at CEFR level B1, assessing reading, writing, listening, and speaking skills through real-world tasks including comprehension, sentence completion, communication scenarios, and composition.

Questions

140 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

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