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Treatment Planning Flashcards

7 cards from real PEBC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Treatment Planning flashcards as text
  1. A patient with HIV is initiated on an antiretroviral regimen containing tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF). Which organ function requires close monitoring?

    Answer: Renal function (serum creatinine, eGFR) and bone density

    TDF is associated with nephrotoxicity and decreased bone mineral density; renal function and bone density monitoring are key components of TDF-based regimen follow-up.

  2. A 60-year-old man with gout has a serum uric acid of 620 µmol/L and recurrent flares. He is started on allopurinol. What is the most important counselling point about starting allopurinol?

    Answer: Gout flares may paradoxically increase in the first months of therapy; prophylactic colchicine or NSAID is recommended

    Mobilization flares commonly occur when starting urate-lowering therapy as urate crystals are mobilized; low-dose colchicine or NSAID prophylaxis for 3–6 months is recommended.

  3. A pharmacist is assessing a patient's medication adherence. The patient reports taking their antihypertensive medications only 3–4 days per week. What is the MOST appropriate first intervention?

    Answer: Explore barriers to adherence through motivational interviewing before modifying the regimen

    Identifying and addressing patient-specific barriers through motivational interviewing is the foundational first step before making any therapeutic changes.

  4. A patient on amiodarone for atrial fibrillation is also taking warfarin. What adjustment to warfarin dosing is typically required?

    Answer: Reduce warfarin dose by approximately 30–50% as amiodarone inhibits its metabolism

    Amiodarone inhibits CYP2C9 (and CYP3A4), significantly reducing warfarin metabolism and increasing INR; warfarin dose reduction of 30–50% is typically required.

  5. A 45-year-old patient with moderate persistent asthma continues to have frequent symptoms despite low-dose ICS. What is the recommended step-up therapy per GINA guidelines?

    Answer: Add a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) to the existing ICS

    GINA guidelines recommend adding a LABA to ICS (forming an ICS/LABA combination) as the preferred step-up for uncontrolled moderate persistent asthma.

  6. A patient receiving vancomycin for MRSA bacteremia requires therapeutic drug monitoring. Which pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic target guides vancomycin dosing optimization?

    Answer: AUC24/MIC ratio of 400–600 mg·h/L

    Current ASHP/IDSA/SIDP guidelines (2020) recommend AUC-guided vancomycin monitoring with a target AUC24/MIC of 400–600 to optimize efficacy and minimize nephrotoxicity.

  7. A pharmacist notices that a prescription for clarithromycin has been written for a patient taking simvastatin 40 mg daily. What is the most appropriate action?

    Answer: Contact the prescriber to withhold simvastatin during clarithromycin therapy to prevent rhabdomyolysis

    Clarithromycin is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor that dramatically increases simvastatin exposure, raising the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis; simvastatin should be suspended during therapy.