Diagnostic Procedures Flashcards
7 cards from real PEBC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Diagnostic Procedures flashcards as text
A patient with type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 8.9%. What does this value most accurately reflect?
Answer: Average blood glucose over the past 2–3 months
HbA1c reflects glycosylated hemoglobin accumulated over the 2–3 month lifespan of red blood cells, providing an average blood glucose estimate.
A patient's ABG shows pH 7.28, PaCO2 28 mmHg, HCO3 13 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disorder?
Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis; the low PaCO2 reflects appropriate respiratory compensation (hyperventilation).
Which serum marker is most specific for acute myocardial infarction?
Answer: Troponin I or T
Cardiac troponins (I and T) are the most sensitive and specific biomarkers for myocardial injury and are the gold standard for diagnosing AMI.
A pharmacist notes a patient's TSH is 0.08 mIU/L and free T4 is elevated. Which condition does this pattern suggest?
Answer: Primary hyperthyroidism (overt)
Suppressed TSH combined with elevated free T4 is diagnostic of overt primary hyperthyroidism, indicating excess thyroid hormone production.
A urine culture grows >100,000 CFU/mL of E. coli with sensitivity to nitrofurantoin. A pregnant patient at 36 weeks asks if this antibiotic is safe. The pharmacist should advise:
Answer: Nitrofurantoin should be avoided near term due to risk of neonatal hemolytic anemia
Nitrofurantoin is generally safe in the first and second trimesters but is contraindicated at ≥36 weeks gestation due to the risk of neonatal hemolytic anemia.
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm celiac disease after a positive anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG-IgA) antibody screen?
Answer: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with small bowel biopsy
Duodenal/small bowel biopsy via EGD is required to confirm celiac disease by demonstrating villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia.
A patient on vancomycin therapy has a trough level of 22 mg/L. The target trough range is 15–20 mg/L. What is the most appropriate action?
Answer: Reduce the dose or extend the dosing interval and recheck levels
A supratherapeutic trough suggests accumulation risk; reducing the dose or extending the interval with repeat monitoring is appropriate to avoid nephrotoxicity.