Professional Collection Manager® (PCM) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A commercial customer's AP clerk keeps promising payment that never arrives. What is the most effective next communication step for a collection manager?
- Stop all contact for 60 days
- Keep calling the same clerk daily
- Escalate to the customer's controller or decision-maker with a documented payment commitment request (Correct answer)
- Send the account straight to litigation
Correct answer: Escalate to the customer's controller or decision-maker with a documented payment commitment request
Escalating to someone with payment authority breaks the cycle of broken promises from a contact without authority.
Question 2: A client wants to reduce its vendor count from five agencies to two. What gives an agency the best chance of being kept?
- Sending holiday gifts to client staff
- Promising guaranteed recovery percentages
- Offering the lowest price regardless of results
- Documented strong performance, compliance results, and responsive service (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Documented strong performance, compliance results, and responsive service
Clients keep vendors that consistently show results and low risk.
Question 3: Which instrument transfers the risk of a foreign buyer's nonpayment to the buyer's bank?
- Open account terms
- Irrevocable letter of credit (Correct answer)
- Net 30 invoice
- Consignment
Correct answer: Irrevocable letter of credit
An irrevocable letter of credit obligates the issuing bank to pay when documentary conditions are met.
Question 4: A contingency-fee agency collects $10,000 on a placed account at a 25% fee. What is the creditor's net-back?
- $10,000
- $12,500
- $2,500
- $7,500 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: $7,500
Net-back is collections minus fees: $10,000 − $2,500 = $7,500.
Question 5: Which of the following collector behaviors is a clear violation of professional ethics and the FDCPA?
- Documenting all consumer contacts accurately in the collection system
- Verifying debt information before initiating any contact with a consumer
- Threatening legal action that the agency has no actual intention of pursuing (Correct answer)
- Offering multiple payment options to accommodate the consumer's financial situation
Correct answer: Threatening legal action that the agency has no actual intention of pursuing
Threatening legal action that the agency does not intend to pursue is both an ethical violation and a violation of the FDCPA, constituting deceptive misrepresentation.
Question 6: A collection department's DSO is 52 days and its Best Possible DSO is 38 days. What is the Average Days Delinquent (ADD)?
- 14 days (Correct answer)
- 90 days
- 38 days
- 52 days
Correct answer: 14 days
ADD equals DSO minus Best Possible DSO, so 52 − 38 = 14 days.
Question 7: What is the purpose of filing a UCC-1 financing statement?
- To request a debtor's bankruptcy discharge
- To perfect a security interest in the debtor's collateral (Correct answer)
- To start a lawsuit against a defaulting debtor
- To report a debtor's delinquency to credit bureaus
Correct answer: To perfect a security interest in the debtor's collateral
Filing a UCC-1 gives public notice and establishes the creditor's priority in the collateral.
Question 8: Before deciding to litigate a delinquent commercial account, which factor is MOST important to evaluate?
- The debtor's number of employees only
- The debtor's attachable assets and likelihood of collecting a judgment (Correct answer)
- Whether the debtor answers emails promptly
- The color of the debtor's logo
Correct answer: The debtor's attachable assets and likelihood of collecting a judgment
A judgment has value only if the debtor has assets or income that can be reached.
Question 9: What is the primary ethical reason for maintaining accurate and complete records in collections?
- It is only required for accounts that ultimately result in legal action
- It ensures the agency can maximize fees charged to creditor clients
- It is primarily the responsibility of the technology department, not collectors
- It supports accountability, regulatory compliance, and fair treatment of consumers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It supports accountability, regulatory compliance, and fair treatment of consumers
Accurate record-keeping is an ethical obligation that supports accountability, regulatory compliance, and ensures consumers are treated fairly based on correct, verifiable information.
Question 10: What does 'informed consent' require in the context of negotiating payment arrangements with consumers?
- The debtor is informed of consequences only after they miss their first scheduled payment
- The collection manager approves the payment arrangement on the creditor client's behalf
- The consumer signs any document the collector presents agreeing to pay the amount stated
- The consumer fully understands and voluntarily agrees to all terms and conditions of a payment plan (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The consumer fully understands and voluntarily agrees to all terms and conditions of a payment plan
Informed consent requires that consumers fully understand all terms, conditions, and implications of any payment arrangement before voluntarily agreeing to it.
Question 11: What is the purpose of risk assessment in collections?
- Evaluate payment likelihood (Correct answer)
- Increase debts
- Reduce communication
- Ignore customer creditworthiness
Correct answer: Evaluate payment likelihood
The purpose of risk assessment in collections is to evaluate the likelihood of a customer making their payments and to determine the potential for default. By assessing factors such as credit history, payment patterns, and financial stability, businesses can identify high-risk accounts and tailor their collection strategies accordingly. This allows for more efficient allocation of resources and helps minimize potential losses.
Question 12: Which workforce management practice best keeps service levels steady during the busy Monday-morning inbound peak?
- Giving every agent the same fixed 9-to-5 shift
- Forecasting interval-level volume and scheduling staff to match it (Correct answer)
- Cutting all training on Mondays permanently
- Routing all inbound calls to voicemail
Correct answer: Forecasting interval-level volume and scheduling staff to match it
Interval-based forecasting and scheduling puts staff in place when the call volume actually arrives.
Question 13: During client onboarding, why is it important to confirm the data fields and file format in the placement file?
- It lets the agency skip skip-tracing
- It decides the agency's contingency rate
- It is required only for international clients
- Accurate data mapping prevents errors in balances, consumer information, and validation notices (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Accurate data mapping prevents errors in balances, consumer information, and validation notices
Incorrect data can lead to inaccurate validation notices and FDCPA risk.
Question 14: In Professional Collection Manager Certified, how should strategic planning & analysis challenges be prioritized?
- In the order they were identified
- Based on potential impact, urgency, and alignment with strategic objectives (Correct answer)
- Based solely on cost considerations
- By the preferences of senior management
Correct answer: Based on potential impact, urgency, and alignment with strategic objectives
Prioritizing based on impact, urgency, and strategic alignment ensures resources are directed where they will produce the greatest benefit.
Question 15: What is the PRIMARY benefit of standardizing human resources & talent development practices in Professional Collection Manager Certified?
- Limiting innovation and creativity
- Increasing dependency on specific vendors
- Consistency, easier maintenance, and improved collaboration among team members (Correct answer)
- Reducing the number of tools available
Correct answer: Consistency, easier maintenance, and improved collaboration among team members
Standardization promotes consistency across the organization, simplifies maintenance, and enables better collaboration between team members.
Question 16: How should a collection manager ethically handle confidential consumer financial information obtained during the collection process?
- Share it with other clients to identify cross-selling or referral opportunities
- Use it only for collection purposes and protect it from unauthorized disclosure (Correct answer)
- Provide it to any party requesting assistance with related debt recovery
- Store it indefinitely to support any future collection efforts on related accounts
Correct answer: Use it only for collection purposes and protect it from unauthorized disclosure
Consumer financial information is confidential and must be used only for legitimate collection purposes, protected from unauthorized access or disclosure under both privacy laws and professional ethics.
Question 17: A roll rate analysis shows 40% of 30-day delinquent accounts move to 60 days. What does this primarily help a collection manager do?
- Determine the statute of limitations
- Calculate sales tax liability
- Set credit limits for new applicants only
- Forecast future delinquency and charge-offs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Forecast future delinquency and charge-offs
Roll rates track migration between delinquency buckets to predict losses and allocate resources.
Question 18: A creditor splits similar portfolios between two agencies to compare their results. What is this practice called?
- Forward flow
- Warehousing
- Debt parking
- Champion/challenger testing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Champion/challenger testing
In champion/challenger testing, the incumbent agency competes with a challenger on comparable placements, and the stronger performer earns more volume.
Question 19: What does reconciliation of a client account typically involve?
- Deleting closed accounts from the system
- Calling every debtor to confirm their address
- Negotiating new contingency rates
- Matching agency records of placements, payments, adjustments, and remittances to the client's records (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Matching agency records of placements, payments, adjustments, and remittances to the client's records
Reconciliation makes sure both parties' records agree on balances and funds.
Question 20: A company's DSO is 52 days and its Best Possible DSO is 38 days. What is its Average Days Delinquent (ADD)?
- 1.37 days
- 38 days
- 14 days (Correct answer)
- 90 days
Correct answer: 14 days
ADD equals DSO minus Best Possible DSO, so 52 − 38 = 14 days.
Question 21: What generally happens to collection activity when a debtor files bankruptcy?
- Only phone calls must stop
- The automatic stay halts most collection actions (Correct answer)
- Creditors must immediately write off the debt
- Collection may continue for 30 days
Correct answer: The automatic stay halts most collection actions
The automatic stay under 11 U.S.C. §362 stops most collection efforts once a petition is filed.
Question 22: Under Regulation F, how many call attempts within seven days to a person about a particular debt create a presumption of harassment?
- More than five
- More than seven (Correct answer)
- More than ten
- More than three
Correct answer: More than seven
Reg F presumes a violation when a collector calls more than seven times within seven days about a particular debt.
Question 23: A debtor becomes angry and shouts during a call. What is the best initial response?
- Raise your voice to regain control
- Threaten legal action
- Stay calm, acknowledge the frustration, and redirect to resolving the account (Correct answer)
- Hang up immediately
Correct answer: Stay calm, acknowledge the frustration, and redirect to resolving the account
De-escalation through empathy and calm redirection keeps the conversation productive and compliant.
Question 24: How should an agency handle a client's request to collect on accounts in a state where the agency is not licensed?
- Collect anyway because the client is licensed
- Ask the debtor to waive licensing rights
- Obtain the required license or forward the accounts to a licensed partner (Correct answer)
- Collect only by letter, not by phone
Correct answer: Obtain the required license or forward the accounts to a licensed partner
Many states require collection agency licensing, and collecting without one can void collections and create penalties.
Question 25: What is the statute of limitations in debt collection?
- No limitation
- Varies by state (Correct answer)
- Uniform 10 years everywhere
- Only 1 year
Correct answer: Varies by state
The statute of limitations for debt collection is the legal time limit within which a creditor or debt collector can file a lawsuit to collect a debt. This period is not uniform across the United States; instead, it varies significantly from state to state and can also depend on the type of debt. Once the statute of limitations expires, the debt is considered "time-barred," meaning a lawsuit cannot be filed, though the debt may still be owed.
Question 26: In a business-to-business (commercial) collection call, who is usually the MOST effective contact for getting payment?
- The receptionist
- The company's marketing director
- The decision-maker with authority to approve payments, such as the controller or accounts payable manager (Correct answer)
- Any available employee
Correct answer: The decision-maker with authority to approve payments, such as the controller or accounts payable manager
Commercial collections move fastest when the collector talks to the person who can actually authorize payment.
Question 27: Promise-to-pay (PTP) kept rate is best used to evaluate what?
- The company's credit rating
- Sales team quota attainment
- The quality of commitments collectors obtain from debtors (Correct answer)
- Agency fee structures
Correct answer: The quality of commitments collectors obtain from debtors
PTP kept rate shows how often negotiated payment promises are actually honored.
Question 28: A debt is past the statute of limitations. Under Regulation F, what is a debt collector prohibited from doing?
- Reporting the account as paid
- Sending any communication
- Accepting voluntary payments
- Suing or threatening to sue on the time-barred debt (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Suing or threatening to sue on the time-barred debt
Reg F §1006.26(b) bars collectors from suing or threatening suit on time-barred debt.
Question 29: Under Regulation F, what is the presumed call frequency limit per debt?
- 3 calls in 7 days
- 10 calls in 7 days
- 7 calls in 7 days, and no call within 7 days after a phone conversation (Correct answer)
- Unlimited calls between 8 a.m. and 9 p.m.
Correct answer: 7 calls in 7 days, and no call within 7 days after a phone conversation
Reg F presumes compliance at no more than 7 call attempts in 7 days and no call within 7 days after a conversation about the debt.
Question 30: A consumer sends a written request that the collector cease all communication. Which contact is still permitted?
- Notice that the collector or creditor may invoke a specified remedy, such as filing suit (Correct answer)
- A follow-up call to confirm the request
- A text offering a settlement discount
- A weekly reminder email
Correct answer: Notice that the collector or creditor may invoke a specified remedy, such as filing suit
After a cease request, collectors may only advise that efforts are ending or that specific remedies may be invoked.
Professional Collection Manager® (PCM)
The PCM designation from ACA International recognizes collection professionals with management responsibility for collectors and the collection floor, testing expertise in collection strategy, legal compliance, client relationship management, communication, and professional ethics.
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
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- acainternational.org — Eligibility, fees, retake policy, score validity, test delivery, exam format · verified Oct 2026