PCM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield PCM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A manager wants to delegate skip-tracing oversight to a senior collector. What makes delegation effective? → Clearly defining outcomes, authority, resources, and check-in points
2. What is the purpose of filing a UCC-1 financing statement? → To perfect a security interest in the debtor's collateral
3. The Altman Z-score is primarily used to assess which risk? → Probability of corporate bankruptcy
4. Why is documentation important in collection risk management? → Supports dispute resolution
5. A collector avoids FDCPA liability for an unintentional violation if it shows the violation resulted from a bona fide error and what else? → It maintained procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors
6. When troubleshooting human resources & talent development issues in Professional Collection Manager Certified, what is the BEST approach? → Systematic diagnosis starting with the most likely causes and documenting steps
7. Which document should a project manager use to track identified risks, their probability, impact, owners, and responses? → Risk register
8. Running vendor testing in parallel with staff training, which were originally planned in sequence, is an example of: → Fast-tracking
9. A hospital issues an RFP for third-party collection services. Which proposal element will most likely set an agency apart from competitors? → Documented compliance management and verified historical recovery results
10. In a RACI matrix for a collection agency onboarding project, the 'A' role means the person who: → Is ultimately answerable for the task and signs off on it
11. A debtor disputes the debt in writing within the 30-day validation period. What must the collector do before continuing collection? → Stop collecting the disputed portion until verification is mailed to the consumer
12. Which formula correctly calculates Best Possible DSO? → (Current receivables ÷ Total credit sales) × Number of days
13. Under the ADA, a collector with a hearing impairment asks for an amplified headset. What is the employer generally required to do? → Provide a reasonable accommodation unless it causes undue hardship
14. What is active listening in communication? → Fully concentrating and responding
15. Under Regulation F, how long must a debt collector generally keep records showing its compliance? → 3 years from the last collection activity on the debt
16. Which practice best supports clear communication of credit and collection policy across the organization? → A written, approved policy shared with sales, customer service, and finance
17. Under Regulation F, the validation information must generally be provided within how many days of the initial communication if not included in it? → Five days
18. Under CFPB guidance on service providers, why do creditor clients audit their collection agencies? → Creditors can be held responsible for the conduct of their third-party service providers
19. Under Regulation F, what is the presumed call frequency limit per debt? → 7 calls in 7 days, and no call within 7 days after a phone conversation
20. A company sells creditors cheap letter series that falsely suggest a third-party collector is involved when it is not. Which FDCPA practice is this? → Flat-rating
21. When forecasting revenue for new consumer placements, which seasonal period typically increases collections in the U.S.? → Tax refund season, roughly February through April
22. Skip tracing in debt collection refers to: → Locating a debtor who has moved or become unreachable using data search tools
23. Under the FLSA, an hourly collector who works 46 hours in one workweek must be paid how? → At least 1.5 times the regular rate for the 6 hours over 40
24. A manager praises a collector publicly for an excellent compliant hardship negotiation. What principle is being applied? → Positive reinforcement of desired behavior
25. What is the purpose of risk assessment in collections? → Evaluate payment likelihood
26. What role does empathy play in effective communication? → It improves understanding and trust
27. Under the FDCPA, what must a collector disclose in subsequent communications after the initial communication with a consumer? → That the communication is from a debt collector
28. An agency designs a collector incentive plan. Which feature best supports both productivity and compliance? → Bonuses tied to collections but reduced for compliance violations or QA failures
29. What is a common method for managing accounts receivable? → Regular invoicing and follow-up
30. An agency receives accounts as a secondary placement. What does this usually mean? → The accounts were already worked by another agency without full recovery