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Medical Emergencies and Obstetrics Flashcards

7 cards from real Paramedics Exam practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 58-year-old male presents with sudden onset tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 190/110 in the right arm and 160/90 in the left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Aortic dissection

    Unequal blood pressures between arms combined with tearing back pain strongly suggests aortic dissection.

  2. A patient in status epilepticus has failed to respond to two doses of lorazepam. What is the next appropriate pharmacological intervention?

    Answer: Fosphenytoin

    Fosphenytoin (or phenytoin) is the second-line agent after benzodiazepines fail in status epilepticus management.

  3. A 32-year-old female at 36 weeks gestation has a BP of 160/110, severe headache, and 3+ proteinuria. She then has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. How should you manage this?

    Answer: Administer magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV bolus

    Eclampsia is treated with magnesium sulfate as the drug of choice to terminate seizures and prevent recurrence.

  4. Which finding is MOST consistent with distributive (septic) shock?

    Answer: Warm, flushed skin with wide pulse pressure

    Septic shock causes massive vasodilation resulting in warm, flushed skin and a wide pulse pressure in the early hyperdynamic phase.

  5. A 45-year-old male presents with wheezing, urticaria, hypotension (BP 70/40), and stridor after eating shellfish. What is the FIRST drug to administer?

    Answer: Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM

    Epinephrine IM is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its immediate alpha and beta adrenergic effects.

  6. You arrive at a scene where a 70-year-old female is unresponsive with a blood glucose of 28 mg/dL. IV access cannot be established. What is the next best intervention?

    Answer: Glucagon 1 mg IM

    Glucagon IM is the preferred alternative when IV access is unavailable in a hypoglycemic patient who cannot take oral glucose.

  7. A patient presents with acute altered mental status, fever of 40.2°C, muscle rigidity, and diaphoresis. She was recently started on haloperidol. What condition is MOST suspected?

    Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) presents with hyperthermia, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability after antipsychotic use.