Medical Emergencies Flashcards
7 cards from real Paramedics Exam practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Medical Emergencies flashcards as text
A 58-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the jaw, diaphoresis, and nausea. His 12-lead ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
Answer: Right coronary artery
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior STEMI, most commonly caused by right coronary artery (RCA) occlusion.
A patient with known COPD presents in severe respiratory distress. SpO2 is 84% on room air. What is the appropriate oxygen delivery target for this patient?
Answer: 88-92% SpO2
COPD patients may rely on hypoxic drive, so target SpO2 of 88-92% to avoid suppressing respiratory effort while correcting dangerous hypoxia.
A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop, right arm weakness, and aphasia. These symptoms began 45 minutes ago. Which intervention is the highest priority?
Answer: Establish IV access and draw blood glucose
Checking blood glucose is critical because hypoglycemia can mimic stroke symptoms, and IV access is needed for potential thrombolytic therapy at the hospital.
A 35-year-old patient presents with severe anxiety, carpopedal spasm, perioral tingling, and rapid deep breathing. Vital signs: RR 28, SpO2 99%, BP 130/80. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperventilation syndrome
Carpopedal spasm and perioral tingling with rapid breathing and normal SpO2 indicate hyperventilation syndrome causing hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis.
Which finding on a 12-lead ECG is most consistent with right ventricular infarction complicating an inferior STEMI?
Answer: ST elevation in leads V4R and V5R
Right-sided precordial leads V4R and V5R showing ST elevation indicate right ventricular infarction, which commonly complicates inferior STEMI.
A 50-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden severe 'thunderclap' headache he describes as the worst of his life. He is alert and oriented. What condition must be suspected?
Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A sudden-onset severe 'thunderclap' headache is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage until proven otherwise, most often from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.
A dialysis patient presents with weakness, peaked T-waves on ECG, and a wide QRS complex. Which medication should be administered first?
Answer: Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate
Calcium chloride or gluconate is the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia with cardiac manifestations because it immediately stabilizes the myocardial membrane.