Paramedics Exam Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Paramedics Exam facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

80 questions
120 min time limit
70% to pass
  1. A depressed patient presents with wide complex tachycardia, seizures, and hypotension. Her ECG shows a prolonged QRS. Which treatment is indicated? → Sodium bicarbonate 1–2 mEq/kg IV
  2. When applying a tourniquet for severe extremity hemorrhage, the correct placement is: → 2–3 inches proximal to the wound
  3. Which spinal injury pattern results from axial loading and is most commonly associated with diving accidents? → Burst fracture
  4. When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended chest compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer without an advanced airway? → 30:2
  5. A crew member reports that transmissions are becoming garbled and intermittent as they move further from the city. This is most likely due to: → Operating beyond the radio's effective range
  6. How much oxygen can a bag valve mask (BVM) provide? → 100 percent
  7. Which lung sound is characterized by a high-pitched, musical wheeze heard on expiration associated with bronchospasm? → Wheezing
  8. A paramedic experiences symptoms of stress after a traumatic pediatric call. The BEST initial support intervention is: → Peer support and open communication with crew members
  9. After inserting an oropharyngeal airway (OPA), the patient begins to gag and vomit. What is the CORRECT action? → Remove the OPA immediately and place patient in recovery position
  10. When employing the modified jaw-thrust maneuver because of a cervical injury, which action is NOT performed out? → Tilting the head
  11. A patient with a gunshot wound to the neck is speaking in a hoarse voice with subcutaneous emphysema palpable at the neck. The airway should be managed by: → Early definitive airway before swelling closes it
  12. During a vehicle rescue, the paramedic notes fuel leaking from a damaged tank. The FIRST action is: → Request a fire suppression team and establish a safety perimeter
  13. An EMS crew responds to a reported structure fire. Upon arrival, fire is showing from two windows. What is the appropriate EMS role? → Stage upwind, uphill, and uphill from the structure
  14. When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway in a pediatric patient, which measurement determines the correct size? → Distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
  15. When establishing a treatment sector at an MCI, the immediate (red) treatment area should be positioned: → Upwind and uphill from any hazmat release
  16. Which medication classification does adenosine belong to? → Antiarrhythmic (Class V)
  17. A 7-year-old is in respiratory distress with stridor and a barking cough after a recent URI. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
  18. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the rapid trauma assessment in a high-mechanism patient? → To detect life threats not found in the primary survey and prioritize transport
  19. When it is in the right place, where should the illuminated stylet's light be visible? → Front of the neck
  20. In a high-angle rope rescue, the 'belay' system serves which function? → Acts as a backup to catch the load if the main line fails
  21. Which anatomical landmark is used to identify the cricothyroid membrane for cricothyrotomy? → Space between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage
  22. When the incident commander arrives on the scene, what should they do first? → Assume an effective command mode and position
  23. Which term refers to the process of confirming that a message was received and understood correctly? → Echo procedure
  24. Crew Resource Management (CRM) in EMS is designed primarily to: → Improve communication and reduce errors in high-stress environments
  25. A trauma patient has an open skull fracture with brain matter visible. What is the most appropriate prehospital management? → Cover loosely with a moist sterile dressing
  26. A paramedic administers an IV medication too rapidly and the patient develops phlebitis. This is an example of which adverse drug effect? → Local tissue irritation
  27. Which way should a 9-month-examination old's develop? → Toe-to-head
  28. When lifting a heavy patient, which body mechanics rule is MOST important to prevent back injury? → Keep the load close to the body and lift with the legs
  29. At a multi-agency MCI, the system that integrates communications, facilities, and resources from different jurisdictions is called: → Multi-Agency Coordination System
  30. Which device generates high pressures? → Demand valve
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