Practice Test GeeksPANRE Test Practice Test
← All PANRE Flashcard Decks

Ultimate PANRE Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Ultimate PANRE flashcards as text

  1. A 25-year-old male presents with fever, stiff neck, and photophobia. CSF analysis shows glucose 30 mg/dL, protein 200 mg/dL, and WBC 1,200 cells/µL with 90% neutrophils. What is the most likely organism?

    Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

    S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, presenting with classic neutrophilic pleocytosis and low CSF glucose.

  2. A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation has an INR of 8.5 with no active bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Hold warfarin only and recheck in 24 hours

    For supratherapeutic INR (>8) without bleeding, holding warfarin and rechecking in 24 hours is appropriate; oral vitamin K may be added per guidelines.

  3. A 50-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum osmolality is 310 mOsm/kg and urine osmolality is 150 mOsm/kg. After water deprivation, urine osmolality remains low. Desmopressin administration increases urine osmolality to 350 mOsm/kg. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Central diabetes insipidus

    Response to desmopressin with an increase in urine osmolality confirms central (neurogenic) diabetes insipidus, where ADH production is deficient.

  4. Which ECG finding is most characteristic of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome during sinus rhythm?

    Answer: Delta wave with short PR interval

    WPW is characterized by a delta wave (slurred QRS upstroke) and short PR interval due to conduction through an accessory pathway bypassing the AV node.

  5. A 40-year-old woman presents with a butterfly-shaped facial rash, joint pain, pleuritis, and renal involvement. ANA is positive. Which antibody is most specific for her diagnosis?

    Answer: Anti-Smith (anti-Sm)

    Anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies are highly specific for SLE, although anti-dsDNA is more commonly ordered; anti-Sm is the most specific single antibody for SLE.

  6. A 65-year-old male with known BPH presents with inability to void, suprapubic pain, and a palpable bladder. What is the immediate management?

    Answer: Urethral catheterization

    Acute urinary retention requires immediate bladder decompression; urethral catheterization is the first-line approach when no contraindication exists.

  7. A 28-year-old woman presents with episodic headaches, diaphoresis, and hypertension with BP 190/110 during attacks. Urine metanephrines are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Pheochromocytoma

    Pheochromocytoma classically presents with paroxysmal hypertension, headache, and diaphoresis ('the 5 H's'), confirmed by elevated urine metanephrines.