FREE AGD Oral Pathology and Diagnosis Questions and Answers

Question 1

A 65-year-old male, a long-term heavy smoker, presents with a persistent, well-demarcated white patch on the lateral border of his tongue. The lesion is asymptomatic and cannot be wiped off with gauze. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Perform an incisional biopsy for definitive histopathologic diagnosis.

Answer

The clinical presentation is highly suggestive of leukoplakia, which is a potentially malignant disorder. Given the patient's risk factors (age, smoking) and the high-risk location (lateral tongue), there is a significant concern for dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma. Observation or empirical treatment for candidiasis is inappropriate. An incisional biopsy is the standard of care to obtain a definitive diagnosis and guide further treatment.

Question 2

Which of the following odontogenic cysts is most noted for its aggressive clinical behavior, high recurrence rate, and its association with Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome (Gorlin-Goltz Syndrome)?

Accepted Answer

Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)

Answer

The Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC) is renowned for its high recurrence rate (up to 60%) due to its thin, friable epithelial lining and the presence of satellite microcysts. It is also a hallmark feature of Nevoid Basal Cell Carcinoma Syndrome, also known as Gorlin-Goltz syndrome.

Question 3

A panoramic radiograph of a 48-year-old asymptomatic African American female reveals multiple, bilateral, well-defined, mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesions located in the periapical regions of the mandibular teeth. All associated teeth test vital. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia

Answer

Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia (FCOD) is a benign fibro-osseous condition that perfectly matches the described demographic (middle-aged African American females), location (mandible, multi-quadrant), and radiographic features (mixed density lesions at the apices of vital teeth). It is typically asymptomatic and requires no treatment, only periodic monitoring.

Question 4

A patient presents with painful, sloughing oral lesions. A biopsy is taken for direct immunofluorescence, which reveals IgG and C3 deposits in an intercellular, 'fishnet-like' pattern throughout the epithelium. This finding is pathognomonic for which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Pemphigus Vulgaris

Answer

Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease where autoantibodies target desmosomes, causing intraepithelial separation (acantholysis). This results in the characteristic intercellular deposition of IgG and C3, which appears as a 'fishnet' or 'chicken-wire' pattern on direct immunofluorescence. Bullous pemphigoid shows linear deposits at the basement membrane.

Question 5

A 35-year-old patient has a solitary, flat, blue-gray macule on the mandibular gingiva adjacent to a tooth with a large amalgam restoration. The lesion is asymptomatic and has been present for years without any change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Amalgam Tattoo (Focal Argyrosis)

Answer

An amalgam tattoo is the most common pigmentation of the oral cavity. It results from the accidental implantation of amalgam particles into the soft tissue. The classic clinical presentation is a blue, gray, or black macule located on the gingiva or alveolar mucosa near a tooth with an amalgam filling. They are benign and typically require no treatment.

(AGD) Academy of General Dentistry Certification Practice Test

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FREE AGD Oral Pathology and Diagnosis Questions and Answers