A 68-year-old male with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) presents for a follow-up visit. His intraocular pressure (IOP) is 18 mmHg in both eyes on a prostaglandin analog. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) of the retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) shows progressive thinning in the inferotemporal quadrant of the right eye compared to the previous year. Visual field testing remains reliable and full. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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A
Continue current therapy and repeat testing in one year.
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B
Add a second IOP-lowering agent.
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C
Discontinue the prostaglandin analog and switch to a beta-blocker.
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D
Perform a laser peripheral iridotomy.