Board Certified Ophthalmologist Board Certified Ophthalmologist Retina and Vitreous Diseases Questions and Answers 2

Question 1

A 62-year-old patient presents with sudden painless vision loss and a cherry-red spot on fundoscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Central retinal artery occlusion

Answer

A cherry-red spot with surrounding retinal whitening is the classic fundoscopic finding in central retinal artery occlusion due to ischemia of the inner retina.

Question 2

Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for detecting choroidal neovascularization in age-related macular degeneration?

Accepted Answer

Fluorescein angiography

Answer

Fluorescein angiography remains the gold standard for identifying and classifying choroidal neovascular membranes by demonstrating dye leakage patterns.

Question 3

A patient with proliferative diabetic retinopathy develops tractional retinal detachment involving the macula. What is the most appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

Pars plana vitrectomy

Answer

Tractional retinal detachment involving the macula requires pars plana vitrectomy to relieve traction and reattach the retina to preserve central vision.

Question 4

What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults in the United States?

Accepted Answer

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

Answer

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the leading cause of vitreous hemorrhage in US adults due to bleeding from fragile neovascular vessels.

Question 5

In Eales disease, what is the primary pathologic finding affecting the retinal vasculature?

Accepted Answer

Peripheral retinal vasculitis with nonperfusion

Answer

Eales disease is characterized by idiopathic peripheral retinal vasculitis leading to nonperfusion, neovascularization, and recurrent vitreous hemorrhage.

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Board Certified Ophthalmologist Board Certified Ophthalmologist Retina and Vitreous Diseases Questions and Answers 2