Orthopaedic Nurse Certified (ONC) Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which type of bone fracture in children occurs on one cortex only, with the other side bending but not breaking?
- Physeal fracture
- Comminuted fracture
- Torus fracture
- Greenstick fracture (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Greenstick fracture
A greenstick fracture affects one cortex while the opposite cortex bends, occurring in children whose bones are more flexible than adult bone.
Question 2: What type of traction uses skin tape or foam applied to the skin to exert pulling force on a limb?
- Manual traction
- Bryant traction
- Skeletal traction
- Skin traction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Skin traction
Skin traction applies pulling force through adhesive tapes or foam boots attached to the skin and is suitable for short-term use with lower weight limits.
Question 3: Which bone is the largest and strongest bone in the human body?
- Humerus
- Tibia
- Femur (Correct answer)
- Pelvis
Correct answer: Femur
The femur (thigh bone) is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, bearing full body weight during ambulation.
Question 4: Contraindications to ultrasound therapy include
- bursitis
- a suspected fracture (Correct answer)
- a sprain
- a muscle sprain
Correct answer: a suspected fracture
Ultrasound therapy generates heat and mechanical vibrations that can potentially disrupt the healing process of a fracture or worsen an undiagnosed one. Applying ultrasound to a suspected fracture site could delay proper diagnosis, cause further injury, or interfere with bone alignment and healing. Therefore, it is a contraindication to prevent complications and ensure patient safety.
Question 5: A nurse identifies that a patient with a long leg cast is experiencing compartment syndrome. Advocating for immediate intervention reflects which ethical principle?
- Non-maleficence (Correct answer)
- Autonomy
- Fidelity
- Justice
Correct answer: Non-maleficence
Non-maleficence—doing no harm—obligates the nurse to prevent avoidable injury by acting swiftly when compartment syndrome is suspected.
Question 6: A tourniquet is applied during extremity surgery primarily to achieve which goal?
- Provide a bloodless surgical field (Correct answer)
- Prevent DVT formation
- Stabilize the limb
- Reduce postoperative swelling
Correct answer: Provide a bloodless surgical field
Pneumatic tourniquets are applied proximal to the surgical site to occlude arterial flow and create a bloodless field, improving surgical visualization.
Question 7: An orthopaedic nurse who preceptors new staff is functioning in which professional role?
- Educator (Correct answer)
- Case manager
- Researcher
- Administrator
Correct answer: Educator
Acting as a preceptor is a core function of the educator role, supporting knowledge transfer and professional development.
Question 8: Which complication is MOST closely associated with tourniquet use during orthopaedic limb surgery?
- Arterial thrombosis only
- Venous air embolism
- Compartment syndrome and nerve injury (Correct answer)
- Fat embolism syndrome
Correct answer: Compartment syndrome and nerve injury
Prolonged tourniquet use can cause compartment syndrome and pressure-related nerve injury distal to the cuff.
Question 9: Heterotopic ossification following total hip replacement is best detected by which diagnostic method?
- MRI of the hip
- Bone biopsy
- CT angiogram
- Plain X-ray of the pelvis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Plain X-ray of the pelvis
Heterotopic ossification (abnormal bone formation in soft tissue around the hip) is detected on plain radiographs and graded using the Brooker classification.
Question 10: Which technology is commonly used in the operating room to provide real-time intraoperative imaging guidance during orthopaedic procedures such as spinal fusion?
- Fluoroscopy (C-arm) (Correct answer)
- DEXA scan
- PET scan
- Ultrasound elastography
Correct answer: Fluoroscopy (C-arm)
Fluoroscopy using a C-arm provides real-time X-ray imaging during procedures, enabling surgeons to confirm implant placement and alignment intraoperatively.
Question 11: How should an Orthopaedic Nurse Test professional present complex information to non-experts?
- Skip complex topics entirely
- Use full technical terminology
- Provide written reports only
- Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding
This is fundamental to Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice. Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and check for understanding represents the professional standard for communication in the Orthopaedic Nurse Test certification framework.
Question 12: Which anticoagulation agent is most commonly used for DVT prophylaxis following total knee replacement in the US?
- Heparin infusion
- Aspirin 81mg only
- Clopidogrel
- Warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
AAOS and ACCP guidelines recommend warfarin or DOACs (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban) as standard DVT prophylaxis after total knee arthroplasty.
Question 13: An orthopaedic patient is receiving warfarin for DVT treatment. Which laboratory value is the primary parameter used to monitor therapeutic anticoagulation?
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- International normalized ratio (INR) (Correct answer)
- Anti-Xa level
- Platelet count
Correct answer: International normalized ratio (INR)
The INR standardizes prothrombin time measurement across labs and is the gold-standard monitoring parameter for warfarin therapy.
Question 14: A patient scheduled for knee arthroplasty is visibly anxious and asks repetitive questions about the surgery. The nurse's most therapeutic response is to:
- Document the anxiety and request a sedative order
- Limit responses to avoid reinforcing anxiety
- Respond calmly to each question, identify the source of anxiety, and offer pre-operative education tools (Correct answer)
- Encourage the patient to wait and ask the surgeon in the OR
Correct answer: Respond calmly to each question, identify the source of anxiety, and offer pre-operative education tools
Calm, consistent responses and targeted education address the cognitive and emotional components of pre-operative anxiety effectively.
Question 15: When preparing a surgical site for orthopaedic surgery, what is the recommended skin antiseptic agent per current evidence-based guidelines?
- Chlorhexidine-alcohol solution (Correct answer)
- Povidone-iodine scrub only
- Hydrogen peroxide
- Saline irrigation
Correct answer: Chlorhexidine-alcohol solution
Chlorhexidine-alcohol is the preferred preoperative skin antiseptic per CDC surgical site infection prevention guidelines due to its superior persistent antimicrobial activity.
Question 16: How should Orthopaedic Nurse Test professionals handle conflicts with stakeholders?
- Avoid all conflict
- Address issues professionally through active listening, finding common ground, and seeking resolution (Correct answer)
- Escalate immediately to management
- Ignore stakeholder concerns
Correct answer: Address issues professionally through active listening, finding common ground, and seeking resolution
This is fundamental to Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice. Address issues professionally through active listening, finding common ground, and seeking resolution represents the professional standard for communication in the Orthopaedic Nurse Test certification framework.
Question 17: A nurse notices a colleague documenting care that was not performed. The most appropriate action is to:
- Ignore the behavior since it does not involve the nurse's own patients
- Post about it on social media to raise awareness
- Correct the colleague's documentation yourself
- Report the concern through the appropriate chain of command or ethics process (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Report the concern through the appropriate chain of command or ethics process
Falsified documentation is a patient safety and professional ethics issue that must be reported through established institutional and regulatory channels.
Question 18: The menisci of the knee serve which primary function?
- Connect the femur to the tibia
- Produce synovial fluid
- Prevent posterior tibial displacement
- Absorb shock and distribute load across the knee joint (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Absorb shock and distribute load across the knee joint
The medial and lateral menisci act as shock absorbers and load distributors, reducing stress on articular cartilage within the knee joint.
Question 19: Which patient is at HIGHEST risk for intraoperative and postoperative hemorrhage during orthopaedic surgery?
- A patient with a history of von Willebrand disease (Correct answer)
- A patient on metformin for type 2 diabetes
- A patient taking aspirin stopped 5 days ago
- A patient with controlled hypertension
Correct answer: A patient with a history of von Willebrand disease
Von Willebrand disease impairs platelet adhesion and clotting factor VIII activity, significantly increasing bleeding risk.
Question 20: A nurse reports that the orthopaedic unit's clinical pathway for hip replacement is not being consistently followed. Which approach BEST addresses this gap?
- Audit adherence, identify barriers, and engage staff in revising the pathway (Correct answer)
- Remove the clinical pathway and rely on physician preference
- File a complaint against non-compliant physicians
- Wait for the annual quality review to address the issue
Correct answer: Audit adherence, identify barriers, and engage staff in revising the pathway
Auditing compliance, identifying barriers, and involving frontline staff in solutions leads to sustainable improvement in pathway adherence.
Question 21: What role does active listening play in Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice?
- It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes (Correct answer)
- It means staying silent
- It is only for counseling professionals
- It wastes time
Correct answer: It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes
This is fundamental to Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice. It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes represents the professional standard for communication in the Orthopaedic Nurse Test certification framework.
Question 22: Fat embolism syndrome (FES) following long bone fracture most commonly presents with which classic triad?
- Dyspnea, hemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain
- Hypoxia, neurological changes, and petechial rash (Correct answer)
- Fever, jaundice, and hemoptysis
- Bradycardia, hypertension, and cyanosis
Correct answer: Hypoxia, neurological changes, and petechial rash
The classic fat embolism syndrome triad includes hypoxemia, neurological dysfunction (confusion), and petechial rash on the chest, axillae, and conjunctivae.
Question 23: Which ligament of the knee prevents anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur?
- Lateral collateral ligament
- Anterior cruciate ligament (Correct answer)
- Medial collateral ligament
- Posterior cruciate ligament
Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) resists anterior tibial translation and rotational forces, making it a critical stabilizer of the knee.
Question 24: Subluxation of a joint refers to which condition?
- Inflammation of the joint capsule
- Fracture adjacent to a joint
- Partial displacement of joint surfaces with some contact remaining (Correct answer)
- Complete separation of joint surfaces
Correct answer: Partial displacement of joint surfaces with some contact remaining
Subluxation is an incomplete or partial dislocation where joint surfaces are misaligned but maintain some contact, distinguishing it from a full dislocation.
Question 25: Which best describes the difference between a nursing diagnosis and a medical diagnosis?
- Medical diagnoses focus on patient coping; nursing diagnoses focus on pathology
- Nursing diagnoses are made only by advanced practice nurses
- A nursing diagnosis requires a physician's order to document
- Nursing diagnoses identify human responses to health conditions; medical diagnoses identify disease processes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Nursing diagnoses identify human responses to health conditions; medical diagnoses identify disease processes
Nursing diagnoses (e.g., Impaired Physical Mobility) describe patient responses to illness, while medical diagnoses (e.g., femoral fracture) identify pathological conditions.
Question 26: Which complication is specifically associated with prolonged use of a tight plaster cast on a limb?
- Fat embolism
- Compartment syndrome (Correct answer)
- Avascular necrosis
- Osteomyelitis
Correct answer: Compartment syndrome
A cast that is too tight can impede circulation and increase compartmental pressure, leading to acute compartment syndrome if not recognized and treated promptly.
Question 27: The neurovascular assessment '5 Ps' for a casted extremity includes pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and which fifth component?
- Paralysis (Correct answer)
- Petechiae
- Perspiration
- Pressure
Correct answer: Paralysis
The 5 Ps of neurovascular assessment are Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia, and Paralysis, guiding early detection of vascular compromise or compartment syndrome.
Question 28: What is the primary purpose of regulatory compliance in Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice?
- To create bureaucratic burden
- To benefit regulators only
- To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability (Correct answer)
- To limit competition
Correct answer: To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability
This is fundamental to Orthopaedic Nurse Test practice. To protect public safety, ensure quality standards, and maintain professional accountability represents the professional standard for regulatory in the Orthopaedic Nurse Test certification framework.
Question 29: A patient asks the orthopaedic nurse to keep a conversation about medication side effects private from their spouse. The nurse should:
- Document that the patient is withholding information from family
- Consult the ethics team before agreeing to confidentiality
- Inform the spouse anyway since they are the primary caregiver
- Respect the patient's confidentiality request, as patients have the right to control their own health information (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Respect the patient's confidentiality request, as patients have the right to control their own health information
HIPAA protects each patient's right to determine who receives their health information, regardless of relationship to the patient.
Question 30: Which bone disease is characterized by low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration, increasing fracture risk?
- Osteomyelitis
- Osteoporosis (Correct answer)
- Osteoarthritis
- Paget's disease
Correct answer: Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is defined by reduced bone mineral density and deteriorated bone microstructure, leading to fragility fractures with minimal trauma.
Orthopaedic Nurse Certified (ONC) Exam
The ONC exam, administered by the Orthopaedic Nurses Certification Board (ONCB), validates a registered nurse's specialized knowledge in orthopaedic care including musculoskeletal conditions, surgical procedures, pain management, and patient rehabilitation.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds