Mixed Deck — All ORE PART 2 Topics Flashcards

What material is most suitable for a temporary crown on a prepared anterior tooth?

Answer: Bis-acryl composite

Bis-acryl composite temporary crowns offer good aesthetics, sufficient strength, and are easily trimmed and polished for anterior temporary restorations.

Which condition is an absolute contraindication to dental extraction in general dental practice?

Answer: Acute haemophilia without factor replacement cover

Haemophilia without appropriate factor replacement is an absolute contraindication to extraction in general practice; hospital-based management with haematology liaison is required.

What is the purpose of the NHS Dental Contract (2006) Unit of Dental Activity (UDA) system?

Answer: Measure and remunerate dental practices based on the volume and complexity of NHS treatment delivered

The UDA system allocates points (1, 3, or 12) to treatment bands, with practices contracted to deliver a specified number of UDAs per year; remuneration is based on UDA delivery against contract.

Under IRMER 2017 (Ionising Radiation Medical Exposure Regulations), what is the role of the 'referrer' in dental radiography?

Answer: The registered dental professional who clinically justifies the need for the radiographic examination

Under IRMER 2017, the referrer is the registered professional who requests or clinically justifies the radiographic examination; they must have adequate knowledge to justify the radiation exposure.

What are the signs of a hypoadrenal (Addisonian) crisis in the dental surgery?

Answer: Profound hypotension, collapse, confusion, pallor, and nausea in a patient on long-term steroids

Addisonian crisis (acute adrenocortical insufficiency) presents with severe hypotension, collapse, confusion, and pallor, typically in patients on long-term corticosteroids who have not been steroid-covered.

What is the primary goal of the 'Step 1' in the BSP four-step periodontal treatment model?

Answer: Patient education, risk factor modification, and supra-gingival biofilm removal

Step 1 focuses on patient education, oral hygiene instruction, risk factor management (e.g., smoking cessation), and professional removal of supra-gingival plaque and calculus.

Which base material provides the greatest thermal insulation under a metallic restoration?

Answer: Zinc oxide eugenol cement

Zinc oxide eugenol has sedative properties and low thermal conductivity, making it an effective base for thermal insulation under metal restorations.

What is a Kennedy Class I partial denture classification?

Answer: Bilateral free-end saddle (missing posterior teeth on both sides)

Kennedy Class I is defined as a bilateral edentulous area posterior to the remaining natural teeth (bilateral free-end saddles), the most challenging classification for removable partial dentures.

What is the correct inhaled dose of salbutamol for an acute mild-to-moderate asthma attack?

Answer: 2–10 puffs of 100 mcg salbutamol via spacer

For mild-to-moderate acute asthma in the dental surgery, 2–10 puffs of salbutamol (100 mcg per puff) via a spacer device are recommended, allowing reassessment between administrations.

In the context of dental ethics, what does the principle of 'non-maleficence' mean?

Answer: Do no harm; avoid treatments that cause unnecessary risk or suffering

Non-maleficence ('do no harm') obligates dental professionals to avoid causing unnecessary harm through their interventions, weighing risks against benefits for each treatment.

Which radiograph is recommended before lower third molar surgery to assess root-IAN proximity?

Answer: CBCT when periapical shows intimate contact

CBCT is indicated when OPG/periapical radiographs show signs of intimate root-IAN contact (e.g., root narrowing, canal interruption, darkening), providing accurate 3D assessment to plan surgery safely.

What is the recommended re-evaluation period after completing active non-surgical periodontal therapy (root surface debridement)?

Answer: 8–12 weeks

The BSP/EFP guidelines recommend re-evaluation at 8–12 weeks after completing non-surgical therapy. This timeframe allows for tissue healing, resolution of inflammation, and maturation of the junctional epithelium. Earlier assessment may show false improvements due to residual oedema, while later assessment may miss the window for timely surgical intervention.

What is the purpose of indemnity insurance for dental professionals in the UK?

Answer: Provides financial protection and legal support in the event of a negligence claim or complaint

Professional indemnity/insurance is a GDC registration requirement, providing financial and legal protection for dental professionals in the event of negligence claims, complaints, or fitness to practise proceedings.

What is the clinical significance of furcation Class II involvement in a maxillary molar?

Answer: Reduced prognosis; complete root separation or extraction may be considered

Class II furcation in maxillary molars indicates significant attachment and bone loss within the furcation, complicating cleaning, and worsening long-term prognosis.

What is the primary purpose of a facebow record in prosthodontic treatment?

Answer: To transfer the relationship of the maxilla to the hinge axis of the mandible to a semi-adjustable articulator

A facebow records the spatial relationship of the maxillary arch to the transverse hinge axis (or an arbitrary point near the condyles) and transfers this to a semi-adjustable articulator. This ensures that the arc of closure on the articulator mimics the patient's jaw movements, improving the accuracy of the occlusal scheme.

What is the role of the Dental Practice Adviser (DPA) in NHS dental contract management?

Answer: NHS England officer who supports practices in contract compliance and investigates contract concerns

The Dental Practice Adviser (NHS England) acts as a liaison between NHS dental practices and the commissioner, providing guidance on contract compliance and investigating concerns about NHS service delivery.

According to the 2017 World Workshop classification, what defines Stage III periodontitis?

Answer: Interdental CAL ≥5mm, radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root, and potential for tooth loss

Stage III periodontitis is defined by interdental clinical attachment loss (CAL) of 5mm or more, radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root or beyond, and complexity factors including furcation involvement (Class II or III), moderate ridge defects, and potential for tooth loss. It represents severe periodontitis with increasing complexity of management.

What is the most common reason for failure of tooth-coloured restorations in primary teeth?

Answer: Secondary caries and marginal breakdown

Primary teeth restorations commonly fail due to secondary caries developing at margins, often related to high caries risk and difficulty achieving isolation.

When should a definitive reline of a complete denture be performed?

Answer: After ridge remodelling is stable (6–12 months after tooth loss)

Definitive relining should be deferred until alveolar ridge remodelling has stabilised, typically 6–12 months after extractions, to ensure the reline captures a stable tissue record.

What is the significance of an infra-occluded primary molar?

Answer: Potential space loss and tipping of adjacent teeth; may require extraction if severe

Infra-occlusion (submerged primary molar/ankylosis) can lead to space loss as adjacent teeth tip into the space and the opposing tooth over-erupts; severe cases require extraction with space maintainer.