ATI Fundamentals of Nursing Proctored Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. According to the CDC, how long should hands be scrubbed with soap and water?

5 seconds
10 seconds
60 seconds
At least 20 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least 20 seconds

The CDC recommends scrubbing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds to effectively reduce microbial load.

Question 2: A nurse is about to administer a medication. Which of the following is the correct order of the 'rights' of medication administration?

Right time, right route, right dose, right drug, right patient
Right drug, right patient, right route, right time, right dose
Right dose, right drug, right time, right patient, right route
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

The five rights of medication administration are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time — all must be verified before giving any medication.

Question 3: What is the primary purpose of the nursing process?

To document care for billing purposes
To follow physician orders accurately
To provide a systematic framework for individualized patient care (Correct answer)
To ensure hospital policies are followed

Correct answer: To provide a systematic framework for individualized patient care

The nursing process (ADPIE) provides a systematic, evidence-based framework to deliver individualized, patient-centered care.

Question 4: During assessment, a nurse auscultates the lungs and hears a crackling, bubbling sound on inspiration. This is documented as:

Stridor
Rhonchi
Wheezing
Crackles (rales) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crackles (rales)

Crackles (rales) are discontinuous crackling or bubbling sounds heard on inspiration, often associated with fluid in the airways or alveoli.

Question 5: Which of the following is a correct technique when taking an oral temperature with a glass thermometer?

Place the thermometer between the cheek and gum
Clean the thermometer before and after use with hot water
Wait 15 minutes after the patient drinks cold water before measuring (Correct answer)
Place the thermometer under the tongue for 2 minutes

Correct answer: Wait 15 minutes after the patient drinks cold water before measuring

Eating, drinking, or smoking can alter oral temperature readings, so the nurse should wait 15–30 minutes after these activities for an accurate result.

Question 6: When caring for a patient in contact precautions, the nurse should don PPE in which order before entering the room?

Mask, goggles, gown, gloves (Correct answer)
Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
Goggles, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: Mask, goggles, gown, gloves

For contact precautions, the correct donning order is mask (if required), goggles/face shield, gown, then gloves — the gloves go on last to maintain cleanliness.

Question 7: A nurse is using the SBAR communication tool. What does the 'R' in SBAR stand for?

Report
Review
Response
Recommendation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Recommendation

In SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation), the 'R' stands for Recommendation — the nurse's suggested action or intervention.

Question 8: Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
Administer epinephrine and maintain airway (Correct answer)
Apply a cold compress to reduce swelling
Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV

Correct answer: Administer epinephrine and maintain airway

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and maintaining airway patency is the priority because airway compromise can be life-threatening.

Question 9: A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which description best matches this finding?

Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
Partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open wound (Correct answer)
Full-thickness skin loss involving subcutaneous tissue

Correct answer: Partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open wound

A stage 2 pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss presenting as a shallow open wound with a pink or red wound bed, without slough.

Question 10: A nurse applies standard precautions. Which patient condition requires droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions?

Influenza (Correct answer)
Tuberculosis
C. difficile infection
MRSA wound infection

Correct answer: Influenza

Influenza is transmitted via respiratory droplets and therefore requires droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions.

Question 11: When performing a sterile dressing change, the nurse accidentally touches the sterile field with an ungloved hand. What should the nurse do?

Apply hand sanitizer and continue
Change gloves and continue using the same field
Discard the sterile field and set up a new one (Correct answer)
Proceed if the contact was brief

Correct answer: Discard the sterile field and set up a new one

Any contact with a sterile field by an unsterile item renders the entire field contaminated; a new sterile setup must be prepared.

Question 12: A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering tube feeding, what is the first action?

Flush the tube with 50 mL of water
Verify tube placement by checking pH or x-ray confirmation (Correct answer)
Elevate the head of bed to at least 30 degrees
Check residual gastric volume

Correct answer: Verify tube placement by checking pH or x-ray confirmation

Verifying NG tube placement before each feeding is the priority to prevent aspiration pneumonia from inadvertent pulmonary feeding.

Question 13: A patient's urine output over 8 hours is 200 mL. How should the nurse interpret this finding?

Anuria — no urine is being produced
Oliguria — below the expected minimum output (Correct answer)
Slightly above average but acceptable
Normal output for an 8-hour period

Correct answer: Oliguria — below the expected minimum output

Normal urine output is approximately 30 mL/hr; 200 mL over 8 hours (25 mL/hr) is below the minimum threshold and indicates oliguria.

Question 14: A patient is admitted with dehydration. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?

Bounding pulse and hypertension
Decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes (Correct answer)
Peripheral edema and weight gain
Bradycardia and cool, clammy skin

Correct answer: Decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes

Decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes are classic clinical signs of dehydration due to reduced fluid volume in the tissues.

Question 15: Which pain assessment scale is most appropriate for a non-verbal patient or an infant?

FACES Pain Rating Scale
Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
FLACC Scale (Correct answer)
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS)

Correct answer: FLACC Scale

The FLACC scale (Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability) is designed to assess pain in non-verbal patients, including infants and unconscious individuals.

Question 16: Which position is recommended to prevent aspiration in a patient receiving enteral tube feedings?

Head of bed elevated 30–45 degrees (Correct answer)
Supine (flat)
Trendelenburg position
Left lateral decubitus position

Correct answer: Head of bed elevated 30–45 degrees

Elevating the head of the bed 30–45 degrees during and after tube feedings reduces the risk of aspiration by using gravity to keep the stomach contents from refluxing.

Question 17: A nurse is preparing to give an injection. Which site is most appropriate for an intramuscular (IM) injection in an adult?

Dorsogluteal muscle
Ventrogluteal muscle (Correct answer)
Deltoid muscle
Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: Ventrogluteal muscle

The ventrogluteal site is the preferred IM injection site in adults because it has the fewest major nerves and blood vessels and consistently thick muscle mass.

Question 18: A patient is placed in Fowler's position. At what angle is the head of the bed elevated?

30–45 degrees
45–60 degrees (Correct answer)
60–90 degrees
15–30 degrees

Correct answer: 45–60 degrees

Fowler's position elevates the head of the bed to 45–60 degrees, which is the standard angle for this semi-upright position.

Question 19: Which action best demonstrates respect for a patient's autonomy?

Administering medication without explaining side effects
Deciding the best treatment plan on behalf of the patient
Encouraging family members to make all care decisions
Allowing the patient to refuse treatment after being informed of the risks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Allowing the patient to refuse treatment after being informed of the risks

Patient autonomy means the right to make informed decisions about their own care, including the right to refuse treatment.

Question 20: Which vital sign finding should be reported to the charge nurse immediately in an adult patient?

Heart rate of 112 beats per minute (Correct answer)
Temperature of 98.6°F (37°C)
Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg

Correct answer: Heart rate of 112 beats per minute

A heart rate of 112 bpm indicates tachycardia, which is above the normal adult range of 60–100 bpm and requires prompt assessment.

Question 21: When documenting in a patient's medical record, which principle is most important?

Use abbreviations to save time
Document only at the end of each shift
Record entries that are accurate, timely, and objective (Correct answer)
Write in pencil so corrections can be made

Correct answer: Record entries that are accurate, timely, and objective

Accurate, timely, and objective documentation is the legal and professional standard for medical recordkeeping.

ATI Fundamentals of Nursing Proctored Exam

The ATI Fundamentals of Nursing proctored exam assesses nursing students' mastery of core nursing concepts including basic care, safety, health promotion, and physiological integrity as taught in first-semester nursing programs.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

67%

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