Practice Test GeeksNP - Nurse Practitioner Practice Test
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Family Nurse Practitioner Flashcards

7 cards from real NP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Family Nurse Practitioner flashcards as text

  1. A 58-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with an HbA1c of 9.2% despite metformin 1000mg twice daily. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Add a GLP-1 receptor agonist

    Adding a GLP-1 receptor agonist is appropriate for uncontrolled T2DM on metformin, offering both glycemic control and cardiovascular benefits.

  2. A 4-year-old presents with a barky cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. The most likely diagnosis is:

    Answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

    Croup presents with the classic barky (seal-like) cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

  3. Which medication is considered first-line treatment for uncomplicated urinary tract infections in non-pregnant women?

    Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x 5 days

    Nitrofurantoin for 5 days is first-line for uncomplicated UTI due to high efficacy, low resistance rates, and minimal collateral damage to gut flora.

  4. A 32-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation is found to have a TSH of 6.8 mIU/L with normal free T4. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Start levothyroxine therapy

    Subclinical hypothyroidism in pregnancy (TSH >2.5 mIU/L in first trimester) warrants levothyroxine to prevent adverse fetal neurodevelopmental outcomes.

  5. A 70-year-old patient on warfarin presents with an INR of 8.5 and no active bleeding. The best management is:

    Answer: Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K 2.5mg

    For supratherapeutic INR without bleeding, holding warfarin and administering low-dose oral vitamin K (1–2.5mg) is the recommended approach.

  6. Which finding on physical exam is most consistent with bacterial sinusitis rather than viral rhinosinusitis?

    Answer: Symptoms worsening after initial improvement (double-sickening)

    The 'double-sickening' pattern—initial improvement followed by worsening—strongly suggests secondary bacterial sinusitis.

  7. A 45-year-old patient is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) via positive IGRA. He has no active TB symptoms. First-line treatment is:

    Answer: Isoniazid + rifapentine weekly x 12 weeks (3HP)

    The 3HP regimen (weekly isoniazid + rifapentine for 12 weeks) is now preferred for LTBI due to shorter duration and improved adherence.