Practice Test GeeksNP - Nurse Practitioner Practice Test
← All NP Flashcard Decks

Case Studies & Practical Application Flashcards

7 cards from real NP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Case Studies & Practical Application flashcards as text

  1. A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed hypertension also has stage 3 CKD and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 450 mg/g. Which antihypertensive class is most appropriate as first-line therapy?

    Answer: ACE inhibitor (lisinopril)

    ACE inhibitors (or ARBs) are first-line in CKD with proteinuria because they reduce intraglomerular pressure and slow progression of kidney disease.

  2. A 40-year-old woman presents with palpitations, heat intolerance, 15-lb weight loss over 2 months, and a fine tremor. TSH is <0.01 mIU/L and free T4 is elevated. Radioactive iodine uptake scan shows diffuse increased uptake. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Graves' disease

    Graves' disease is characterized by diffuse increased RAI uptake due to TSH receptor antibodies stimulating the entire gland, unlike focal causes.

  3. A 67-year-old man on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents after a mechanical fall with a head CT showing a small subdural hematoma. INR is 3.2. He is neurologically intact. What is the most urgent priority?

    Answer: Reverse anticoagulation with 4-factor PCC and vitamin K

    An intracranial hemorrhage in an anticoagulated patient requires urgent reversal; 4-factor PCC provides faster and more complete reversal than FFP alone.

  4. A 19-year-old college student presents with 5 days of watery diarrhea (8 stools/day), crampy abdominal pain, and low-grade fever after returning from a camping trip where she drank from a mountain stream. Stool microscopy shows pear-shaped trophozoites. What is the treatment?

    Answer: Metronidazole 250 mg three times daily for 5 days

    Giardia lamblia (pear-shaped trophozoites) from contaminated water is treated with metronidazole or tinidazole.

  5. A 33-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation presents with nausea, vomiting, and a uterus larger than expected for gestational age. Serum beta-hCG is markedly elevated and ultrasound shows a 'snowstorm' pattern without a fetal pole. What is the management?

    Answer: Perform suction curettage and monitor serial beta-hCG levels

    Complete hydatidiform mole requires immediate suction curettage followed by serial beta-hCG monitoring to detect persistent gestational trophoblastic disease.

  6. A 70-year-old man with osteoporosis is being considered for bisphosphonate therapy. He has a GFR of 28 mL/min/1.73m². Which management is most appropriate?

    Answer: Use denosumab instead, as it is safe in CKD

    Oral and IV bisphosphonates are contraindicated when GFR <30–35 mL/min; denosumab is safe in CKD (though hypocalcemia monitoring is required).

  7. A 50-year-old man with no cardiac history presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 45 minutes. EKG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

    Answer: Right coronary artery

    Inferior STEMI (ST elevation in II, III, aVF) is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies the inferior wall.