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Mixed Deck — All NTP Topics Flashcards

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  1. When reintroducing foods after an elimination diet, the recommended protocol is to:

    Answer: Reintroduce one food every 3 days and monitor symptoms

    Introducing one food at a time with a 3-day window allows delayed IgG reactions to manifest and clearly identifies specific triggers.

  2. What is the primary purpose of the phosphocreatine (PCr) system during maximal sprinting?

    Answer: Rapidly regenerate ATP for 1–10 seconds of explosive effort

    Phosphocreatine donates its phosphate group to ADP to rapidly restore ATP, powering maximal efforts lasting roughly 1–10 seconds.

  3. Which carbohydrate strategy best supports a 90-minute high-intensity soccer match?

    Answer: Carbohydrate loading 24–48 hours prior plus intra-match glucose/fructose

    Glycogen loading before and mixed glucose/fructose during a 90-minute match maximizes fuel availability and oxidation rates.

  4. Which form of exercise has been shown to have the greatest benefit for improving insulin sensitivity and metabolic rate in overweight individuals?

    Answer: Resistance training combined with aerobic exercise

    Combining resistance training with aerobic exercise builds metabolically active muscle tissue and improves glucose uptake, yielding greater metabolic benefits than either alone.

  5. Which sleep-related factor most directly contributes to weight gain when chronically disrupted?

    Answer: Reduced growth hormone release and increased ghrelin

    Poor sleep suppresses growth hormone (which supports fat metabolism) and elevates ghrelin (the hunger hormone), promoting fat storage and increased appetite.

  6. Which functional lab finding would prompt an NTP to investigate SIBO (small intestinal bacterial overgrowth)?

    Answer: Positive lactulose breath test

    The lactulose breath test detects hydrogen and methane gas produced by bacteria in the small intestine, making it the primary non-invasive test for SIBO.

  7. Which test is considered the gold standard for assessing iron stores in the body?

    Answer: Ferritin

    Ferritin is a storage protein for iron, and its serum level directly reflects total body iron stores, making it the most reliable marker.

  8. Which macronutrient has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF), meaning the body burns the most calories digesting it?

    Answer: Protein

    Protein has a TEF of approximately 20-30%, meaning up to 30% of its calories are used in digestion and metabolism.

  9. A client asks about 'carb cycling' for weight loss. The core principle involves:

    Answer: Alternating between higher-carb days (typically around training) and lower-carb days

    Carb cycling strategically times higher carbohydrate intake around physical activity to fuel performance and replenish glycogen while promoting fat burning on lower-carb days.

  10. In functional nutrition, which approach best distinguishes a nutrient insufficiency from a frank deficiency?

    Answer: Using optimal functional reference ranges that reflect health, not just disease absence

    Functional reference ranges are narrower than standard pathological ranges, allowing practitioners to identify subclinical insufficiencies before overt deficiency develops.

  11. Which pattern of eating has research associated with improved body composition and metabolic markers, independent of caloric restriction?

    Answer: Front-loading calories earlier in the day aligned with circadian rhythm

    Circadian biology research shows that consuming more calories earlier in the day improves insulin sensitivity, glucose regulation, and fat oxidation compared to evening-heavy eating.

  12. Which of the following is considered a macronutrient?

    Answer: Carbohydrates

    Macronutrients are nutrients that the body needs in large amounts to provide energy and support bodily functions. Carbohydrates, along with proteins and fats, are the three primary macronutrients. Vitamins and minerals are micronutrients, needed in smaller quantities, while water is essential but not typically categorized as a macronutrient in the same way.

  13. When evaluating a weight management client, an NTP should assess digestive function FIRST because:

    Answer: Poor digestion impairs nutrient absorption, affecting metabolism and hunger signals

    NTP's foundational approach prioritizes digestion because impaired nutrient absorption disrupts metabolic function, hormonal balance, and satiety signaling.

  14. A functional lab panel reveals low serum zinc and elevated serum copper. This imbalance is most associated with what condition?

    Answer: Estrogen dominance and pyroluria

    Elevated copper with low zinc is commonly seen in estrogen dominance and pyroluria (a metabolic condition), as estrogen stimulates ceruloplasmin and copper retention.

  15. Which amino acid is the precursor to glutathione, the body's primary endogenous antioxidant used in Phase II detoxification?

    Answer: Cysteine

    Cysteine provides the rate-limiting sulfhydryl group for glutathione synthesis, making it the key precursor for this tripeptide antioxidant.

  16. How does risk management apply to daily practice in Gut Health & Microbiome for Nutritional Therapy Practitioner professionals?

    Answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures

    Effective risk management in Gut Health & Microbiome requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.

  17. Reactive hypoglycemia is characterized by:

    Answer: Blood glucose drops occurring 2–4 hours after a high-carbohydrate meal

    Reactive hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar drops too low 2–4 hours after eating, often due to an exaggerated insulin release in response to a carbohydrate-rich meal.

  18. The elimination diet protocol most commonly used in functional nutrition typically removes suspect foods for:

    Answer: 3-4 weeks

    A 3-4 week elimination period allows IgG immune complexes to clear and symptoms to resolve before systematic reintroduction.

  19. How does soluble dietary fiber affect postprandial blood sugar regulation?

    Answer: It slows gastric emptying and glucose absorption, reducing postprandial blood sugar spikes

    Soluble fiber forms a viscous gel in the digestive tract that slows gastric emptying and the absorption of glucose, resulting in a more gradual rise in blood sugar and reduced insulin demand.

  20. Anaphylaxis is best characterized as which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

    Answer: Type I (immediate IgE-mediated)

    Anaphylaxis is a rapid, systemic Type I hypersensitivity reaction triggered by IgE-mast cell activation and massive histamine release.

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