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Medical Flashcards

16 cards from real NREMT practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. You arrive on scene to find a patient with an altered mental status... You arrive on scene to find a patient with an altered mental status. You quickly scan the scene. Which of the following items will help to point you in the right direction in finding a cause of the altered mental status?

    Answer: Medications including high blood pressure, anxiety and depression

    When assessing a patient with altered mental status, identifying current medications is paramount for determining potential causes. Prescription drugs for conditions like high blood pressure, anxiety, and depression can have side effects, interactions, or be involved in an overdose, all of which can directly lead to changes in mental status. While other scene findings might offer clues about living conditions, medications provide more direct insight into the patient's immediate medical state.

  2. Your patient is not responding to your loud verbal stimuli. You find the following medications: Glucophage and Lipitor. What is the likely cause of the patient’s problem?

    Answer: Diabetic reaction

    Glucophage (metformin) is a medication specifically prescribed to manage Type 2 diabetes by lowering blood glucose levels. If a patient taking Glucophage is unresponsive, a diabetic reaction, particularly hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), is a highly probable cause. Lipitor (atorvastatin) is for high cholesterol and is less likely to cause acute unresponsiveness.

  3. Your neuro assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals pin point pupils. What is your primary field diagnosis?

    Answer: Narcotic

    Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic and highly indicative sign of opioid or narcotic overdose. Opioids stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system, causing the pupils to constrict significantly. In an unresponsive patient, this finding should strongly prompt suspicion of narcotic overdose as a primary field diagnosis, guiding immediate treatment decisions.

  4. Your patient is a known diabetic who takes up to four insulin injections a day. Today he is found unresponsive, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. He is also only breathing 18 times a minute. What is likely the patient’s chief medical issue?

    Answer: Hypoglycemia

    The combination of unresponsiveness, diaphoresis (sweating), and tachycardia in a known diabetic who takes insulin is highly characteristic of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Insulin lowers blood glucose, and an imbalance (too much insulin, not enough food) can lead to dangerously low levels. The body's compensatory response to low blood sugar includes sympathetic activation, causing sweating and a rapid heart rate.

  5. You find that your diabetic patient is hypoglycemic. You have oral glucose to give to the patient. You will give 15 grams of instant glucose to the patient except if they are ___________?

    Answer: Semi conscious without the ability to swallow

    Oral glucose should only be administered to patients who are conscious and possess an intact gag reflex, ensuring they can safely swallow the gel or liquid. Administering oral glucose to a semi-conscious patient without the ability to swallow poses a significant aspiration risk, where the glucose could enter the lungs. In such cases, intravenous dextrose or intramuscular glucagon is the appropriate intervention.

  6. Which of the following is an often fatal complication of diabetes and is also the first indication of diabetes in many young patients?

    Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

    Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is a severe and potentially fatal complication of diabetes, particularly Type 1, resulting from a profound lack of insulin leading to high blood sugar and ketone production. DKA is frequently the initial presentation of Type 1 diabetes in children and young adults, as their bodies suddenly cease insulin production, leading to a rapid onset of symptoms.

  7. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following signs and symptoms; Acetone on breath, dry skin, poor skin turgor, altered mental status, confusion, thirst, and frequent urination. What other symptoms are associated with DKA?

    Answer: Appearance of intoxication

    Patients experiencing Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) often present with an altered mental status, ranging from confusion to unresponsiveness. The combination of altered mental status, the characteristic fruity (acetone) breath, and sometimes slurred speech can lead to an 'appearance of intoxication,' making it a critical differential diagnosis for EMS providers. Unlike hypoglycemia, DKA typically presents with dry skin and thirst, not diaphoresis.

  8. There are two types of cerebral vascular accidents (i.e., strokes). The most common is an ischemic stroke. What is the other type?

    Answer: Hemorrhagic

    Strokes, or cerebral vascular accidents, are primarily categorized into two main types: ischemic and hemorrhagic. Ischemic strokes, the most common type, occur when a blood clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Hemorrhagic strokes, the other major type, occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures, causing bleeding into the brain tissue, which damages cells and increases intracranial pressure.

  9. For a condition to be diagnosed as a transient ischemic attack (TIA), the symptoms must be resolved in 24 hours ______________?

    Answer: With out any permanent effects

    A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is often referred to as a 'mini-stroke' because it involves temporary neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. The defining characteristic that differentiates a TIA from a full stroke is that all symptoms resolve completely, typically within 24 hours, and without any lasting neurological damage or permanent deficits. If there were any permanent effects, the condition would be classified as a stroke.

  10. To assess a patient with a stroke, there are two major assessment tools: the Cincinnati Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen. Which one of these two tools uses arm drift as a diagnostic tool?

    Answer: Cincinnati Stroke Scale

    The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) is a widely used and simple tool for rapid stroke assessment in the prehospital setting. It evaluates three key signs: facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech. Arm drift, where the patient is asked to hold both arms out for 10 seconds and one arm drifts downward, is a crucial component of the CPSS, indicating potential neurological deficit.

  11. Stroke symptoms often present the same as other medical problems. To prevent improper treatment for the signs and symptoms, working through the differentials is a must. Hypoglycemia is often mistaken for a CVA. How can a clinician rule in or out this differential?

    Answer: Check blood sugar

    Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) can mimic stroke symptoms because the brain relies heavily on glucose for fuel, and a lack of it can cause neurological deficits like altered mental status, weakness, or slurred speech. Checking a patient's blood glucose level is a rapid and essential diagnostic step to rule out or confirm hypoglycemia as the cause of these symptoms. Correcting hypoglycemia can quickly reverse these symptoms, whereas stroke treatment differs significantly.

  12. The clinician's best role in the assessment and treatment of a stroke patient is rapid recognition and transport to a stroke center. What is the window of opportunity from the onset of symptoms until treatment?

    Answer: three hours

    For ischemic strokes, which account for the majority of strokes, thrombolytic medications (clot-busters) like tPA can be highly effective in restoring blood flow to the brain. However, these medications must be administered within a very narrow therapeutic window, typically within 3 to 4.5 hours from the onset of symptoms, to be most beneficial and minimize risks. Rapid recognition and transport to a stroke center are critical to meet this time-sensitive treatment window.

  13. Statements from patients are used as assessment tools. Which of the following statements about stroke symptoms should cause the clinician to use a higher index of suspicion?

    Answer: This is the worst headache I have ever had.

    A sudden, severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life' is a classic red flag for a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), a type of stroke caused by bleeding around the brain. This specific description indicates a potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Other headache descriptions, while uncomfortable, do not carry the same high index of suspicion for acute neurological emergencies.

  14. A medical condition where the patient sometimes suffers convulsions or seizure activity is known as?

    Answer: Epilepsy

    Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures. Seizures are episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can manifest in various ways, including convulsions (tonic-clonic seizures), altered consciousness, or focal motor activity. While other options describe aspects of seizures, epilepsy is the overarching medical condition causing them.

  15. When assessing a patient complaining of depression, which of the following would be most suggestive that the patient is at risk for suicide?

    Answer: Previous attempt that was unsuccessful

    A history of previous suicide attempts is the single strongest predictor of future suicide attempts and completed suicide. Individuals who have attempted suicide before are at a significantly higher risk because they have already overcome the psychological barrier to self-harm. Therefore, any mention of a past attempt should elevate a clinician's concern and prompt immediate intervention.

  16. When working with patients who have one of the following conditions, EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators.

    Answer: Tuberculosis

    Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne disease caused by bacteria that spread through the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. To prevent inhalation of these airborne particles, healthcare workers, including EMTs, must wear a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator, also known as an N95 mask, when caring for patients with suspected or confirmed TB. Other conditions listed typically require standard precautions or different PPE.