General Exam Flashcards
21 cards from real NPTE-PT practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 General Exam flashcards as text
A patient presents with weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation following a traumatic injury to the neck. Which nerve root level is most likely affected?
Answer: C5
C5 innervates the deltoid (shoulder abduction) and infraspinatus/teres minor (external rotation) via the axillary and suprascapular nerves.
During gait assessment, a therapist notices the patient's pelvis drops on the left side during right stance phase. Which muscle is most likely weak?
Answer: Right hip abductor
A contralateral pelvic drop (Trendelenburg sign) during stance indicates weakness of the stance-side hip abductors (right gluteus medius).
A patient recovering from a stroke demonstrates hypertonicity with elbow flexion, wrist flexion, and finger flexion. This pattern is consistent with which synergy?
Answer: Upper extremity flexor synergy
Elbow, wrist, and finger flexion are hallmarks of the upper extremity flexor synergy pattern seen post-stroke.
Which spirometry value is most useful for differentiating obstructive from restrictive pulmonary disease?
Answer: FEV1/FVC ratio
The FEV1/FVC ratio is reduced in obstructive disease (airflow limitation) but normal or elevated in restrictive disease.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with a stage III pressure injury. Which of the following best describes this wound?
Answer: Full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous tissue
Stage III pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss where subcutaneous fat is visible but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed.
Which special test is used to assess for a torn acetabular labrum of the hip?
Answer: FADIR test
The FADIR test (Flexion, ADduction, Internal Rotation) is the most sensitive provocative test for acetabular labral tears and hip impingement.
A patient is performing a seated leg press exercise. According to the ACSM guidelines for resistance training, what is the recommended rest interval between sets for muscular strength development?
Answer: 2–5 minutes
ACSM recommends 2–5 minutes of rest between sets when training for maximal muscular strength to allow adequate phosphocreatine replenishment.
A therapist applies moist heat to a patient's lumbar spine. The primary physiological effect that reduces pain and increases tissue extensibility is:
Answer: Increased local circulation and collagen extensibility
Heat increases local blood flow, raises tissue temperature, and decreases collagen stiffness, collectively reducing pain and improving extensibility.
Which of the following manual therapy grades (Maitland) is most appropriate for treating pain in an acutely inflamed joint?
Answer: Grade I
Grade I oscillations are small-amplitude movements at the beginning of range, appropriate for acute pain management with minimal stress on inflamed tissue.
A patient with Parkinson's disease exhibits a festinating gait. Which characteristic best describes this pattern?
Answer: Involuntary acceleration with short shuffling steps
Festination is an involuntary increase in gait speed with progressively shorter shuffling steps, characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
During a patient transfer, the therapist should position their feet in which way to maximize stability and reduce injury risk?
Answer: Shoulder-width apart with a wide base of support
A shoulder-width stance with a wide base of support lowers the center of gravity and maximizes stability during patient transfers.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for donning a sterile gown in an isolation room?
Answer: Hand hygiene → gown → mask → gloves
The correct PPE donning sequence is hand hygiene, then gown, then mask/respirator, then gloves (gloves last to avoid contaminating them).
A patient presents with a positive Phalen's test and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Phalen's test reproduces symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome by compressing the median nerve at the wrist during sustained wrist flexion.
When using crutches, the non-weight-bearing (NWB) three-point gait pattern requires the patient to advance the crutches and affected limb simultaneously, then swing:
Answer: The uninvolved leg forward to a point even with or past the crutches
In three-point gait for NWB, crutches and affected limb advance together, then the uninvolved leg swings forward to or past the crutch tips.
A physical therapist reviews an ECG rhythm strip and notes a heart rate of 150 bpm with no identifiable P waves and an irregular R-R interval. This finding is most consistent with:
Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by the absence of organized P waves, an irregularly irregular R-R interval, and often a rapid ventricular rate.
A patient with T6 complete spinal cord injury is being repositioned from supine to sitting. The therapist observes the patient develop a pounding headache, blurred vision, and profuse sweating above the level of injury. The most appropriate immediate action is:
Answer: Sit the patient upright and identify the noxious stimulus
These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia; the first step is to sit the patient upright (to drop blood pressure) and quickly identify and remove the triggering noxious stimulus.
Which muscle is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the tibia on the femur?
Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
The ACL is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation, which is why the Lachman and anterior drawer tests assess ACL integrity.
A patient presents with insidious onset of cervical pain and numbness radiating into the ring and little fingers with weakness of grip. Which cervical level is most likely involved?
Answer: C8
C8 radiculopathy produces sensory changes in the ring and little fingers (ulnar two digits) and weakness in hand intrinsics and grip.
Which pharmacological class is most commonly associated with increased fall risk in older adults due to orthostatic hypotension?
Answer: Antihypertensives and diuretics
Antihypertensives and diuretics reduce blood pressure and can cause orthostatic hypotension, significantly increasing fall risk in the elderly.
According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice, which term describes the anticipated level of improvement and time to achieve it, documented at the start of an episode of care?
Answer: Prognosis
The prognosis is the determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function and the time needed to reach that level.
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