NLE Pharmacology and Medication Management — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What term describes the study of how drugs move through the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
- Pharmacodynamics
- Pharmacokinetics (Correct answer)
- Pharmacogenomics
- Pharmacotherapy
Correct answer: Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacokinetics describes the movement of drugs through the body via absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
Question 2: Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action?
- Oral
- Subcutaneous
- Intravenous (Correct answer)
- Intramuscular
Correct answer: Intravenous
Intravenous (IV) administration delivers drugs directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption and providing the fastest onset.
Question 3: A medication has a 'narrow therapeutic index.' This means:
- The drug has very few side effects
- The drug treats a wide range of conditions
- There is a small difference between therapeutic and toxic doses (Correct answer)
- The drug is only available in one dosage form
Correct answer: There is a small difference between therapeutic and toxic doses
A narrow therapeutic index means the margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring.
Question 4: Naloxone is classified as an opioid antagonist because it:
- Enhances the effects of opioids at receptor sites
- Blocks opioid receptor sites and reverses opioid effects (Correct answer)
- Stimulates the release of endogenous endorphins
- Increases opioid metabolism in the liver
Correct answer: Blocks opioid receptor sites and reverses opioid effects
Naloxone competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing respiratory depression and other opioid effects.
Question 5: The 'first-pass effect' refers to:
- The first dose of a medication being the most potent
- Hepatic metabolism of a drug before it reaches systemic circulation (Correct answer)
- Initial side effects experienced when starting a new medication
- Drug absorption through the skin on first application
Correct answer: Hepatic metabolism of a drug before it reaches systemic circulation
The first-pass effect occurs when orally administered drugs are metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, reducing bioavailability.
Question 6: A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long will it take for 97% of the drug to be eliminated from the body?
- 12 hours
- 18 hours
- 24 hours
- 30 hours (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 30 hours
Approximately 5 half-lives are needed to eliminate ~97% of a drug; with a 6-hour half-life, that equals 30 hours.
Question 7: Which medication class is most commonly associated with hypokalemia as a side effect?
- Beta-blockers
- Loop diuretics (Correct answer)
- ACE inhibitors
- Calcium channel blockers
Correct answer: Loop diuretics
Loop diuretics such as furosemide promote potassium excretion in the urine, commonly causing hypokalemia.
Question 8: A patient taking warfarin requires monitoring with which laboratory value?
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- Prothrombin time/INR (Correct answer)
- Complete blood count (CBC)
- Platelet count
Correct answer: Prothrombin time/INR
Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using prothrombin time expressed as the International Normalized Ratio (INR).
Question 9: Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist used as a rescue inhaler for asthma?
- Propranolol
- Metoprolol
- Albuterol (Correct answer)
- Atenolol
Correct answer: Albuterol
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that causes rapid bronchodilation and is used for acute asthma relief.
Question 10: Which adverse effects should a nurse most closely monitor in a patient receiving an ACE inhibitor?
- Bradycardia and hypoglycemia
- Dry cough and hyperkalemia (Correct answer)
- Tachycardia and hypokalemia
- Constipation and hyponatremia
Correct answer: Dry cough and hyperkalemia
ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough (due to bradykinin accumulation) and hyperkalemia (due to reduced aldosterone activity).
Question 11: Which drug is the first-line treatment for acute anaphylaxis?
- Diphenhydramine
- Methylprednisolone
- Epinephrine (Correct answer)
- Loratadine
Correct answer: Epinephrine
Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, rapidly reversing bronchospasm, vasodilation, and other life-threatening effects.
Question 12: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to develop when serum digoxin levels exceed:
- 0.5 ng/mL
- 1.0 ng/mL
- 2.0 ng/mL (Correct answer)
- 5.0 ng/mL
Correct answer: 2.0 ng/mL
Digoxin toxicity typically occurs at serum levels above 2.0 ng/mL, though hypokalemia can cause toxicity at lower levels.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of opioid analgesics?
- Constipation
- Diarrhea (Correct answer)
- Respiratory depression
- Nausea
Correct answer: Diarrhea
Opioids cause constipation by slowing GI motility, not diarrhea; diarrhea is the opposite of the expected opioid GI effect.
Question 14: A patient on long-term corticosteroid therapy is at greatest risk for which complication?
- Hypoglycemia and weight loss
- Hyperglycemia and immunosuppression (Correct answer)
- Bradycardia and hypotension
- Hypokalemia and alkalosis only
Correct answer: Hyperglycemia and immunosuppression
Long-term corticosteroids cause hyperglycemia by increasing gluconeogenesis and immunosuppression by impairing immune cell function.
Question 15: Which action is most important before administering medications through a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- Crushing all tablets to a fine powder
- Verifying tube placement (Correct answer)
- Flushing with 500 mL of water
- Warming medications to body temperature
Correct answer: Verifying tube placement
Verifying NG tube placement before medication administration is critical to prevent aspiration or delivery to an unintended anatomical location.
Question 16: The 'five rights' of medication administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
- Right patient
- Right drug
- Right manufacturer (Correct answer)
- Right route
Correct answer: Right manufacturer
The five rights are right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, and right route; manufacturer is not a standard right of medication administration.
Question 17: Which type of insulin appears cloudy and should NEVER be administered intravenously?
- Regular insulin
- Insulin aspart
- NPH insulin (Correct answer)
- Insulin lispro
Correct answer: NPH insulin
NPH insulin is a suspension that appears cloudy and must never be given IV; only clear insulins such as regular insulin may be administered intravenously.
Question 18: A patient is receiving methotrexate therapy. Which laboratory values are most important to monitor?
- Blood glucose and HbA1c
- Serum potassium and sodium
- Liver function tests and CBC (Correct answer)
- Serum calcium and phosphorus
Correct answer: Liver function tests and CBC
Methotrexate is hepatotoxic and myelosuppressive, making liver function tests and complete blood count essential monitoring parameters.
Question 19: Which describes the correct Z-track injection technique?
- Insert needle at 45 degrees and aspirate before injecting
- Displace skin laterally, insert needle at 90 degrees, inject, then release skin (Correct answer)
- Insert needle at 90 degrees without skin displacement and massage afterward
- Insert needle at 15 degrees and inject slowly over 2 minutes
Correct answer: Displace skin laterally, insert needle at 90 degrees, inject, then release skin
The Z-track method requires displacing skin laterally before insertion and releasing it after injection to prevent medication from tracking back to the skin surface.
Question 20: A nurse needs to administer 10 mg of morphine IV. The available concentration is 5 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered?
- 0.5 mL
- 1 mL
- 2 mL (Correct answer)
- 5 mL
Correct answer: 2 mL
Using Dose ÷ Concentration = Volume: 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL.
Question 21: Which precaution is most critical when a nurse prepares to administer chemotherapy agents?
- Administer only during morning hours when patient metabolism is highest
- Wear personal protective equipment including gloves and a protective gown (Correct answer)
- Mix agents in an open area to ensure adequate ventilation
- Use only peripheral IV lines to avoid central line contamination
Correct answer: Wear personal protective equipment including gloves and a protective gown
Chemotherapy agents are classified as hazardous drugs, requiring PPE including gloves, gown, and eye protection to prevent nurse exposure.