Pain Management in Neurology Flashcards
7 cards from real NCS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Pain Management in Neurology flashcards as text
A patient with central sensitization presents with allodynia. Which neuroplastic mechanism best explains this phenomenon?
Answer: Wind-up and long-term potentiation in dorsal horn neurons
Wind-up and LTP in dorsal horn neurons lower the activation threshold so normally non-painful stimuli become painful.
Which opioid receptor subtype is primarily responsible for supraspinal analgesia?
Answer: Mu (μ)
Mu opioid receptors mediate the primary supraspinal analgesic effects and are the main target of most clinical opioids.
A patient on long-term opioids requires escalating doses for the same pain relief. Which pharmacological process best describes this?
Answer: Pharmacodynamic tolerance
Pharmacodynamic tolerance refers to reduced receptor responsiveness requiring higher doses to achieve the same analgesic effect.
The 'gate control theory' of pain proposes that pain transmission is modulated at the level of the:
Answer: Spinal cord dorsal horn
The gate control theory posits that large-fiber (Aβ) activity can inhibit pain signal transmission via interneurons in the dorsal horn.
Which descending pain modulation pathway utilizes serotonin and norepinephrine as primary neurotransmitters?
Answer: Dorsolateral funiculus (PAG-RVM system)
The PAG-RVM-dorsolateral funiculus system uses serotonin and norepinephrine to exert descending inhibitory control over dorsal horn neurons.
A neurologist prescribes duloxetine for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathy. What is the primary mechanism of analgesic action?
Answer: Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition enhancing descending pain modulation
Duloxetine inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, strengthening descending inhibitory pathways that suppress pain signaling.
In complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), which finding differentiates Type I from Type II?
Answer: Documented nerve injury in Type II
CRPS Type II (formerly causalgia) is distinguished by a confirmed peripheral nerve injury, whereas Type I occurs without identifiable nerve damage.
How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- specialization.apta.org — Eligibility, exam format, passing score, renewal, fees, late registration, registration deadline, registration, retake fee, score release · verified Nov 2026