← All NCLEX Flashcard Decks

NCLEX-PN Test #17 3 Flashcards

6 cards from real NCLEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 6 NCLEX-PN Test #17 3 flashcards as text
  1. A client prescribed lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) reports a persistent dry cough that has been present since starting the medication. What should the nurse do?

    Answer: Report the finding to the provider — dry cough is a significant ACE inhibitor side effect that may require changing to an ARB

    Persistent dry cough is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors (incidence ~10–15%), caused by bradykinin accumulation in the airways. It does not resolve with time. The standard management is to switch to an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker) such as losartan, which provides similar blood pressure and renal protection without causing cough.

  2. A client receiving gentamicin (aminoglycoside antibiotic) reports ringing in the ears and difficulty hearing. What should the nurse do first?

    Answer: Hold the next dose and notify the provider immediately — these are signs of ototoxicity

    Tinnitus (ringing in ears) and hearing loss are signs of aminoglycoside ototoxicity (cochlear damage), which can be irreversible. The nurse must hold the medication and notify the provider immediately. Aminoglycosides also cause nephrotoxicity. Peak and trough levels and renal function must be monitored closely during therapy.

  3. A client prescribed prednisone (corticosteroid) for 6 weeks asks the nurse what side effects to monitor for. Which response is most complete?

    Answer: "Monitor for weight gain, increased blood pressure, elevated blood sugar, increased susceptibility to infection, and GI upset."

    Corticosteroids have multiple significant side effects: fluid retention and weight gain, hypertension, hyperglycemia (diabetogenic), immunosuppression (increased infection risk), peptic ulcers, osteoporosis (long-term), mood changes, adrenal suppression, and Cushingoid features. Clients must not stop abruptly — taper required to prevent adrenal crisis.

  4. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Which meal timing instruction should the nurse provide?

    Answer: Take the medication 30–60 minutes before meals or 1–2 hours after, as high-protein meals compete with absorption

    Levodopa competes with dietary amino acids (protein) for absorption through the same transporter in the gut and blood-brain barrier. High-protein meals significantly reduce levodopa absorption and efficacy. Taking it before or well after meals optimizes absorption. Some clients use a protein redistribution diet (low protein during day, higher at evening).

  5. A client prescribed warfarin has an INR of 5.8 (therapeutic range 2.0–3.0). The client has no active bleeding. What is the expected nursing action?

    Answer: Administer vitamin K (phytonadione) as ordered and hold warfarin doses per protocol

    An INR of 5.8 is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating high bleeding risk. Without active bleeding, management typically includes: holding warfarin doses and administering oral/IV vitamin K (phytonadione) to reverse anticoagulation as ordered. Fresh frozen plasma is reserved for major bleeding with supratherapeutic INR. The dose will be adjusted after INR normalizes.

  6. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV amphotericin B. Which adverse effect requires the most vigilant monitoring?

    Answer: Nephrotoxicity — rising serum creatinine and decreased urine output

    Amphotericin B ("ampho-terrible") is highly nephrotoxic in up to 80% of patients. Monitoring includes: serum creatinine and BUN before each dose, urine output, and electrolytes (hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia are common). Pre-hydration with normal saline and liposomal formulations (AmBisome) reduce but do not eliminate nephrotoxicity.