Mixed Deck — All NCCT Topics Flashcards

The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Answer: Surgical removal

The suffix '-ectomy' refers to surgical removal or excision of a body part.

What is the primary purpose of verifying a patient's insurance eligibility at check-in?

Answer: To confirm the patient's policy is active for the date of service

Verifying insurance eligibility confirms that the patient has active coverage for the date of service. This is crucial for ensuring the practice will be reimbursed for the services provided. It also helps prevent billing issues for both the patient and the office.

Which gauge needle is typically used for routine adult subcutaneous injections?

Answer: 23–25 gauge

A 23–25 gauge needle is standard for subcutaneous injections, minimizing tissue trauma.

When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:

Answer: Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

Explanation: When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry. This method ensures that the site is thoroughly cleaned and reduces the risk of introducing any contaminants into the puncture site. Allowing the site to air dry also prevents any potential irritation or discomfort that may occur if the alcohol is not completely dry before the needle is inserted.

The QT interval represents:

Answer: Total ventricular depolarization and repolarization

The QT interval spans from the start of the QRS to the end of the T wave, encompassing total ventricular electrical activity.

The fraudulent practice of billing for a more complex or expensive service than was actually performed is known as:

Answer: Upcoding

Upcoding is the illegal practice of assigning a higher-level code to a medical service than what the documentation supports, in order to receive higher reimbursement. Downcoding is billing for a less complex service, and bundling is grouping related services under a single code.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 'Seven Rights' of medication administration?

Answer: Right Provider

The 'Seven Rights' are: Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right Documentation, and Right Reason. Right Provider is not one of the core rights, although verifying the order with the prescribing provider is a crucial safety check.

The subclavian vein is located in the:

Answer: Chest

Explanation: The subclavian vein is located in the chest. It is a large vein that runs beneath the collarbone and is responsible for draining blood from the upper extremities, including the arms and shoulders, back to the heart. The chest is the correct location for the subclavian vein as it is in close proximity to the heart and provides an efficient route for blood return from the upper body. The veins in the hand, leg, and abdomen are not typically referred to as subclavian veins.

After drawing blood, a medical assistant should apply pressure to the venipuncture site for at least:

Answer: 1–2 minutes

Applying pressure for 1–2 minutes after venipuncture promotes hemostasis and prevents hematoma formation.

Which ECG finding indicates first-degree AV block?

Answer: PR interval > 0.20 seconds with all P waves conducted

First-degree AV block is characterized by a consistently prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) with all P waves followed by a QRS.

Which complication is most commonly observed during hemodialysis treatments?

Answer: Intradialytic hypotension

Intradialytic hypotension (IDH) is the most common complication, occurring due to rapid fluid removal, vasodilation, or cardiac dysfunction during treatment.

An EKG strip displays a regular rhythm with a ventricular rate of 75 bpm. The atrial rate is 300 bpm, and the baseline has a distinct 'sawtooth' appearance. What is this rhythm?

Answer: Atrial Flutter

Atrial Flutter is caused by a re-entrant circuit in the atria, creating rapid, regular atrial depolarizations (flutter waves) that often resemble the teeth of a saw. Not all atrial impulses conduct to the ventricles, resulting in an AV block (e.g., a 4:1 block in this case, 300/75).

Under HIPAA, which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)?

Answer: A patient's name and address

Protected Health Information (PHI) is any individually identifiable health information. This includes a patient's name, address, date of birth, and diagnosis. General health statistics that are not linked to an individual are not considered PHI.

Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

Answer: 21-22

Explanation: The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are ideal for drawing blood as they are large enough to allow for a smooth flow of blood, but not so large that they cause excessive pain or damage to the vein. The 21-22 gauge needles strike a balance between being effective and comfortable for the patient.

Which of the following is an example of a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?

Answer: A urinary tract infection developing after catheter insertion

Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI) are a common HAI acquired during the course of healthcare delivery.

A heart rate of 150 bpm with a narrow QRS and no visible P waves is most consistent with:

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

A narrow-complex tachycardia at 150 bpm without visible P waves is characteristic of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).

A patient receives a document from their insurance company that details how a claim was processed, including the amount paid and the patient's financial responsibility. What is this document called?

Answer: Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) is a statement sent from the health insurance company directly to the patient to explain what medical treatments and/or services were paid for on their behalf. A Remittance Advice (RA) is a similar document sent from the payer to the provider.

What does the term 'adjudication' refer to in the health insurance claim process?

Answer: The insurance carrier's process of reviewing a claim and determining payment

Adjudication is the step where the payer (insurance company) evaluates a submitted claim against the patient's policy benefits, provider contract, and medical necessity. This process determines whether the claim should be paid, denied, or reduced in amount.

Which EKG finding is the hallmark of a third-degree (complete) heart block?

Answer: Complete dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes

In a third-degree AV block, there is no electrical communication between the atria and ventricles. The atria (P waves) and ventricles (QRS complexes) beat independently of each other, resulting in a complete AV dissociation where there is no consistent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.

The T wave on an ECG represents:

Answer: Ventricular repolarization

The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, during which the ventricles recover electrically between beats.