NCCT National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the purpose of the primary layer of a dressing, which is in direct contact with the wound?

To hold the other layers of the dressing in place
To be non-adherent and prevent trauma to the wound upon removal (Correct answer)
To apply pressure to the wound to stop bleeding
To absorb all drainage and provide padding

Correct answer: To be non-adherent and prevent trauma to the wound upon removal

The primary dressing layer is placed directly on the wound bed. Its main purpose is to create a healing environment and be non-adherent, which prevents it from sticking to the wound and causing injury to new tissue when the dressing is changed.

Question 2: Which of the following is used to test near vision acuity?

Jaeger card (Correct answer)
Snellen chart
Tonometer
Ishihara plates

Correct answer: Jaeger card

The Jaeger card tests near vision acuity by having the patient read text at a standard reading distance.

Question 3: When must a provider have a patient sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN)?

For all services billed to a secondary insurance carrier
After a claim has been denied by Medicare
When a provider believes a service may not be considered medically necessary by Medicare (Correct answer)
Before any service is provided to a new Medicare patient

Correct answer: When a provider believes a service may not be considered medically necessary by Medicare

An ABN is a waiver of liability that a provider must issue to a Medicare beneficiary before providing services that they believe Medicare will not cover based on medical necessity rules. By signing it, the patient acknowledges they will be financially responsible if Medicare denies payment.

Question 4: The suffix '-megaly' means:

Enlargement (Correct answer)
Deficiency
Incision
Disease

Correct answer: Enlargement

The suffix '-megaly' means enlargement, as in cardiomegaly (enlarged heart) or hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).

Question 5: Sterilization differs from disinfection in that sterilization:

Applies only to skin surfaces
Reduces microbial load to safe levels
Only kills bacteria, not viruses
Destroys all forms of microbial life including spores (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Destroys all forms of microbial life including spores

Sterilization destroys all microorganisms including resistant bacterial spores, whereas disinfection only reduces pathogen levels.

Question 6: Heme stands for:

Hematology (Correct answer)
Hemisphere
History and physical
History of

Correct answer: Hematology

Explanation: "Heme" is a shortened form of the word "hematology". Hematology is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood diseases. Therefore, "Heme" is an abbreviation commonly used to refer to the field of hematology.

Question 7: Sterile liquids are used in which of the following?

Facials
Astringents
Cleaning surgical wounds (Correct answer)
Cleaning fingernails

Correct answer: Cleaning surgical wounds

Explanation: Sterile liquids are used in cleaning surgical wounds to prevent infection and promote healing. Surgical wounds are prone to bacterial contamination, and using sterile liquids helps to minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. These sterile liquids are specifically designed to be free from any bacteria or other contaminants, ensuring a safe and clean environment for wound healing.

Question 8: What is the typical duration of a standard hemodialysis treatment session?

3–5 hours (Correct answer)
1–2 hours
30–60 minutes
6–8 hours

Correct answer: 3–5 hours

Most in-center hemodialysis sessions last 3–5 hours (commonly 4 hours), performed three times per week to achieve adequate solute clearance.

Question 9: Under HIPAA, which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)?

A hospital's public directory
Information in a medical textbook
A patient's name and address (Correct answer)
De-identified public health data

Correct answer: A patient's name and address

Protected Health Information (PHI) is any individually identifiable health information. This includes a patient's name, address, date of birth, and diagnosis. General health statistics that are not linked to an individual are not considered PHI.

Question 10: The medical abbreviation 'q.i.d.' stands for:

Four times a day (Correct answer)
Three times a day
Twice a day
Every day

Correct answer: Four times a day

The Latin abbreviation 'q.i.d.' (quater in die) means four times a day. It is important to distinguish this from 'b.i.d.' (twice a day), 't.i.d.' (three times a day), and 'q.d.' (every day).

Question 11: A provider orders 500 mg of a medication. The medication is available as 250 mg per 5 mL. How many mL should be administered?

2.5 mL
5 mL
10 mL (Correct answer)
15 mL

Correct answer: 10 mL

To solve this, use the formula: (Dose Ordered / Dose on Hand) x Quantity = Amount to Administer. In this case, (500 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 2 x 5 mL = 10 mL. The patient should receive 10 mL.

Question 12: The combining form 'osteo-' refers to:

Cartilage
Nerve
Bone (Correct answer)
Muscle

Correct answer: Bone

The combining form 'osteo-' refers to bone, as in osteoporosis (porous bones).

Question 13: Which of the following is not a chest location?

Midaxillary line
Duodenum (Correct answer)
Intercoastal space
Anterior axillary line

Correct answer: Duodenum

Explanation: The duodenum is not a chest location. The intercoastal space refers to the spaces between the ribs, the midaxillary line is an imaginary line that runs vertically down the side of the body, and the anterior axillary line is another imaginary line that runs vertically down the front of the body. However, the duodenum is a part of the small intestine and is located in the abdomen, not the chest.

Question 14: A patient's temperature is 101.3°F. This is best described as:

High fever
Normal
Hypothermia
Low-grade fever (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low-grade fever

A temperature between 99.1°F and 102°F is classified as a low-grade fever in adults.

Question 15: An EKG strip displays a regular rhythm with a ventricular rate of 75 bpm. The atrial rate is 300 bpm, and the baseline has a distinct 'sawtooth' appearance. What is this rhythm?

Junctional Rhythm
Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial Flutter (Correct answer)
Sinus Tachycardia

Correct answer: Atrial Flutter

Atrial Flutter is caused by a re-entrant circuit in the atria, creating rapid, regular atrial depolarizations (flutter waves) that often resemble the teeth of a saw. Not all atrial impulses conduct to the ventricles, resulting in an AV block (e.g., a 4:1 block in this case, 300/75).

Question 16: During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a __________.

tape
ball of cotton
sleeve
holder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: holder

Explanation: During a venipuncture, a holder is needed to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper. A holder is a device that holds the needle in place and provides stability while the healthcare professional performs the venipuncture. It ensures that the needle does not move or dislodge during the procedure, reducing the risk of injury or complications. A holder is specifically designed for this purpose and is an essential tool in venipuncture procedures.

Question 17: The QT interval represents:

Only ventricular depolarization
Atrial depolarization only
AV nodal conduction time
Total ventricular depolarization and repolarization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Total ventricular depolarization and repolarization

The QT interval spans from the start of the QRS to the end of the T wave, encompassing total ventricular electrical activity.

Question 18: A hemodialysis patient's 'dry weight' is defined as:

The patient's weight before eating breakfast on dialysis days
The weight of the used dialyzer after treatment
The patient's target weight without excess fluid retention, at which the patient is euvolemic (Correct answer)
The patient's post-treatment weight after all fluid is removed

Correct answer: The patient's target weight without excess fluid retention, at which the patient is euvolemic

Dry weight (target weight) is the lowest weight a patient can tolerate without symptoms of dehydration, representing a state of normal fluid balance with no edema or hypertension from fluid overload.

Question 19: The term 'anterior' refers to:

Toward the front of the body (Correct answer)
Above a reference point
Toward the midline
Toward the back of the body

Correct answer: Toward the front of the body

Anterior (also called ventral) means toward the front or belly side of the body.

Question 20: Which disinfection level is required for semicritical items (e.g., respiratory therapy equipment)?

Intermediate-level disinfection
Sterilization
High-level disinfection (Correct answer)
Low-level disinfection

Correct answer: High-level disinfection

Semicritical items that contact mucous membranes require high-level disinfection to kill all microorganisms except bacterial spores.

Question 21: When prepping a patient's skin for a minor surgical procedure, how should the antiseptic be applied?

By starting at the center of the site and working outward in a circular motion (Correct answer)
By dabbing the solution randomly over the intended surgical site
By scrubbing back and forth vigorously over the entire area
In a single stroke from the outer edge toward the center of the site

Correct answer: By starting at the center of the site and working outward in a circular motion

The proper technique for applying antiseptic is to start at the incision site (the cleanest area) and move outward in concentric circles. This motion carries microorganisms away from the intended surgical site, preventing recontamination of the area where the incision will be made.

Question 22: The medical term 'dyspnea' means:

Painful urination
Difficulty swallowing
Double vision
Difficult or labored breathing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Difficult or labored breathing

Dyspnea is defined as difficult, labored, or painful breathing.

Question 23: Which coding system is used to report medical procedures and services performed by physicians?

ICD-10-CM
HCPCS Level II
NDC (National Drug Code)
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)

The CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) coding system, maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA), is used to describe and report medical, surgical, and diagnostic services. ICD-10-CM is used for diagnoses, and HCPCS Level II is for supplies and non-physician services.

Question 24: What is the primary goal of a surgical hand scrub?

To remove all visible dirt and oil from the skin
To sterilize the skin on the hands and forearms
To reduce the number of resident and transient microorganisms to a minimum (Correct answer)
To warm up the hands before applying sterile gloves

Correct answer: To reduce the number of resident and transient microorganisms to a minimum

It is impossible to completely sterilize skin. The purpose of a surgical hand scrub is to remove debris and transient microorganisms and significantly reduce the resident microbial count to an irreducible minimum, preventing the introduction of pathogens into a surgical site.

Question 25: A medical assistant is adding a sterile instrument to an established sterile field. What is the correct technique?

Hold the sterile package with one hand and use the other hand to place the instrument on the field
Slide the instrument from its sterile package onto the edge of the sterile field
Open the sterile package and allow the instrument to gently drop onto the center of the field without touching the edges (Correct answer)
Place the wrapped instrument on the field and then unwrap it

Correct answer: Open the sterile package and allow the instrument to gently drop onto the center of the field without touching the edges

To maintain sterility, you should open the package away from your body and the field, then hold it several inches above the field and let the item drop gently onto the center. This prevents your non-sterile hands or the non-sterile outer wrapper from contaminating the field.

Question 26: What does the term 'adjudication' refer to in the health insurance claim process?

The insurance carrier's process of reviewing a claim and determining payment (Correct answer)
The process of appealing a denied claim
The initial patient registration and data entry
The process of submitting a claim electronically

Correct answer: The insurance carrier's process of reviewing a claim and determining payment

Adjudication is the step where the payer (insurance company) evaluates a submitted claim against the patient's policy benefits, provider contract, and medical necessity. This process determines whether the claim should be paid, denied, or reduced in amount.

Question 27: The medical term 'erythrocyte' refers to a:

Red blood cell (Correct answer)
Platelet
Plasma cell
White blood cell

Correct answer: Red blood cell

Erythrocyte means red blood cell; 'erythro-' means red and '-cyte' means cell.

Question 28: A patient's oxygen saturation reading of 88% on pulse oximetry indicates:

Normal oxygenation
Hyperoxia
Moderate to severe hypoxemia (Correct answer)
Mild hypoxia

Correct answer: Moderate to severe hypoxemia

Normal SpO2 is 95–100%; a reading of 88% indicates significant hypoxemia requiring clinical attention.

Question 29: OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom) requires that Safety Data Sheets (SDS) contain how many sections?

16 (Correct answer)
20
8
12

Correct answer: 16

GHS-aligned Safety Data Sheets required by OSHA HazCom 2012 must contain 16 standardized sections.

Question 30: A patient's EKG shows a rapid, wide-complex tachycardia with a regular rhythm. What is the most likely life-threatening arrhythmia?

Atrial Fibrillation with RVR
Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)
Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach) (Correct answer)
Sinus Bradycardia

Correct answer: Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach)

Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by a rapid heart rate (typically >100 bpm) and wide QRS complexes (>0.12 seconds). It originates in the ventricles and can quickly lead to cardiac arrest if the patient is unstable or pulseless.

Question 31: Which dietary restrictions are most critical for patients receiving maintenance hemodialysis?

Low potassium and low phosphorus intake (Correct answer)
High sodium and high potassium intake
Low carbohydrate and high dietary fiber only
Unrestricted fluid intake to compensate for dialysis losses

Correct answer: Low potassium and low phosphorus intake

Hemodialysis patients must restrict potassium (to prevent arrhythmias) and phosphorus (to prevent renal osteodystrophy and cardiovascular calcification) because the kidneys can no longer excrete these minerals.

Question 32: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) should be removed in which order?

Gown, goggles, mask, gloves
Gloves, goggles, gown, mask (Correct answer)
Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
Goggles, mask, gown, gloves

Correct answer: Gloves, goggles, gown, mask

The recommended removal order is gloves first (most contaminated), then goggles/face shield, gown, and finally mask to minimize self-contamination.

Question 33: Which suffix means 'surgical repair or reconstruction'?

-ostomy
-plasty (Correct answer)
-oscopy
-otomy

Correct answer: -plasty

The suffix '-plasty' refers to surgical repair or reconstruction, as in rhinoplasty (nose reshaping).

Question 34: Which of the following is an example of a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?

A pre-existing skin infection
A urinary tract infection developing after catheter insertion (Correct answer)
Seasonal influenza acquired in the community
A cold contracted before hospital admission

Correct answer: A urinary tract infection developing after catheter insertion

Catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI) are a common HAI acquired during the course of healthcare delivery.

Question 35: Which condition can cause a prolonged QT interval on ECG?

Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia (Correct answer)
Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia are common electrolyte causes of QT prolongation, increasing risk of torsades de pointes.

Question 36: The T wave on an ECG represents:

AV nodal delay
Ventricular repolarization (Correct answer)
Ventricular depolarization
Atrial repolarization

Correct answer: Ventricular repolarization

The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, during which the ventricles recover electrically between beats.

Question 37: Which gauge needle is typically used for routine adult subcutaneous injections?

16–18 gauge
27–30 gauge
23–25 gauge (Correct answer)
18–20 gauge

Correct answer: 23–25 gauge

A 23–25 gauge needle is standard for subcutaneous injections, minimizing tissue trauma.

Question 38: Which position is appropriate for a patient during a pelvic examination?

Trendelenburg
Supine
Lithotomy (Correct answer)
Prone

Correct answer: Lithotomy

The lithotomy position, with hips flexed and feet in stirrups, is used for pelvic examinations.

Question 39: In a standard 12-lead ECG, how many chest (precordial) leads are there?

6 (Correct answer)
8
10
4

Correct answer: 6

A 12-lead ECG includes 6 precordial (chest) leads: V1 through V6.

Question 40: When measuring blood pressure, the cuff should be placed how far above the antecubital fossa?

4–5 cm
5–7 cm
2–3 cm
1–2 cm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1–2 cm

The blood pressure cuff should be placed 1–2 cm above the antecubital fossa to allow proper stethoscope placement.

Question 41: When performing a 12-lead ECG, lead V4 electrode is placed at:

5th intercostal space, left sternal border
5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
4th intercostal space, right sternal border
5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

V4 is placed at the 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line on the left side.

Question 42: In the ICD-10-CM coding system, what is the primary purpose of the 7th character extender?

To indicate the patient's gender
To denote the severity of the illness
To provide information about the episode of care (Correct answer)
To specify the anatomic site

Correct answer: To provide information about the episode of care

The 7th character in certain ICD-10-CM codes provides information about the episode of care. For injuries and poisonings, for example, 'A' typically stands for the initial encounter, 'D' for a subsequent encounter, and 'S' for sequela (a late effect).

Question 43: Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

24-25
19-20
21-22 (Correct answer)
16-18

Correct answer: 21-22

Explanation: The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are ideal for drawing blood as they are large enough to allow for a smooth flow of blood, but not so large that they cause excessive pain or damage to the vein. The 21-22 gauge needles strike a balance between being effective and comfortable for the patient.

Question 44: The term 'hematuria' refers to:

Pus in the urine
Blood in the stool
Blood in the urine (Correct answer)
Protein in the urine

Correct answer: Blood in the urine

Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine; 'hemato-' means blood and '-uria' refers to urine.

Question 45: When handling a phone call from a patient reporting a medical emergency, the medical assistant should first:

Tell them to hang up and call 911
Obtain the caller's name, phone number, and location (Correct answer)
Put the patient on hold to find a nurse
Ask for their insurance information

Correct answer: Obtain the caller's name, phone number, and location

In a potential emergency, the first priority is to gather essential information to provide help. This includes the caller's name, phone number, and location. This ensures that if the call is disconnected, emergency services can still be dispatched.

Question 46: CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes are used to report:

Medical services and procedures (Correct answer)
Prescription drugs administered
Patient diagnoses and symptoms
Medical supplies and equipment

Correct answer: Medical services and procedures

CPT codes are used to report medical, surgical, and diagnostic procedures and services performed by healthcare providers. In contrast, ICD-10-CM codes are used to report diagnoses and reasons for encounters. CPT codes are essential for billing and reimbursement.

Question 47: The absence of urine production for a 24-hour period is called:

Glomeruli
Anuria (Correct answer)
Micturition
Hilus

Correct answer: Anuria

Explanation: Anuria is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of urine production for a 24-hour period. This condition can be caused by various factors such as kidney damage, urinary tract obstruction, or dehydration. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of anuria as it can indicate a serious medical condition and may require immediate medical attention.

Question 48: When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient __________ the veins will become more prominent.

make a fist (Correct answer)
take a deep breath
cough
hold their breath

Correct answer: make a fist

Explanation: When performing a venipuncture, making a fist can cause the veins to become more prominent. This is because making a fist helps to increase blood flow and pressure in the veins, making them easier to locate and access for the procedure. By making a fist, the muscles in the hand and forearm contract, which pushes blood into the veins and causes them to bulge and become more visible. This can make it easier for the healthcare professional to find a suitable vein and perform the venipuncture successfully.

Question 49: What is the appropriate needle gauge and angle for an intramuscular (IM) injection in an average adult's deltoid muscle?

27-gauge, 45-degree angle
30-gauge, 90-degree angle
25-gauge, 90-degree angle (Correct answer)
21-gauge, 15-degree angle

Correct answer: 25-gauge, 90-degree angle

For an average adult deltoid IM injection, a 22-25 gauge needle is typically used. The injection must be administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue.

Question 50: Proper skin preparation before applying ECG electrodes includes:

Shaving excess hair and cleaning the skin with alcohol (Correct answer)
Applying lotion to improve adhesion
Applying electrodes over clothing for comfort
Using wet electrodes without skin preparation

Correct answer: Shaving excess hair and cleaning the skin with alcohol

Shaving excess hair and cleansing the skin with alcohol removes oils and dead skin cells to improve electrode contact.

Question 51: A fixed amount a patient pays for a covered health care service at the time of the visit is called a(n):

Deductible
Coinsurance
Premium
Copayment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Copayment

A copayment (or copay) is a fixed dollar amount that a patient pays for a specific service, such as a doctor's visit. A deductible is the amount a patient must pay out-of-pocket before the insurance plan starts to pay. Coinsurance is a percentage of the cost that the patient pays after the deductible has been met.

Question 52: Which of the following is not a part of the heart?

Superior vena cova
Endocrine (Correct answer)
Myocardium
Inferior vena cova

Correct answer: Endocrine

Explanation: The endocrine system is not a part of the heart. The heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body, while the endocrine system is a collection of glands that produce and secrete hormones. The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava are large veins that carry deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. The myocardium is the muscular tissue of the heart that contracts to pump blood.

Question 53: The term 'bilateral' means:

Pertaining to both sides (Correct answer)
Pertaining to the middle
Away from the midline
Pertaining to one side

Correct answer: Pertaining to both sides

Bilateral means pertaining to or affecting both sides of the body.

Question 54: Which of the following is a contraindication for applying heat therapy?

Arthritis stiffness
Menstrual cramps
Chronic muscle pain
Acute injury within 48 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acute injury within 48 hours

Heat increases blood flow and swelling, so it is contraindicated in the acute phase of an injury (first 48 hours).

Question 55: When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about 3-4 inches from where you are going to __________ for a vein.

tap
apply soap
feel (Correct answer)
scrape

Correct answer: feel

Explanation: When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about 3-4 inches from where you are going to feel for a vein. This positioning allows for adequate blood flow restriction, making it easier to locate and access the vein. By wrapping the tourniquet at this distance, healthcare professionals can ensure a successful venipuncture procedure.

Question 56: The cephalic vein is located in the:

Back
Neck
Ankle
Arm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arm

Explanation: The cephalic vein is located in the arm. This vein is one of the major superficial veins in the upper limb, running along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous network of the hand, ascends along the forearm, and then passes through the deltopectoral triangle to join the axillary vein. It is commonly used for venipuncture and for creating arteriovenous fistulas in patients undergoing hemodialysis.

Question 57: Which of the following is NOT one of the 'Seven Rights' of medication administration?

Right Route
Right Dose
Right Provider (Correct answer)
Right Patient

Correct answer: Right Provider

The 'Seven Rights' are: Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right Documentation, and Right Reason. Right Provider is not one of the core rights, although verifying the order with the prescribing provider is a crucial safety check.

Question 58: OSHA requires that hepatitis B vaccination be offered to healthcare workers at:

Their own expense
Cost covered by the employee's insurance only
Cost-sharing between employer and employee
No cost to the employee (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No cost to the employee

OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to offer hepatitis B vaccination at no cost to employees with occupational exposure.

Question 59: Which type of mail provides the sender with a mailing receipt and a record of delivery at the recipient's address?

First-Class Mail
Registered Mail
Priority Mail
Certified Mail (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Certified Mail

Certified Mail provides proof of mailing and proof of delivery. The sender receives a mailing receipt at the time of mailing, and a record of delivery is kept by the post office. Registered Mail is used for valuable items and includes more security and insurance.

Question 60: Which DEA schedule of controlled substances has a high potential for abuse and may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, but has a currently accepted medical use?

Schedule II (Correct answer)
Schedule I
Schedule III
Schedule V

Correct answer: Schedule II

Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but are used medically (e.g., oxycodone, fentanyl, amphetamine). Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse with no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for dependence.

Question 61: On ECG graph paper, each small box represents how many seconds at standard speed?

0.08 seconds
0.10 seconds
0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.04 seconds

At standard ECG paper speed of 25 mm/sec, each small (1 mm) box represents 0.04 seconds.

Question 62: The QRS complex on an ECG represents:

Atrial depolarization
SA node firing
Ventricular repolarization
Ventricular depolarization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ventricular depolarization

The QRS complex represents the electrical depolarization of the ventricles, triggering ventricular contraction.

Question 63: When must healthcare workers perform hand hygiene according to CDC guidelines?

Before and after every patient contact (Correct answer)
Only when gloves are not worn
Only before invasive procedures
Only after touching bodily fluids

Correct answer: Before and after every patient contact

The CDC recommends hand hygiene before and after every patient contact to prevent transmission of pathogens.

Question 64: The normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is:

12–20 breaths/min (Correct answer)
20–30 breaths/min
8–12 breaths/min
30–40 breaths/min

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths/min

A normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute.

Question 65: Which combining form refers to the liver?

Nephro-
Gastro-
Hepato- (Correct answer)
Cardi-

Correct answer: Hepato-

The combining form 'hepato-' refers to the liver, as in hepatitis (inflammation of the liver).

Question 66: The subclavian vein is located in the:

Abdomen
Chest (Correct answer)
Leg
Hand

Correct answer: Chest

Explanation: The subclavian vein is located in the chest. It is a large vein that runs beneath the collarbone and is responsible for draining blood from the upper extremities, including the arms and shoulders, back to the heart. The chest is the correct location for the subclavian vein as it is in close proximity to the heart and provides an efficient route for blood return from the upper body. The veins in the hand, leg, and abdomen are not typically referred to as subclavian veins.

Question 67: A heart rate of 150 bpm with a narrow QRS and no visible P waves is most consistent with:

Ventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) (Correct answer)
Third-degree heart block
Sinus tachycardia

Correct answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

A narrow-complex tachycardia at 150 bpm without visible P waves is characteristic of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).

Question 68: The chain of infection includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Infectious agent
Mode of transmission
Reservoir
Patient's blood pressure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient's blood pressure

The chain of infection consists of 6 links: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

Question 69: The medical term 'nocturia' refers to:

Frequent urination at night (Correct answer)
Painful urination
Nighttime sweating
Inability to urinate

Correct answer: Frequent urination at night

Nocturia is the need to wake up at night to urinate; 'noctu-' relates to night and '-uria' to urination.

Question 70: Which type of specimen is used for a urine culture and sensitivity test?

First-morning void
24-hour collection
Midstream clean-catch (Correct answer)
Catheter specimen

Correct answer: Midstream clean-catch

A midstream clean-catch urine specimen reduces contamination from skin flora and is standard for culture and sensitivity testing.

Question 71: The medical term for a slow heart rate is:

Bradycardia (Correct answer)
Fibrillation
Arrhythmia
Tachycardia

Correct answer: Bradycardia

Bradycardia refers to an abnormally slow heart rate, typically below 60 beats per minute.

Question 72: Which of the following breaks the chain of infection at the 'mode of transmission' link?

Wearing gloves and washing hands (Correct answer)
Isolating the susceptible host
Treating the infectious disease
Administering antibiotics

Correct answer: Wearing gloves and washing hands

Hand hygiene and glove use interrupt the mode of transmission by preventing pathogen transfer between reservoir and new host.

Question 73: Which of the following best describes the purpose of the dialyzer in the hemodialysis circuit?

To pump blood through the extracorporeal circuit under pressure
To add replacement electrolytes directly into the patient's bloodstream
To serve as an artificial kidney by filtering waste products and excess fluid across a semipermeable membrane (Correct answer)
To warm the blood to body temperature before returning it to the patient

Correct answer: To serve as an artificial kidney by filtering waste products and excess fluid across a semipermeable membrane

The dialyzer contains thousands of hollow fibers that act as a semipermeable membrane, allowing diffusion of small waste molecules and ultrafiltration of fluid while retaining blood cells and large proteins.

Question 74: Which of the following is the correct order of steps when performing a venipuncture?

Apply tourniquet, insert needle, clean site, release tourniquet
Apply tourniquet, clean site, insert needle, release tourniquet (Correct answer)
Insert needle, apply tourniquet, clean site, release tourniquet
Clean site, apply tourniquet, insert needle, release tourniquet

Correct answer: Apply tourniquet, clean site, insert needle, release tourniquet

The correct order is: apply tourniquet, identify vein, clean the site, then insert the needle and release the tourniquet before withdrawing.

Question 75: The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by:

Skin puncture (Correct answer)
Injection
Suction
Cutting

Correct answer: Skin puncture

Explanation: The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by skin puncture. Skin puncture involves pricking the skin to obtain a small blood sample for testing purposes. This method is commonly used for glucose monitoring, especially in diabetic patients, as well as for other blood tests such as hemoglobin levels or blood typing. Skin puncture is a less invasive and less painful method compared to venipuncture, which involves drawing blood from a vein. The blood lancet is a small, sharp instrument designed specifically for this purpose, allowing for a controlled and precise puncture of the skin to obtain the necessary blood sample.

Question 76: Which complication is most commonly observed during hemodialysis treatments?

Hyperglycemia
Hyperkalemia
Intradialytic hypotension (Correct answer)
Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: Intradialytic hypotension

Intradialytic hypotension (IDH) is the most common complication, occurring due to rapid fluid removal, vasodilation, or cardiac dysfunction during treatment.

Question 77: Before initiating a hemodialysis session, which pre-treatment assessment is most essential?

Verifying the patient's last meal time only
Assessing vascular access patency, blood pressure, and patient weight (Correct answer)
Confirming patient insurance information
Checking only the machine's water temperature

Correct answer: Assessing vascular access patency, blood pressure, and patient weight

Pre-treatment assessment must confirm access patency (thrill/bruit), baseline blood pressure, and current weight to calculate the ultrafiltration goal for the session.

Question 78: Normal adult resting heart rate range is:

40–60 bpm
60–100 bpm (Correct answer)
100–120 bpm
50–80 bpm

Correct answer: 60–100 bpm

A normal adult resting heart rate is 60–100 beats per minute.

Question 79: Medical waste that is soaked with blood is categorized as:

Recycled material
Hazardous chemical waste
Regulated medical waste (Correct answer)
Regular trash

Correct answer: Regulated medical waste

Items soaked or saturated with blood are classified as regulated medical waste and must be disposed of in biohazard containers.

Question 80: What does the dialysate solution used in hemodialysis typically contain?

Heparin as the primary component
Electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and bicarbonate (Correct answer)
Antibiotics to prevent infection
Glucose and insulin for metabolic support

Correct answer: Electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and bicarbonate

Dialysate is a purified water solution containing electrolytes at physiologic concentrations to facilitate diffusion of waste products out of the blood.

Question 81: A needlestick injury should be reported to the employer within:

72 hours
48 hours
24 hours (Correct answer)
1 week

Correct answer: 24 hours

OSHA requires that needlestick and sharps injuries be reported to the employer within 24 hours for proper post-exposure prophylaxis.

Question 82: When attaching limb leads, the right leg (RL) electrode serves as the:

Negative reference electrode
Precordial reference
Positive reference electrode
Ground electrode (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ground electrode

The right leg electrode is the ground (neutral) reference in standard ECG recordings, used to reduce electrical interference.

Question 83: Which of the following is the MOST effective way to remove transient microorganisms from hands?

Soap and water for 20 seconds (Correct answer)
Hand sanitizer
Wearing gloves
Antiseptic wipes

Correct answer: Soap and water for 20 seconds

Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds physically removes transient microorganisms most effectively.

Question 84: After drawing blood, a medical assistant should apply pressure to the venipuncture site for at least:

5 minutes
1–2 minutes (Correct answer)
30 seconds
10 minutes

Correct answer: 1–2 minutes

Applying pressure for 1–2 minutes after venipuncture promotes hemostasis and prevents hematoma formation.

Question 85: Which form is used by a physician's office to submit claims for outpatient services?

UB-04
CMS-1500 (Correct answer)
Explanation of Benefits (EOB)
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)

Correct answer: CMS-1500

The CMS-1500 form is the standard claim form used by physicians and other non-institutional providers to bill Medicare Part B and most other insurance carriers for outpatient services. The UB-04 form is used for institutional claims, such as those from hospitals or skilled nursing facilities.

Question 86: The term 'tachypnea' means:

Rapid breathing (Correct answer)
Stopped breathing
Slow breathing
Deep breathing

Correct answer: Rapid breathing

Tachypnea refers to an abnormally rapid rate of breathing; 'tachy-' means fast and 'pnea' refers to breathing.

Question 87: An instrument called a centrifuge:

Separates the cellular and liquid portions of the blood (Correct answer)
Freezes specimens
Used for incubation
Heats specimens

Correct answer: Separates the cellular and liquid portions of the blood

Explanation: A centrifuge is an instrument commonly used in laboratories to separate the cellular and liquid portions of the blood. It achieves this by spinning the blood sample at high speeds, causing the heavier cellular components to settle at the bottom of the tube while the lighter liquid portion remains on top. This separation allows for further analysis or testing of specific components in the blood, such as red and white blood cells or plasma.

Question 88: A patient's insurance requires pre-authorization for an MRI. What is the primary purpose of this process?

To bill the patient for the procedure before it is performed
To determine the patient's copayment amount
To confirm the patient's demographic information is correct
To obtain approval from the insurance company for a service to be covered (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To obtain approval from the insurance company for a service to be covered

Pre-authorization, or prior authorization, is a process used by insurance companies to verify that a specific service, prescription, or procedure is medically necessary and covered under the patient's plan. Obtaining this approval beforehand helps prevent claim denials for non-covered services.

Question 89: Which type of PPE is required when caring for a patient on droplet precautions?

Surgical mask (Correct answer)
No PPE needed
N95 respirator
Full face shield only

Correct answer: Surgical mask

Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the patient, as droplets do not remain airborne.

Question 90: Which ECG change is classically associated with acute myocardial infarction?

ST segment elevation (Correct answer)
Prominent U waves
PR interval prolongation
Shortened QT interval

Correct answer: ST segment elevation

ST segment elevation in contiguous leads is a classic ECG sign of acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

Question 91: Which ECG finding indicates first-degree AV block?

PR interval > 0.20 seconds with all P waves conducted (Correct answer)
Complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes
Absent P waves
Dropped QRS beats after progressive PR lengthening

Correct answer: PR interval > 0.20 seconds with all P waves conducted

First-degree AV block is characterized by a consistently prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) with all P waves followed by a QRS.

Question 92: Which instrument is designed for grasping tissue or holding a suture needle?

Curette
Forceps (Correct answer)
Scalpel
Retractor

Correct answer: Forceps

Forceps are instruments used for grasping, holding, or manipulating tissues or objects like suture needles. There are many types, such as tissue forceps (with teeth) for grasping tissue and needle holders (a type of locking forceps) for holding suture needles.

Question 93: Inflammation of the stomach and intestines causing discomfort is called:

Gastroenteritis (Correct answer)
Upper GI
Barium flow
Transverse colon

Correct answer: Gastroenteritis

Explanation: Gastroenteritis refers to the inflammation of the stomach and intestines, which leads to discomfort. This condition is commonly caused by viral or bacterial infections, and it typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Gastroenteritis can be easily transmitted through contaminated food or water, and it is often referred to as the stomach flu or food poisoning. Treatment usually involves rest, hydration, and symptomatic relief, and most cases resolve within a few days.

Question 94: A spirometry test measures:

Blood CO2 levels
Blood oxygen levels
Heart rate variability
Lung volumes and airflow rates (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lung volumes and airflow rates

Spirometry measures lung volumes and the rate of airflow to assess pulmonary function.

Question 95: The term 'subcutaneous' means:

Beneath the skin (Correct answer)
On the skin surface
Between the skin layers
Within the muscle

Correct answer: Beneath the skin

Subcutaneous means beneath the skin; 'sub-' = under and 'cutaneous' = pertaining to the skin.

Question 96: A normal PR interval duration on an adult ECG is:

0.06–0.10 seconds
0.40–0.60 seconds
0.12–0.20 seconds (Correct answer)
0.20–0.30 seconds

Correct answer: 0.12–0.20 seconds

A normal PR interval is 0.12–0.20 seconds, representing conduction from the SA node through the AV node.

Question 97: A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction to a drug that requires immediate medical attention is known as:

Anaphylaxis (Correct answer)
A contraindication
A side effect
An idiosyncratic reaction

Correct answer: Anaphylaxis

Anaphylaxis is a severe, systemic allergic reaction that can be fatal. It is characterized by symptoms like hives, swelling, and difficulty breathing. A side effect is a predictable, often mild, secondary effect of a drug, while an idiosyncratic reaction is an uncommon and unpredictable response.

Question 98: When using the ICD-10-CM codebook, a coder should first locate the term in the:

Table of Drugs and Chemicals
Appendix for Neoplasms
Alphabetic Index and then verify in the Tabular List (Correct answer)
Tabular List and then verify in the Alphabetic Index

Correct answer: Alphabetic Index and then verify in the Tabular List

The correct coding process requires the coder to first locate the diagnosis or condition in the Alphabetic Index. The Alphabetic Index will then direct the coder to a specific code or range of codes in the Tabular List. The code must then be verified in the Tabular List to ensure accuracy and check for any instructional notes.

Question 99: The prefix 'brady-' means:

Small
Slow (Correct answer)
Large
Fast

Correct answer: Slow

The prefix 'brady-' means slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate).

Question 100: When a hemodialysis machine alarm indicates low arterial pressure, the technician's first action should be to:

Increase the dialysate flow rate to compensate
Stop the treatment and return blood to the patient at once
Check for kinks in the blood lines, assess vascular access, and evaluate the patient for hypotension (Correct answer)
Immediately increase the blood pump speed

Correct answer: Check for kinks in the blood lines, assess vascular access, and evaluate the patient for hypotension

Low arterial pressure alarm indicates inadequate blood flow into the circuit; the technician should systematically check for mechanical causes (kinks, clamp, access collapse) and assess the patient's hemodynamic status.

Question 101: ________________ laws allow physicians and Patient Care Technicians to render aid at the scene of an accident without fear of lawsuits.

Statue
Good Samaritan (Correct answer)
Local
AMA

Correct answer: Good Samaritan

Explanation: Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect individuals who provide assistance in emergency situations from being sued for any harm caused during the course of their aid. These laws encourage medical professionals, such as physicians and Patient Care Technicians, to provide immediate care at the scene of an accident without fear of legal repercussions. By granting immunity, Good Samaritan laws aim to ensure that individuals receive timely and potentially life-saving medical attention in emergency situations.

Question 102: Lead II is the most commonly used rhythm monitoring lead because it:

Is farthest from cardiac interference
Produces the tallest P wave and QRS in most patients (Correct answer)
Measures right ventricular activity only
Shows the widest QRS complex

Correct answer: Produces the tallest P wave and QRS in most patients

Lead II runs nearly parallel to the heart's electrical axis, producing tall, clear P waves and QRS complexes ideal for rhythm analysis.

Question 103: When setting up a sterile field, which of the following actions would contaminate it?

Opening a sterile package so that the contents drop onto the center of the field
Reaching over the sterile field to place an instrument (Correct answer)
Keeping the sterile field in constant view
Considering the 1-inch border around the sterile drape to be non-sterile

Correct answer: Reaching over the sterile field to place an instrument

Reaching over a sterile field violates sterile technique because dust, lint, or microbes from the non-sterile arm or clothing can fall onto the field and contaminate it. One must always maintain a safe margin and go around the sterile field, never over it.

Question 104: Artifact on an ECG tracing is most commonly caused by:

Patient movement or muscle tremor (Correct answer)
Slow paper speed
Incorrect lead placement on the chest
Low battery in the ECG machine

Correct answer: Patient movement or muscle tremor

Patient movement or muscle tremor (somatic tremor artifact) is the most common source of ECG artifact.

Question 105: On an EKG, you observe a progressively lengthening PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Which type of AV block is this?

First-degree AV block
Third-degree AV block
Second-degree AV block, Mobitz II
Second-degree AV block, Mobitz I (Wenckebach) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Second-degree AV block, Mobitz I (Wenckebach)

Mobitz I, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of second-degree AV block where there is a progressive delay in AV conduction. This is seen on the EKG as a PR interval that gets longer with each beat until a QRS complex is completely blocked or 'dropped'.

Question 106: What EKG characteristic best describes a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?

An inverted P wave preceding a narrow QRS complex
A dropped QRS complex following a normal P wave
A wide, bizarre-looking QRS complex that occurs early, not preceded by a P wave (Correct answer)
A narrow QRS complex that occurs earlier than expected

Correct answer: A wide, bizarre-looking QRS complex that occurs early, not preceded by a P wave

A PVC is an ectopic beat originating from an irritable focus within the ventricles. This results in a premature, wide (>0.12s), and oddly shaped QRS complex because the impulse does not follow the normal conduction pathway. It is not preceded by a P wave and is typically followed by a compensatory pause.

Question 107: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by which ECG finding?

Saw-tooth baseline at 300 bpm
Absent P waves with an irregularly irregular rhythm (Correct answer)
Peaked T waves with prolonged QT interval
Regularly irregular rhythm with wide QRS

Correct answer: Absent P waves with an irregularly irregular rhythm

Atrial fibrillation shows no identifiable P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm due to chaotic atrial activity.

Question 108: Which isolation precaution is used for patients with Clostridium difficile?

Airborne precautions
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions (Correct answer)
Standard precautions only

Correct answer: Contact precautions

C. difficile is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and contaminated surfaces, requiring contact precautions including gown and gloves.

Question 109: Which type of thermometer is contraindicated in patients with tympanic membrane perforation?

Rectal
Axillary
Tympanic (ear) (Correct answer)
Oral

Correct answer: Tympanic (ear)

Tympanic thermometers are contraindicated when a perforated tympanic membrane is present because they measure ear canal temperature.

Question 110: Standard Precautions apply to:

Only airborne pathogens
Only patients known to have infectious diseases
Blood, body fluids, and non-intact skin of ALL patients (Correct answer)
Only HIV-positive patients

Correct answer: Blood, body fluids, and non-intact skin of ALL patients

Standard Precautions treat all blood, body fluids, and non-intact skin as potentially infectious, regardless of patient diagnosis.

Question 111: Which scheduling method involves scheduling several patients for the same time slot, with patients seen in the order of their arrival?

Time-specified scheduling
Double-booking
Wave scheduling (Correct answer)
Modified wave scheduling

Correct answer: Wave scheduling

Wave scheduling has all patients for a particular hour scheduled to arrive at the beginning of the hour. They are then seen in the order they arrive. This method helps accommodate late arrivals but can increase patient wait times if everyone arrives at once.

Question 112: Which EKG finding is the hallmark of a third-degree (complete) heart block?

A constant PR interval that is longer than 0.20 seconds
Progressively lengthening PR interval with dropped QRS complexes
Complete dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes (Correct answer)
A 'sawtooth' pattern of P waves

Correct answer: Complete dissociation between P waves and QRS complexes

In a third-degree AV block, there is no electrical communication between the atria and ventricles. The atria (P waves) and ventricles (QRS complexes) beat independently of each other, resulting in a complete AV dissociation where there is no consistent relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.

Question 113: The three key components used to select the correct level of an Evaluation and Management (E/M) code are History, Examination, and:

Medical Decision Making (Correct answer)
Time
Coordination of Care
Counseling

Correct answer: Medical Decision Making

The three key components for selecting an E/M code level are History, Examination, and Medical Decision Making (MDM). The complexity of each of these components, as documented in the medical record, determines the appropriate E/M code to be assigned.

Question 114: Which prefix means 'many' or 'much'?

Di-
Semi-
Mono-
Poly- (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Poly-

The prefix 'poly-' means many or much, as in polypharmacy (use of many medications).

Question 115: What is the primary purpose of verifying a patient's insurance eligibility at check-in?

To schedule a follow-up appointment
To confirm the patient's policy is active for the date of service (Correct answer)
To collect the patient's entire medical history
To determine the patient's diagnosis

Correct answer: To confirm the patient's policy is active for the date of service

Verifying insurance eligibility confirms that the patient has active coverage for the date of service. This is crucial for ensuring the practice will be reimbursed for the services provided. It also helps prevent billing issues for both the patient and the office.

Question 116: In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are __________ to denote the type of additive or lack of one.

serrated
striped
color-coded (Correct answer)
stamped

Correct answer: color-coded

Explanation: The evacuated glass tubes in the blood collection system come in different sizes, and the stoppers are color-coded to denote the type of additive or lack of one. This means that each color represents a specific type of additive or lack thereof, making it easier for healthcare professionals to identify and select the appropriate tube for blood collection.

Question 117: Ventricular fibrillation on ECG appears as:

Regular peaked narrow QRS complexes
Absent electrical activity (flat line)
Chaotic irregular waveform with no identifiable complexes (Correct answer)
Wide bizarre QRS at 100–250 bpm

Correct answer: Chaotic irregular waveform with no identifiable complexes

Ventricular fibrillation produces a chaotic, irregular waveform with no identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves.

Question 118: A medication administered under the tongue is delivered via which route?

Buccal
Sublingual (Correct answer)
Transdermal
Intradermal

Correct answer: Sublingual

The sublingual route involves placing medication under the tongue to be absorbed directly into the bloodstream. This method bypasses the digestive system, allowing for rapid absorption. The buccal route involves placing medication between the cheek and gum.

Question 119: A patient receives a document from their insurance company that details how a claim was processed, including the amount paid and the patient's financial responsibility. What is this document called?

CMS-1500
Superbill
Explanation of Benefits (EOB) (Correct answer)
Remittance Advice (RA)

Correct answer: Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) is a statement sent from the health insurance company directly to the patient to explain what medical treatments and/or services were paid for on their behalf. A Remittance Advice (RA) is a similar document sent from the payer to the provider.

Question 120: Preparing for a glucose tolerance test _______ hour/s before or during the test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol.

2
10 (Correct answer)
1
1/2

Correct answer: 10

Explanation: The patient should not eat, smoke, or drink coffee or alcohol for 10 hours before or during the glucose tolerance test. This is because these activities can affect the results of the test and give inaccurate readings. Fasting for a certain period of time ensures that the body's glucose levels are not influenced by external factors, allowing for an accurate assessment of the patient's glucose tolerance.

Question 121: When preparing a sterile field, which action would contaminate it?

Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)
Keeping sterile gloves above waist level
Adding sterile items by dropping them from 6 inches
Opening sterile packaging away from the field

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field introduces microorganisms from non-sterile areas, contaminating the field.

Question 122: Which of the following is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

Bundle of His
AV node
Purkinje fibers
SA node (Correct answer)

Correct answer: SA node

The sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the right atrium, is the heart's primary pacemaker, normally firing at 60–100 bpm.

Question 123: The process by which waste solutes move from the blood across the dialyzer membrane into the dialysate is called:

Absorption
Diffusion (Correct answer)
Osmosis
Filtration

Correct answer: Diffusion

Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration (blood) to lower concentration (dialysate) across the semipermeable dialyzer membrane.

Question 124: Which method of sterilization is most commonly used in the medical office for heat-stable surgical instruments?

Chemical sterilization (cold sterile)
Steam sterilization (autoclave) (Correct answer)
Dry heat oven
Ethylene oxide gas

Correct answer: Steam sterilization (autoclave)

An autoclave uses steam under pressure to achieve high temperatures (typically 121°C or 250°F), which is a highly effective, reliable, and fast method for sterilizing metal instruments and other heat-stable items. It is the standard method used in most clinical settings.

Question 125: An EKG shows a regular rhythm at a rate of 50 bpm. The QRS complexes are narrow, but P waves are absent or inverted. This rhythm most likely originates from the:

Ventricles
Atrial tissue
Atrioventricular (AV) junction (Correct answer)
Sinoatrial (SA) node

Correct answer: Atrioventricular (AV) junction

A junctional escape rhythm occurs when the SA node fails to fire, and the AV junction takes over as the pacemaker. Its intrinsic rate is 40-60 bpm, and because the impulse originates in the AV junction, P waves are either absent, inverted (due to retrograde conduction), or buried within the QRS.

Question 126: What is the primary function of hemodialysis?

To regulate blood glucose levels
To filter bacteria from the bloodstream
To remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood (Correct answer)
To oxygenate the blood

Correct answer: To remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood

Hemodialysis filters the blood to remove uremic waste products, excess electrolytes, and fluid that damaged kidneys can no longer eliminate.

Question 127: Genetic counseling and organ transplant decisions require consideration of:

Ethnic medical practices
Quality of life for the patient (Correct answer)
Religious preference
Color of eyes

Correct answer: Quality of life for the patient

Explanation: Genetic counseling involves discussing and assessing the risk of inherited conditions or genetic disorders in individuals or families. Considering the quality of life for the patient is essential in this context as it helps determine the potential impact of the genetic condition on the individual's overall well-being and daily functioning. Similarly, in organ transplant decisions, the quality of life for the patient plays a crucial role in evaluating the potential benefits and risks associated with the procedure. It helps determine if the transplant will significantly improve the patient's quality of life and if they are likely to have a successful recovery post-transplant.

Question 128: An EKG strip shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves and a variable ventricular rate. What is the most likely interpretation?

Sinus Tachycardia
Ventricular Tachycardia
Atrial Flutter
Atrial Fibrillation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Atrial Fibrillation

Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) is characterized by chaotic atrial electrical activity, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response and the absence of clear P waves. The baseline may appear chaotic or fibrillatory, which distinguishes it from other rhythms.

Question 129: In a SOAP note, the patient's description of their symptoms would be recorded under which section?

P - Plan
A - Assessment
O - Objective
S - Subjective (Correct answer)

Correct answer: S - Subjective

The SOAP format stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan. The 'Subjective' section contains the patient's chief complaint and description of their symptoms, as it is their personal account. The 'Objective' section contains measurable findings like vital signs and exam results.

Question 130: The fraudulent practice of billing for a more complex or expensive service than was actually performed is known as:

Bundling
Unbundling
Upcoding (Correct answer)
Downcoding

Correct answer: Upcoding

Upcoding is the illegal practice of assigning a higher-level code to a medical service than what the documentation supports, in order to receive higher reimbursement. Downcoding is billing for a less complex service, and bundling is grouping related services under a single code.

Question 131: The P wave on an ECG represents:

Ventricular repolarization
Ventricular depolarization
Atrial repolarization
Atrial depolarization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Atrial depolarization

The P wave reflects the electrical depolarization of the atria, initiating atrial contraction.

Question 132: The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is:

Selecting the appropriate cleansing agent
Selecting the correct needle gauge
Selecting the appropriate tourniquet
Positively identifying the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Positively identifying the patient

Explanation: The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is positively identifying the patient. This is crucial to ensure that the procedure is being performed on the correct individual, preventing any potential harm or errors. Positive identification helps to avoid situations such as misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, or transfusion reactions. It ensures patient safety and promotes accurate and effective healthcare delivery. Selecting the correct needle gauge, selecting the appropriate cleansing agent, and selecting the appropriate tourniquet are also important steps in the procedure, but positively identifying the patient takes precedence as it directly impacts patient care and outcomes.

Question 133: Which clinical presentation is most indicative of an air embolism during hemodialysis?

Isolated decrease in heart rate
Sudden chest pain, coughing, dyspnea, and cyanosis (Correct answer)
Gradual rise in blood pressure with bradycardia
Mild headache and mild nausea

Correct answer: Sudden chest pain, coughing, dyspnea, and cyanosis

Air embolism presents acutely with chest pain, cough, and cyanosis as air enters the venous circulation and obstructs pulmonary blood flow; it requires immediate clamping of the venous line and patient positioning.

Question 134: To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the __________ the needle.

smaller (Correct answer)
shorter
longer
larger

Correct answer: smaller

Explanation: The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle. This is because the gauge number refers to the thickness of the needle. So, a higher gauge number indicates a thinner needle, making it smaller in size.

Question 135: Which site is most commonly used for intramuscular injections in adults?

Vastus lateralis
Ventrogluteal muscle (Correct answer)
Deltoid muscle
Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: Ventrogluteal muscle

The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels.

Question 136: What is the recommended blood flow rate (Qb) for most adult hemodialysis patients?

50–100 mL/min
500–600 mL/min
100–150 mL/min
200–400 mL/min (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 200–400 mL/min

A blood flow rate of 200–400 mL/min is standard for adult hemodialysis, balancing adequate solute clearance with hemodynamic stability and access flow capacity.

Question 137: When contact with bodily fluid is possible, the Patient Care Technician should wear:

All of the above (Correct answer)
A gown
A mask
Gloves

Correct answer: All of the above

Explanation: The Patient Care Technician should wear a gown, gloves, and a mask when there is a possibility of contact with bodily fluids. Wearing a gown helps protect the technician's clothing from getting contaminated. Gloves create a barrier between the technician's hands and the bodily fluids, reducing the risk of infection. Wearing a mask helps prevent the inhalation of any airborne particles or droplets that may be present in the environment. Therefore, wearing all of these protective measures is necessary to ensure the safety and well-being of the Patient Care Technician.

Question 138: The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires that sharps containers be replaced when:

Half full
After each use
Completely full
Three-quarters full (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Three-quarters full

Sharps containers must be sealed and replaced when they are three-quarters full to prevent needlestick injuries.

Question 139: When palpating an AV fistula, the term 'thrill' refers to:

The visible pulsatile movement of the fistula under the skin
A buzzing or vibrating sensation felt on palpation over the fistula (Correct answer)
Pain or tenderness at the needle cannulation site
A bruit detected only with a stethoscope during auscultation

Correct answer: A buzzing or vibrating sensation felt on palpation over the fistula

A thrill is the palpable vibration over a functioning AV fistula caused by turbulent blood flow at the arteriovenous anastomosis, indicating the fistula is patent and functional.

Question 140: What is the fundamental difference between the ICD-10-CM and CPT code sets?

ICD-10-CM reports diagnoses, while CPT reports procedures. (Correct answer)
ICD-10-CM codes are numeric, while CPT codes are alphanumeric.
ICD-10-CM is for inpatient use, while CPT is for outpatient use.
ICD-10-CM is used in the US, while CPT is used internationally.

Correct answer: ICD-10-CM reports diagnoses, while CPT reports procedures.

The ICD-10-CM code set is used to report diagnoses, telling the payer *why* the service was provided. The CPT code set is used to report procedures and services, telling the payer *what* service was performed. Both are required for a complete medical claim.

Question 141: The suffix '-itis' means:

Rupture
Inflammation (Correct answer)
Softening
Tumor

Correct answer: Inflammation

The suffix '-itis' denotes inflammation, as in appendicitis or arthritis.

Question 142: Autoclave sterilization uses which combination to destroy all microorganisms?

UV light and pressure
Dry heat and radiation
Steam under pressure and heat (Correct answer)
Chemical vapor and heat

Correct answer: Steam under pressure and heat

Autoclaves use saturated steam under pressure (typically 121°C at 15 psi for 15–30 minutes) to achieve sterilization.

Question 143: Which vascular access site is considered the 'gold standard' for long-term hemodialysis?

Central venous catheter
Arteriovenous fistula (Correct answer)
Peripherally inserted central catheter
Arteriovenous graft

Correct answer: Arteriovenous fistula

An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is preferred because it has the lowest complication rates, longest patency, and best outcomes for long-term dialysis patients.

Question 144: In health insurance terminology, what is a 'deductible'?

The maximum amount a patient will have to pay out-of-pocket in a year
A fixed fee paid by the patient at the time of service
A specified amount of money that the insured must pay before an insurance company will pay a claim (Correct answer)
A percentage of the cost of a covered service that the patient is responsible for

Correct answer: A specified amount of money that the insured must pay before an insurance company will pay a claim

The deductible is a fixed amount a patient must pay for covered health care services each year before their insurance plan starts to pay. After the deductible is met, the patient typically only pays a copayment or coinsurance for covered services, and the insurance company pays the rest.

Question 145: When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:

Have the patient wave their arm in the air to dry it faster
Wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep
Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry (Correct answer)
Blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn't burn

Correct answer: Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

Explanation: When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry. This method ensures that the site is thoroughly cleaned and reduces the risk of introducing any contaminants into the puncture site. Allowing the site to air dry also prevents any potential irritation or discomfort that may occur if the alcohol is not completely dry before the needle is inserted.

Question 146: The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Creation of an opening
Surgical removal (Correct answer)
Incision into
Visual examination

Correct answer: Surgical removal

The suffix '-ectomy' refers to surgical removal or excision of a body part.

Question 147: The prefix 'hypo-' means:

Excessive
Below normal (Correct answer)
Between
Above normal

Correct answer: Below normal

The prefix 'hypo-' means below normal or deficient, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).

Question 148: Which route of medication administration has the fastest absorption rate?

Intravenous (Correct answer)
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Oral

Correct answer: Intravenous

Intravenous administration delivers medication directly into the bloodstream, achieving the fastest onset of action.

Question 149: Which microorganism requires airborne precautions (N95 respirator)?

MRSA
Clostridium difficile
Influenza
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis spreads via small airborne particles that remain suspended in air, requiring N95 respirators.

Question 150: A patient sees a physician for a scheduled wellness exam. During the visit, the patient also complains of a new, persistent cough, which the physician evaluates and treats. Which CPT modifier should be appended to the E/M code for the cough evaluation?

Modifier -24
Modifier -51
Modifier -59
Modifier -25 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Modifier -25

Modifier -25 is used to indicate a 'Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service'. It is used when a separate E/M service is performed on the same day as a preventive visit or a minor procedure.

NCCT National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) Exam

The NCMA certification exam from NCCT validates the competency of medical assistants in clinical procedures, administrative tasks, pharmacology, diagnostics, and healthcare law and ethics.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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