NCBTMB Exam Massage Application and Techniques 5

Question 1

A therapist is performing deep tissue work on the posterior thorax when the client reports a sudden sharp, localized pain at the inferior angle of the scapula that radiates anteriorly. The most appropriate immediate response is to:

Accepted Answer

Stop work in that region entirely and assess for potential rib involvement

Answer

Sudden sharp pain radiating anteriorly from the posterior thorax during deep tissue work is a red flag that may indicate periosteal bruising or rib involvement. The correct response is to stop work in that region and assess, not to modify technique and continue. Continuing with any deep technique — including repositioning, friction, or cross-fiber strokes — risks further injury. Safe practice mandates assessment before resuming work near a potential contraindication site.

Question 2

When applying petrissage to the gastrocnemius of a client who is three weeks post-DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and has been cleared by their physician for massage, the therapist should:

Accepted Answer

Avoid all petrissage to the affected limb and use light effleurage only

Answer

Even with physician clearance, a three-week post-DVT timeline is extremely recent. Petrissage — with its compressive and lifting actions — poses unacceptable risk to a recently recanalized vessel or an incompletely resolved thrombus. The standard of care is to avoid all compressive techniques on the affected limb and limit work to very light effleurage. Physician clearance permits massage but does not authorize aggressive technique selection; the therapist retains clinical responsibility for technique choice.

Question 3

A client presents with chronic lateral epicondylalgia. The therapist plans to apply transverse friction massage (Cyriax method) to the common extensor tendon. For optimal therapeutic effect, the friction should be applied:

Accepted Answer

Perpendicular to the fiber direction with sufficient depth to engage the tendon, elbow near full extension

Answer

Cyriax transverse friction requires that strokes be applied perpendicular (transverse) to the collagen fiber orientation — not parallel — to break adhesions between fibers and promote proper collagen remodeling. The tendon must be placed under mild tension (elbow near full extension) to stabilize it and allow the friction to engage the target tissue effectively. Slackening the tendon (elbow flexed) allows it to move away from the therapist's contact, reducing specificity and effectiveness.

Question 4

During a relaxation session, you are applying slow effleurage to the posterior neck when you notice the client's head involuntarily rotates slightly to the left and their left arm begins to twitch. The client is unresponsive to verbal prompting for approximately 8 seconds, then becomes confused. You should:

Accepted Answer

Immediately stop the massage, position the client safely, monitor them, and call for emergency services

Answer

The described presentation — focal twitching, brief unresponsiveness, and post-ictal confusion — is consistent with a seizure. Additionally, the proximity of neck work raises the possibility of vertebral artery compromise. In either case, the therapist must immediately stop all massage, ensure the client is in a safe position (not on the table edge), time the event, and activate emergency medical services. Continuing the stroke, applying traction to the neck, or applying cold compresses are all contraindicated responses to a potential neurological emergency.

Question 5

A therapist trained in myofascial release (MFR) is working with a client who has a significant anterior pelvic tilt. To address the myofascial restriction most likely contributing to this postural pattern, the therapist should prioritize sustained low-load release of the:

Accepted Answer

Anterior thoracolumbar junction and hip flexor fascial complex, including the iliacus fascia

Answer

Anterior pelvic tilt is driven primarily by shortened hip flexors (psoas, iliacus) and their associated fascial sheaths, combined with hyperlordosis at the thoracolumbar junction. The iliacus fascia and anterior thoracolumbar fascial complex are the key targets in MFR for this presentation. Thoracolumbar fascia is predominantly posterior (not anterior), the superficial back line would not directly tilt the pelvis anteriorly, and the IT band/lateral retinaculum have minimal mechanical leverage over sagittal pelvic position.

NCBTMB Exam Practice Test

NCBTMB Exam Practice Test

NCBTMB Exam Massage Application and Techniques 5