NCBTMB Exam General 5

Question 1

A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg presents for massage. The DVT was confirmed by ultrasound 6 weeks ago and the client is currently on anticoagulant therapy. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Obtain physician clearance before providing any massage and avoid all circulatory techniques until cleared

Answer

DVT poses a risk of embolism — a potentially fatal complication — if a clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, heart, or brain. Even with 6 weeks elapsed and anticoagulant therapy underway, the therapist must obtain physician clearance before providing any massage, because the clot may not be fully resolved. The contraindication extends beyond just the affected limb; systemic circulatory techniques could still mobilize the thrombus. Discontinuing anticoagulants is a medical decision unrelated to massage eligibility.

Question 2

During a session, a therapist notices that a client's skin over the lumbar region is unusually warm, erythematous, and accompanied by a nonblanching petechial rash. The client reports flu-like symptoms that began this morning. What is the MOST critical action?

Accepted Answer

Discontinue the session immediately and advise the client to seek emergency medical care

Answer

A nonblanching petechial or purpuric rash combined with fever and flu-like symptoms is a classic warning sign of meningococcal septicemia or other serious systemic infections, which can be life-threatening within hours. Unlike a blanching rash (which indicates dilated capillaries that can be compressed), a nonblanching rash indicates blood has leaked outside vessels — a medical emergency. The therapist must stop immediately and direct the client to emergency services, not schedule a follow-up.

Question 3

A licensed massage therapist is subpoenaed to testify in a personal injury lawsuit involving a former client. The client has NOT signed a release of records, but the opposing attorney requests the client's SOAP notes. Under HIPAA and professional ethics standards, the therapist should:

Accepted Answer

Notify the client, consult an attorney, and comply with the subpoena only after following proper legal process including any applicable protective order

Answer

A subpoena does not automatically override HIPAA. Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a covered entity may disclose protected health information in response to a subpoena, but only if certain conditions are met — including notifying the client so they have an opportunity to seek a protective order, or obtaining a court order. The therapist should engage legal counsel, notify the client, and follow proper legal process before releasing records. Refusing outright or complying immediately without process are both errors.

Question 4

The Gate Control Theory of pain, as originally proposed by Melzack and Wall, suggests that massage may reduce pain primarily by:

Accepted Answer

Activating large-diameter Aβ mechanoreceptor fibers that inhibit pain signal transmission at the spinal dorsal horn

Answer

The Gate Control Theory proposes that the dorsal horn of the spinal cord acts as a 'gate' for pain signals. Stimulation of large-diameter Aβ mechanoreceptor fibers (activated by touch, pressure, and vibration — the sensations created by massage) can inhibit transmission of pain signals carried by smaller C and Aδ fibers. This competitive inhibition effectively 'closes the gate' before nociceptive signals reach higher brain centers. Endorphin release is associated with different mechanisms (e.g., exercise, acupuncture), and substance P regulation is a separate pathway.

Question 5

A massage therapist working in a clinical setting is treating a client recovering from a right-sided total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed 10 weeks ago using a posterior approach. The surgeon has cleared the client for massage. Which position and technique combination is MOST contraindicated during this session?

Accepted Answer

Side-lying on the right with the right hip adducted and internally rotated, deep friction to the right piriformis

Answer

Following posterior-approach THA, the primary dislocation risk involves the combination of hip adduction, flexion beyond 90°, and internal rotation — the exact precautions that must be observed for typically 6–12 weeks post-surgery (sometimes longer by surgeon preference). Side-lying on the operative side with the hip adducted and internally rotated directly violates posterior hip precautions and risks prosthetic dislocation. Deep friction to the piriformis in this position adds mechanical stress. The therapist must maintain abduction and avoid internal rotation regardless of surgeon clearance for massage.

NCBTMB Exam Practice Test

NCBTMB Exam Practice Test

NCBTMB Exam General 5