CST (Certified Surgical Technologist) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Oxidized regenerated cellulose (Surgicel) achieves hemostasis through which mechanism?

Absorbing thrombin and concentrating it at the bleeding site
Releasing calcium ions to promote platelet aggregation
Lowering local pH and activating the coagulation cascade (Correct answer)
Providing a fibrin scaffold that mimics natural clot

Correct answer: Lowering local pH and activating the coagulation cascade

Surgicel (oxidized cellulose) lowers the local pH when moistened with blood, denaturing proteins and facilitating hemostasis through a physical and chemical mechanism.

Question 2: Which instrument is used to create a purse-string suture around the anastomosis site during colon resection?

GIA stapler
Purse-string clamp (Correct answer)
Dennis clamp
Curved Mayo scissors

Correct answer: Purse-string clamp

A purse-string clamp has evenly spaced notches that guide placement of a continuous suture circumferentially, used to secure the bowel ends before circular stapler insertion.

Question 3: Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by which class of anesthetic agents?

Regional anesthetics and propofol
Nitrous oxide and ketamine
Opioids and benzodiazepines
Volatile halogenated agents and succinylcholine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Volatile halogenated agents and succinylcholine

Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis triggered by volatile halogenated anesthetics and succinylcholine in genetically susceptible patients.

Question 4: What is the minimum sterile field margin from the edge of a draped table that is considered non-sterile?

1 inch (Correct answer)
4 inches
3 inches
2 inches

Correct answer: 1 inch

The outer 1-inch border of a draped sterile field is considered non-sterile and must not be used for sterile items.

Question 5: The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Viewing or examining
Incision into
Surgical repair of
Surgical removal of (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical removal of

'-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision. Examples: appendectomy (removal of the appendix), cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder), mastectomy (removal of breast tissue). It is one of the most frequently used surgical suffixes.

Question 6: It is a/an to grant consent for treatment when fully aware of the risks?

informed consent (Correct answer)
clostridium tetani
artificial active
abdominal aortic

Correct answer: informed consent

Informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal principle in healthcare. It requires that a patient fully understands the nature of a proposed treatment, its potential risks, benefits, and alternatives before agreeing to it. This process ensures autonomous decision-making and protects patient rights.

Question 7: During a nephrectomy, which structure is identified first in the renal hilum to control hemorrhage safely?

Adrenal vein
Ureter
Renal vein
Renal artery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Renal artery

The renal artery is ligated first during nephrectomy to devascularize the kidney and reduce venous engorgement, making subsequent dissection safer.

Question 8: Which complication is characterized by a loop of bowel protruding through an abdominal incision after surgery?

Seroma
Evisceration (Correct answer)
Dehiscence
Hematoma

Correct answer: Evisceration

Evisceration is the protrusion of abdominal viscera (bowel) through a disrupted surgical incision, a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 9: A Class 5 chemical integrator placed inside a sterilization package changes to the correct endpoint color. What does this confirm?

All critical sterilization parameters (time, temperature, and steam) were met (Correct answer)
The outside of the package was exposed to steam
The item inside is guaranteed to be sterile
The package was exposed to the correct temperature only

Correct answer: All critical sterilization parameters (time, temperature, and steam) were met

Class 5 integrating indicators react to all critical parameters of a steam sterilization cycle: time, temperature, and the presence of saturated steam. Reaching the endpoint color confirms all three were achieved. However, they do not guarantee sterility — only a biological indicator (spore test) can verify that.

Question 10: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis for surgical patients most commonly includes:

Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and/or anticoagulants (Correct answer)
Aspirin only
Early ambulation alone is sufficient
Elevation of the operative extremity

Correct answer: Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and/or anticoagulants

DVT prophylaxis combines mechanical measures (SCDs) and pharmacologic agents (heparin, LMWH) based on patient risk stratification.

Question 11: Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic solutions for surgical procedures primarily to:

Reduce the risk of allergic reaction
Enhance the anesthetic effect of the drug
Cause vasoconstriction and prolong anesthetic duration (Correct answer)
Neutralize the pH of the local anesthetic

Correct answer: Cause vasoconstriction and prolong anesthetic duration

Epinephrine causes local vasoconstriction, which slows systemic absorption of the anesthetic, prolongs its duration, and reduces bleeding at the operative site.

Question 12: Which document must be completed and signed by the patient before a surgical procedure can legally proceed?

Insurance authorization
Advance directive
Informed consent form (Correct answer)
HIPAA acknowledgment

Correct answer: Informed consent form

An informed consent form must be signed by the patient (or legal guardian) before surgery, confirming the patient understands the procedure, risks, and alternatives.

Question 13: Which of the following is an example of a fenestrated drape?

fistula
mitochondria
aperture (Correct answer)
systolic

Correct answer: aperture

A fenestrated drape is a surgical drape designed with a specific opening or 'aperture' to expose the surgical site. This allows the surgical team to isolate the operative field while maintaining sterility of the surrounding areas. The term 'aperture' directly refers to this pre-cut opening in the drape.

Question 14: During a laparoscopic procedure, a 10 mm port becomes contaminated. The scrub tech should:

Continue using the port and decontaminate at case end
Downsize to a 5 mm port to avoid disruption
Replace with a new sterile port and re-establish pneumoperitoneum (Correct answer)
Irrigate the port with saline and continue

Correct answer: Replace with a new sterile port and re-establish pneumoperitoneum

Any contaminated instrument or device must be removed from the sterile field and replaced with a sterile equivalent to maintain aseptic technique.

Question 15: The Kerrison rongeur is most frequently used in which surgical specialty?

Neurosurgery and spine surgery (Correct answer)
Plastic surgery
General surgery
Vascular surgery

Correct answer: Neurosurgery and spine surgery

The Kerrison rongeur is used in neurosurgery and spinal procedures to remove small pieces of bone and ligament, such as during laminectomy.

Question 16: Which of the following correctly describes the OR attire rule for a scrub technologist leaving and re-entering the OR suite?

The same scrub attire may be worn if the case is still in progress
Shoe covers must be changed; scrub suit does not need replacing
A fresh scrub suit must be donned after any exit from the OR (Correct answer)
The scrub suit can be reused if the OR is restricted access

Correct answer: A fresh scrub suit must be donned after any exit from the OR

When a scrub technologist leaves the OR suite area, the scrub attire is considered contaminated and a fresh suit should be donned upon re-entry.

Question 17: The femoral triangle contains which three structures (from lateral to medial)?

Femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve
Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein (Correct answer)
Femoral nerve, femoral vein, femoral artery

Correct answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein

The femoral triangle contains, from lateral to medial: femoral Nerve, femoral Artery, and femoral Vein (mnemonic: NAVEL — Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Lymphatics).

Question 18: A bipolar electrosurgical forceps differs from monopolar ESU because it:

Uses alternating current instead of radio frequency
Requires a dispersive (grounding) pad placed on the patient
Operates at a lower frequency to prevent tissue burns
Passes current only between its two tips, limiting spread (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Passes current only between its two tips, limiting spread

Bipolar ESU confines current between the two forceps tips, making it safer near delicate structures such as nerves and in patients with implanted electronic devices.

Question 19: Which fixative is most commonly used to preserve surgical tissue specimens for routine permanent pathology?

Glutaraldehyde
Normal saline
Isopropyl alcohol
10% neutral buffered formalin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10% neutral buffered formalin

10% neutral buffered formalin (NBF) is the universal standard fixative for routine surgical pathology. It preserves tissue architecture and cellular morphology for histologic examination. Normal saline keeps tissue temporarily moist but does not fix it. Glutaraldehyde is reserved for electron microscopy.

Question 20: What is the inner ear's spiral-conical structure called?

third
penrose
formalin
cochlea (Correct answer)

Correct answer: cochlea

The cochlea is the spiral-shaped, fluid-filled cavity in the inner ear that plays a crucial role in hearing. It contains the organ of Corti, which converts sound vibrations into nerve impulses. These impulses are then sent to the brain for interpretation, allowing us to perceive sound.

Question 21: The Frazier suction tip is specifically designed for use in which surgical specialty?

Cardiac surgery
Abdominal surgery
Neurosurgery and ENT (Correct answer)
Vascular surgery

Correct answer: Neurosurgery and ENT

The Frazier suction tip has a small-caliber angled tip ideal for evacuating blood and fluid from small operative fields in neurosurgical and ENT procedures.

Question 22: The scrub technologist is responsible for which action when contrast media is placed on the sterile field for a fluoroscopic procedure?

Monitoring the patient for allergic reaction
Injecting the contrast under surgeon direction
Adjusting the fluoroscopy machine settings
Drawing up the contrast in a sterile syringe and labeling it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drawing up the contrast in a sterile syringe and labeling it

The scrub technologist draws contrast into a labeled sterile syringe for the surgeon's use; labeling is mandatory immediately upon transfer to the sterile field.

Question 23: The suffix '-plasty' means:

Surgical creation of a new opening
Surgical removal
Abnormal condition of
Surgical repair or reconstruction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical repair or reconstruction

'-plasty' means surgical repair, reconstruction, or reshaping. Examples: rhinoplasty (reshaping of the nose), arthroplasty (repair/replacement of a joint), mammoplasty (reshaping of the breast). The word 'plastic' in plastic surgery derives from the same Greek root meaning to mold or form.

Question 24: When passing a scalpel to the surgeon during a procedure, the correct technique is to:

Place it on the sterile field and let the surgeon pick it up
Hand it handle-first with the blade facing away from both parties
Pass it blade-down in a kidney basin (Correct answer)
Place it in the surgeon's hand blade-up to allow grip adjustment

Correct answer: Pass it blade-down in a kidney basin

The safest method is the neutral zone or hands-free technique—placing the scalpel in a basin or designated area rather than hand-to-hand transfer to prevent sharps injury.

Question 25: Immediate Use Steam Sterilization (IUSS), formerly called flash sterilization, should be used in which circumstance?

For all implantable devices to ensure the highest sterility level
Only when an item is urgently needed and no sterile replacement is available (Correct answer)
As a routine method for all instrument sets to save time
Whenever standard sterilization packaging materials are unavailable

Correct answer: Only when an item is urgently needed and no sterile replacement is available

IUSS is intended only for emergency situations where a needed item is contaminated or dropped intraoperatively and no pre-packaged sterile replacement is available. It should never be used routinely because items are transported without packaging, increasing contamination risk, and cycle monitoring is reduced.

Question 26: A Harrington retractor (sweetheart retractor) is primarily used to retract which structure?

The bladder during pelvic dissection
The liver during upper abdominal surgery (Correct answer)
The kidney during nephrectomy
The lung during thoracotomy

Correct answer: The liver during upper abdominal surgery

The curved, heart-shaped blade of the Harrington retractor is designed to gently retract the liver during upper abdominal procedures such as cholecystectomy or esophageal surgery.

Question 27: When giving towels to a surgeon to square off an incision site, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand?

bone to bone fixation
bony overgrowth of stapes
same side as surgeon (Correct answer)
distilled water in lumen

Correct answer: same side as surgeon

When assisting the surgeon with draping, specifically when squaring off an incision site with towels, the first scrub surgical technologist should stand on the same side as the surgeon. This positioning facilitates efficient and sterile transfer of instruments and drapes, maintaining the sterile field and promoting smooth teamwork. It allows the technologist to anticipate the surgeon's needs and pass items directly.

Question 28: A biological indicator (BI) from a sterilization load returns a positive (failed) result. What is the required immediate action?

Notify the surgeon and proceed if instruments appear visually clean
Run an additional chemical indicator test before releasing items
Re-sterilize the load and release the items
Quarantine all items from that load and investigate the sterilizer failure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quarantine all items from that load and investigate the sterilizer failure

A positive BI means living bacterial spores survived the cycle, indicating sterilization failure. All items from that load — and potentially previous loads back to the last negative BI — must be quarantined and recalled. The sterilizer must be taken out of service and investigated.

Question 29: What is the primary purpose of a grooved director during surgery?

To dilate a vessel before catheter insertion
To retract tendons away from the operative site
To measure wound depth prior to closure
To guide a scalpel when incising along a structure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To guide a scalpel when incising along a structure

A grooved director is placed under a structure (such as a sinus tract or fistula) to guide and protect underlying tissue while the overlying tissue is incised.

Question 30: What does the term 'cutting' refer to in the context of electrosurgical units (ESU)?

A continuous low-voltage, high-frequency current that rapidly heats cells to vaporize them (Correct answer)
A high-voltage, low-frequency current that chars tissue
A blended current that coagulates and cuts simultaneously
A bipolar current that seals small vessels

Correct answer: A continuous low-voltage, high-frequency current that rapidly heats cells to vaporize them

The cutting mode uses continuous, low-voltage, high-frequency current that heats intracellular water rapidly, vaporizing cells for precise cutting.

Question 31: The tympanic membrane is sometimes known as the?

trephine
lateral
parasitism
eardrum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: eardrum

The tympanic membrane is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that forms the boundary between the external ear and the middle ear. It is commonly known as the eardrum. Its primary function is to vibrate when struck by sound waves, transmitting these vibrations to the ossicles in the middle ear, which is a crucial step in the process of hearing.

Question 32: The saphenous vein used for coronary artery bypass grafting is harvested from which anatomical location?

Popliteal fossa
Medial aspect of the lower leg and thigh (Correct answer)
Anterior leg surface
Lateral leg (peroneal region)

Correct answer: Medial aspect of the lower leg and thigh

The great saphenous vein runs along the medial aspect of the lower leg and thigh from the ankle to the groin and is the most commonly harvested conduit for CABG.

Question 33: Which middle ear ossicle has the oval window covered?

85
stapes (Correct answer)
parasitism
daily

Correct answer: stapes

The stapes, also known as the stirrup, is the smallest of the three middle ear ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes). It articulates with the incus and its footplate fits into the oval window of the inner ear. The stapes transmits sound vibrations from the incus to the fluid-filled inner ear, which is a crucial step in the process of hearing.

Question 34: A needle holder differs from a hemostat primarily because the needle holder has:

Curved, atraumatic blades
Smoother jaws with no serrations
Crosshatched or diamond-pattern jaws to grip needles without spinning (Correct answer)
Ratcheted locking mechanism only

Correct answer: Crosshatched or diamond-pattern jaws to grip needles without spinning

Needle holders have specially textured (crosshatched or tungsten carbide-inlaid) jaws to securely grip suture needles and prevent rotation during suturing.

Question 35: When opening a peel-pack onto the sterile field, the scrub technologist should:

Flip the item onto the sterile field from a distance
Reach into the pack and remove the item
Peel back the edges and present the item without touching the sterile field (Correct answer)
Have the circulator drop the item onto the field

Correct answer: Peel back the edges and present the item without touching the sterile field

The circulator peels back the packaging edges and presents or flips the sterile item onto the field without contaminating either surface.

Question 36: Which suture technique provides the strongest abdominal fascial closure?

Figure-of-eight suture (Correct answer)
Subcuticular closure
Continuous (running) closure
Simple interrupted

Correct answer: Figure-of-eight suture

The figure-of-eight suture provides a mass closure with double-strand reinforcement at each bite, making it particularly strong for high-tension fascial closures.

Question 37: What is the purpose of an electrosurgical dispersive electrode (grounding pad) placed on the patient?

To deliver the cutting or coagulating current to tissue
To monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm during surgery
To return current safely from the patient back to the ESU generator (Correct answer)
To prevent static electricity buildup on the surgical drapes

Correct answer: To return current safely from the patient back to the ESU generator

The dispersive electrode (patient return electrode) collects the current that has passed through the patient's body and safely returns it to the ESU generator, completing the circuit.

Question 38: When a patient is lying flat, where should the safety strap be fastened?

Ampulla of Vater
over the thighs (Correct answer)
after each case
pharynx and trachea

Correct answer: over the thighs

When a patient is positioned flat on the operating table, the safety strap should be securely fastened over the patient's thighs, typically about 2 inches above the knees. This placement helps to safely secure the patient to the table, preventing accidental movement or falls during the surgical procedure. It ensures patient stability without impeding circulation or respiration.

Question 39: Which phase of the cardiac cycle does the heart muscle receive its blood supply from the coronary arteries?

Diastole (Correct answer)
Atrial systole
Systole
Isovolumetric contraction

Correct answer: Diastole

Coronary artery filling occurs primarily during diastole when ventricular pressure drops and the coronary ostia are no longer occluded by high ventricular pressure.

Question 40: When should a surgical specimen NOT be placed in formalin?

When the specimen is a bone biopsy
When a frozen section or microbiologic culture has been requested (Correct answer)
When the specimen is larger than 5 centimeters
When the specimen is obtained laparoscopically

Correct answer: When a frozen section or microbiologic culture has been requested

Formalin kills microorganisms and alters tissue architecture in ways that prevent frozen section processing and destroy viable cells needed for culture. Specimens sent for frozen section analysis or microbiology cultures (bacterial, fungal, AFB) must be sent fresh — without fixative — to the appropriate lab.

Question 41: The proper technique for donning a sterile gown after hand antisepsis is:

Pick up the gown at the collar and shake it open
Grasp the gown at the inside neckline and step away from the table (Correct answer)
Ask the circulator to unfold and hold the gown open
Open the gown on the back table and step into it

Correct answer: Grasp the gown at the inside neckline and step away from the table

The scrub person grasps the inside of the gown at the neckline, steps away from the table, and allows it to unfold without touching the outside sterile surface.

Question 42: When a surgical site infection (SSI) occurs within the skin and subcutaneous tissue only, it is classified as:

Remote SSI
Superficial incisional SSI (Correct answer)
Organ/space SSI
Deep incisional SSI

Correct answer: Superficial incisional SSI

The CDC classifies SSIs as superficial incisional (skin/subcutaneous), deep incisional (fascia/muscle), or organ/space (body cavity), based on the depth of involvement.

Question 43: Bone wax is used intraoperatively to control bleeding from:

Venous sinuses in the brain
Bone surfaces (medullary cavity) (Correct answer)
Arterial bleeders
Liver parenchyma

Correct answer: Bone surfaces (medullary cavity)

Bone wax is a sterile mixture of beeswax and softening agents applied by physical pressure to control bleeding from the cut surfaces of bone.

Question 44: Which stapling device is used to create an anastomosis between two hollow viscera (e.g., bowel segments) in a circular, end-to-end fashion?

Proximate skin stapler
Linear cutter (GIA stapler)
Circular (EEA) stapler (Correct answer)
TA (thoracoabdominal) stapler

Correct answer: Circular (EEA) stapler

The EEA (end-to-end anastomosis) circular stapler simultaneously places two concentric rows of staples and cuts a circular core to create a lumen between two hollow structures.

Question 45: Which suture material is absorbable and derived from sheep intestinal submucosa?

Polyester (Mersilene)
Polydioxanone (PDS)
Polyglycolic acid (Dexon)
Plain catgut (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Plain catgut

Plain catgut is a natural absorbable suture derived from sheep intestinal submucosa; it is absorbed by enzymatic proteolysis in 10–14 days.

Question 46: If an ovarian tumor is cancerous, what organs need to be removed?

never until the patient is discharged from the facility
patient marks with an “X” and witness verify
upper arms, neckline and axillary region
bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

If an ovarian tumor is cancerous, a comprehensive surgical approach is often required to ensure complete removal of the malignancy and prevent its spread. This typically involves a total hysterectomy (removal of the uterus) along with a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries). These organs are anatomically linked and potential sites for metastasis.

Question 47: A Bookwalter retractor system is most commonly used for which type of surgery?

Cranial surgery
Abdominal and pelvic surgery (Correct answer)
Thoracic surgery
Orthopedic extremity surgery

Correct answer: Abdominal and pelvic surgery

The Bookwalter is a table-mounted, self-retaining ring retractor system designed to provide wide exposure during open abdominal and pelvic procedures.

Question 48: A Weitlaner retractor is classified as what type of retractor?

Self-retaining retractor (Correct answer)
Hand-held retractor
Malleable retractor
Ribbon retractor

Correct answer: Self-retaining retractor

The Weitlaner is a self-retaining retractor with sharp or blunt prongs that lock open to maintain tissue retraction without requiring a hand to hold it.

Question 49: Which neuromuscular blocking agent is depolarizing and has the fastest onset?

Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Atracurium
Succinylcholine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Succinylcholine

Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker in clinical use, with the fastest onset (60 seconds) and shortest duration, ideal for rapid sequence intubation.

Question 50: During an abdominal case, the scrub tech and circulator discover a discrepant sponge count at wound closure. What is the FIRST action to take?

Recount all sponges before notifying anyone
Ask the surgeon to close and recount afterward
Document the discrepancy and notify the charge nurse
Immediately notify the surgeon before closure proceeds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately notify the surgeon before closure proceeds

The surgeon must be notified immediately before closure proceeds. The surgeon then initiates a methodical search of the wound and room. Closing with an unresolved count discrepancy violates patient safety standards and risks leaving a retained surgical item.

Question 51: The purpose of a chemical indicator (Class 1 process indicator) placed on the outside of a sterilization pack is to:

Confirm that sterilization conditions were met inside the pack
Measure steam penetration to the pack center
Replace biological indicator monitoring
Show that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Show that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process

Class 1 indicators (e.g., autoclave tape) only confirm exposure to the sterilization process, not that sterilization conditions were achieved.

Question 52: Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression and is at risk during parotidectomy?

Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal)
Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)
Cranial nerve VII (facial) (Correct answer)
Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

Correct answer: Cranial nerve VII (facial)

The facial nerve (CN VII) courses through the parotid gland and controls facial expression muscles; its branches are identified and preserved during parotidectomy.

Question 53: The Penrose drain is correctly described as a:

Closed suction drain
Rigid chest drain
Passive soft rubber tube drain (Correct answer)
T-tube biliary drain

Correct answer: Passive soft rubber tube drain

A Penrose drain is a passive, soft latex rubber flat tube that drains wound secretions by capillary action and gravity without suction.

Question 54: What is the name of the urinary catheter used on patients with urethral strictures that has a narrow, curved, tapered tip?

acute
coude (Correct answer)
laser
55-60

Correct answer: coude

A coudé catheter is a type of urinary catheter distinguished by its curved, tapered tip. This specific design makes it particularly useful for navigating past obstructions in the urethra, such as an enlarged prostate or urethral strictures. The curved tip helps the catheter slide more smoothly through constricted areas, reducing trauma and facilitating successful catheterization.

Question 55: Which irrigation solution, if absorbed in large quantities during TURP procedures, can cause hyponatremia and TUR syndrome?

Sterile water
Lactated Ringer's
Glycine 1.5% (Correct answer)
Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)

Correct answer: Glycine 1.5%

Glycine 1.5% is a non-electrolyte hypotonic irrigant used in TURP; absorption of large volumes can cause dilutional hyponatremia and TUR syndrome.

Question 56: Which agent is used as a topical hemostatic on the sterile field and is derived from bovine thrombin combined with gelatin?

Surgicel (oxidized cellulose)
Gelfoam with thrombin (Correct answer)
Silver nitrate sticks
Bone wax

Correct answer: Gelfoam with thrombin

Gelfoam (absorbable gelatin sponge) saturated with thrombin creates an effective topical hemostatic agent that promotes clot formation when applied to bleeding surfaces.

Question 57: Which of the following wants is being met by the patient when he or she has faith in the surgical team's skills, according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

parasitism
pterygium
trauma
safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: safety

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the 'safety' need encompasses personal security, health, and protection from harm. When a patient expresses faith in the surgical team's skills, they are seeking assurance that their physical well-being will be protected and that the procedure will be performed competently. This directly addresses their fundamental need for safety and security during a vulnerable time.

Question 58: What is the term for cardiac compression brought on by an excess of fluid or blood?

daily
tamponade (Correct answer)
fistula
flat

Correct answer: tamponade

Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening condition where an excessive accumulation of fluid or blood in the pericardial sac (the sac surrounding the heart) compresses the heart. This compression prevents the heart's chambers from filling properly, severely impairing its ability to pump blood. It leads to a rapid and dangerous drop in cardiac output.

Question 59: Where can you find a Baker's cyst?

surgically clean
webbed fingers
10 minutes
popliteal fossa (Correct answer)

Correct answer: popliteal fossa

A Baker's cyst, also medically known as a popliteal cyst, is a fluid-filled sac that forms behind the knee. It typically arises from an accumulation of synovial fluid that has been pushed out of the knee joint due to underlying knee problems like arthritis or cartilage tears. The popliteal fossa is the anatomical space located at the back of the knee, which is the characteristic location for this type of cyst.

Question 60: Which disinfection level is required for semi-critical surgical instruments that contact intact mucous membranes?

Intermediate-level disinfection
Low-level disinfection
Sterilization
High-level disinfection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High-level disinfection

Semi-critical items require high-level disinfection because they contact mucous membranes and need elimination of all microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores.

Question 61: Which patient positioning complication is most associated with the lithotomy position?

Brachial plexus injury
Compartment syndrome of the lower legs (Correct answer)
Pressure injury to the sacrum
Radial nerve palsy

Correct answer: Compartment syndrome of the lower legs

Prolonged lithotomy position with legs elevated in stirrups can cause compartment syndrome in the lower legs due to decreased arterial perfusion and venous pooling.

Question 62: The Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain operates on which principle?

Positive pressure irrigation and drainage
Osmotic drainage
Negative pressure (closed suction) drainage (Correct answer)
Passive gravity drainage

Correct answer: Negative pressure (closed suction) drainage

The Jackson-Pratt drain uses a collapsible bulb reservoir that creates gentle negative pressure (closed suction) to continuously drain wound secretions.

Question 63: Which structure must be ligated and divided during appendectomy to remove the appendix?

Ileo-appendiceal fold
Ileocecal valve
Mesoappendix (containing the appendiceal artery) (Correct answer)
Cecal wall mucosa

Correct answer: Mesoappendix (containing the appendiceal artery)

The mesoappendix contains the appendiceal artery (a branch of the ileocolic artery) and must be ligated and divided to devascularize the appendix before its removal.

Question 64: Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization is preferred for which category of items?

Items potentially contaminated with prion disease
Heat- and moisture-sensitive items such as flexible endoscopes and plastics (Correct answer)
Instruments that must be available for immediate use
Stainless steel surgical instruments

Correct answer: Heat- and moisture-sensitive items such as flexible endoscopes and plastics

EO is a low-temperature sterilization method suitable for items that cannot tolerate the heat and moisture of steam sterilization, such as flexible endoscopes, cameras, plastic components, and rubber items. A major drawback is the prolonged aeration time required (hours to days) before items are safe to use.

Question 65: When setting up a pneumatic tourniquet for an extremity procedure, the cuff should be placed:

At the mid-shaft level regardless of anatomy
Distally, just above the joint
Directly over a bony prominence to prevent slipping
At the widest circumference of the extremity, proximal to the operative site (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At the widest circumference of the extremity, proximal to the operative site

The cuff is placed at the widest part of the limb proximal to the surgical site to evenly distribute pressure and protect neurovascular structures.

Question 66: Choose the oblique incision from the list below.

incus
vomer
daily (Correct answer)
cecum

Correct answer: daily

An oblique incision is a surgical cut made at an angle, rather than vertically or horizontally, often following the natural lines of muscle fibers or skin creases. While 'daily' is not a standard, widely recognized name for an oblique incision in surgical literature, in the context of this question, it is presented as the correct option for an oblique incision. Common oblique incisions include the McBurney or Kocher incisions.

Question 67: What kind of operation would require tooth removal?

extractions (Correct answer)
systolic
insulin
bacillus

Correct answer: extractions

Tooth removal is medically referred to as an extraction. This surgical procedure is performed by dentists or oral surgeons to remove a tooth from its socket in the bone. Extractions are often necessary due to severe decay, damage, impaction, or for orthodontic reasons.

Question 68: Protamine sulfate is administered intraoperatively to:

Promote clotting at the surgical site
Reverse neuromuscular blockade
Reverse the effects of heparin (Correct answer)
Treat anaphylaxis

Correct answer: Reverse the effects of heparin

Protamine sulfate is the specific reversal agent for heparin anticoagulation, forming an inactive complex with heparin molecules.

Question 69: Which intraoperative complication is signaled by a sudden increase in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) and cardiovascular collapse during laparoscopy?

Anaphylaxis
Tension pneumothorax
CO2 gas embolism (Correct answer)
Malignant hyperthermia

Correct answer: CO2 gas embolism

CO2 gas embolism occurs when insufflation gas enters an open vessel; it causes rapid cardiovascular collapse and a characteristic rise followed by sudden fall in ETCO2.

Question 70: How are rickettsial diseases passed on?

arthropod bites (Correct answer)
cancer procedures
lukewarm water
kidney pedicle

Correct answer: arthropod bites

Rickettsial diseases are a group of infections caused by Rickettsia bacteria, which are obligate intracellular parasites. These diseases are primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected arthropods, such as ticks, fleas, lice, and mites. These arthropods act as vectors, carrying the bacteria from one host to another.

Question 71: What pathology in neurosurgery would a myelogram identify?

cottingham punch
10 minutes
spinal stenosis (Correct answer)
cancer procedures

Correct answer: spinal stenosis

A myelogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure that involves injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal, followed by X-rays or CT scans. This dye highlights the spinal cord, nerve roots, and surrounding structures. It is particularly valuable in neurosurgery for identifying conditions like spinal stenosis, which is the narrowing of the spinal canal that can compress the spinal cord or nerve roots.

Question 72: The principle that sterile persons must only pass other sterile persons face-to-face or back-to-back is based on which concept?

Minimizing OR turbulence
Traffic flow control
Sterile-to-sterile contact prevention
Back of the gown is non-sterile (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Back of the gown is non-sterile

The back of a sterile gown is considered non-sterile, so sterile persons pass back-to-back to avoid the non-sterile back contacting the sterile front.

Question 73: Which local anesthetic agent is an AMIDE and is most commonly used for spinal anesthesia?

Chloroprocaine
Procaine
Bupivacaine (Correct answer)
Cocaine

Correct answer: Bupivacaine

Bupivacaine (Marcaine) is an amide local anesthetic widely used for spinal anesthesia due to its long duration of action.

Question 74: What is the correct action when a circulator passes a non-sterile item over the sterile field?

Accept the item if it was done quickly
Continue if the item did not touch the field
Consider the entire sterile field contaminated (Correct answer)
Discard only the item that was passed over

Correct answer: Consider the entire sterile field contaminated

Any non-sterile item passing over the sterile field contaminates it because particles may fall from above onto the field.

Question 75: The portal triad (portal tract) of the liver contains which three structures?

Hepatic vein, hepatic artery, bile duct
Portal vein, hepatic artery, lymphatic vessel
Portal vein, central vein, bile duct
Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct

Each portal tract contains a branch of the portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct — the three structures that travel together as the 'portal triad' within the liver lobule.

Question 76: What is the primary purpose of the Universal Protocol (Time-Out) immediately before surgical incision?

To ensure the correct implants are available in the room
To verify the surgical team has all necessary instruments
To confirm the anesthesia machine is properly calibrated
To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient surgery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient surgery

The Universal Protocol, developed by The Joint Commission, requires active verification of patient identity, surgical site (including laterality), and procedure immediately before incision. Its sole purpose is to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient errors — classified as 'never events.'

Question 77: What is the correct height for a scrub technologist's sterile gloved hands when not actively working?

Extended at arm's length to the sides
At shoulder height or above
At waist level or above (Correct answer)
Below the waist

Correct answer: At waist level or above

Sterile gloved hands must be kept at waist level or above because anything below the waist is considered non-sterile.

Question 78: Which biological indicator organism is used to verify steam autoclave sterilization efficacy?

Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium difficile
Geobacillus stearothermophilus (Correct answer)
Bacillus atrophaeus

Correct answer: Geobacillus stearothermophilus

Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores are the standard biological indicator for steam (moist heat) sterilization monitoring.

Question 79: Which of the following pieces of information is REQUIRED on a surgical specimen label?

Patient's known allergies and current medication list
Patient's home address and insurance carrier
Anesthesia type used and total operative time
Patient name, medical record number, specimen source/site, and surgeon's name (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient name, medical record number, specimen source/site, and surgeon's name

Specimen labels must include patient identifiers (name and MRN), the anatomic source and site of the specimen (with laterality when applicable), and the operating surgeon's name. This is the minimum required to ensure correct pathology reporting and prevent misidentification errors.

Question 80: Which artery is the primary blood supply to the stomach along its lesser curvature?

Left gastroepiploic artery
Gastroduodenal artery
Left and right gastric arteries (Correct answer)
Splenic artery

Correct answer: Left and right gastric arteries

The left and right gastric arteries run along the lesser curvature of the stomach and are the primary arterial supply to that region.

Question 81: Which factor is the MOST significant risk for developing a postoperative surgical site infection?

Female gender
Preoperative diabetes mellitus with poor glycemic control (Correct answer)
Use of absorbable sutures
Patient age over 50

Correct answer: Preoperative diabetes mellitus with poor glycemic control

Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus is one of the strongest independent risk factors for SSI due to impaired neutrophil function, decreased tissue perfusion, and delayed healing.

Question 82: What is the Kraske position's other name?

trauma
jackknife (Correct answer)
sprilli
choroid

Correct answer: jackknife

The Kraske position is a surgical patient position commonly used for procedures involving the rectum and anus. In this position, the patient lies prone with the hips flexed and the knees bent, often with the operating table broken in the middle to elevate the hips. This position is also widely known as the jackknife position due to the patient's folded appearance, which provides excellent exposure to the perineal area.

Question 83: Which hand antisepsis technique requires a minimum of how many minutes of scrubbing with a traditional surgical brush?

10 minutes
3 minutes
2 minutes
5 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Traditional counted-stroke or timed surgical scrubs typically require a minimum of 5 minutes for an effective first scrub of the day.

Question 84: The Penrose drain is categorized as which type of drain?

Sump drain
Closed-gravity drain
Passive open drain (Correct answer)
Active closed-suction drain

Correct answer: Passive open drain

The Penrose is a soft latex tube that drains passively by capillary action and gravity without any suction mechanism.

Question 85: Which retractor is most commonly used to retract the liver during upper abdominal procedures such as cholecystectomy?

Richardson retractor
Deaver retractor (Correct answer)
Weitlaner retractor
Army-Navy retractor

Correct answer: Deaver retractor

The Deaver retractor has a long, curved blade designed to retract deep abdominal organs such as the liver and is commonly used in upper abdominal procedures.

Question 86: Which anatomical directional term describes the front surface of the body?

Anterior (Correct answer)
Medial
Lateral
Posterior

Correct answer: Anterior

'Anterior' (also called ventral) refers to the front surface of the body. 'Posterior' (dorsal) = back. 'Lateral' = toward the side. 'Medial' = toward the body's midline. These directional terms are used extensively in surgical wound descriptions and anatomy.

Question 87: Which reversal agent is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression in surgical patients?

Sugammadex
Naloxone (Correct answer)
Flumazenil
Neostigmine

Correct answer: Naloxone

Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression by competing at opioid receptors.

Question 88: Which layer of the abdominal wall is opened last when entering the peritoneal cavity during a laparotomy?

Peritoneum (Correct answer)
Anterior rectus sheath
Skin
Subcutaneous fat (Camper's and Scarpa's fascia)

Correct answer: Peritoneum

The peritoneum is the innermost layer of the abdominal wall; entering it during laparotomy provides access to the peritoneal cavity.

Question 89: Which instrument is specifically designed for grasping and manipulating the appendix during appendectomy?

Allis clamp
Babcock clamp (Correct answer)
Kocher clamp
Sponge stick (ring forceps)

Correct answer: Babcock clamp

The Babcock clamp has atraumatic, curved fenestrated jaws designed to encircle and grasp tubular structures like the appendix, fallopian tube, or ureter without crushing.

Question 90: When transferring a patient from lithotomy back to supine, both legs must be lowered simultaneously. What is the primary reason for this requirement?

To avoid sudden hemodynamic instability (Correct answer)
To prevent tangling of IV tubing
To prevent pressure on the sacrum
To maintain the sterile drape

Correct answer: To avoid sudden hemodynamic instability

Lowering one leg at a time causes unequal redistribution of blood volume, which can trigger rapid hypotension and cardiovascular compromise. Simultaneous, slow bilateral lowering prevents sudden hemodynamic shifts and also avoids pelvic ligament strain.

Question 91: Which anesthetic technique provides excellent postoperative analgesia while allowing the patient to remain awake during surgery?

Intravenous sedation only
Regional nerve block (Correct answer)
General endotracheal anesthesia
Monitored anesthesia care (MAC)

Correct answer: Regional nerve block

Regional nerve blocks provide targeted anesthesia to a specific body region while the patient remains awake and also provide extended postoperative pain control.

Question 92: Which medication is the definitive treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

Propofol
Epinephrine
Calcium gluconate
Dantrolene sodium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dantrolene sodium

Dantrolene sodium is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia; it acts by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle.

Question 93: Which anatomical space is accessed during a total hip replacement (posterior approach) after splitting the gluteus maximus?

Greater sciatic foramen
Obturator foramen
Femoral triangle
Short external rotators and posterior hip capsule (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Short external rotators and posterior hip capsule

The posterior hip approach involves splitting the gluteus maximus and dividing the short external rotators (piriformis, obturator internus, gemelli) to access the posterior hip capsule.

Question 94: Which anatomical landmark defines the transition from the jejunum to the ileum in the small bowel?

Ileocecal valve
There is no distinct anatomical landmark (Correct answer)
Ligament of Treitz
Meckel's diverticulum location

Correct answer: There is no distinct anatomical landmark

There is no distinct gross anatomical landmark between the jejunum and ileum; they are distinguished by histological differences, caliber, and relative position in the peritoneal cavity.

Question 95: Which type of surgical drain is commonly placed in the bile duct after common bile duct exploration?

T-tube drain (Correct answer)
Jackson-Pratt drain
Hemovac drain
Penrose drain

Correct answer: T-tube drain

A T-tube drain is placed in the common bile duct after choledochotomy to maintain patency, allow bile drainage, and permit postoperative cholangiography.

Question 96: A wound that is left open initially and then closed several days later after infection risk decreases is classified as:

Granulation healing
Primary intention healing
Tertiary intention (delayed primary closure) (Correct answer)
Secondary intention healing

Correct answer: Tertiary intention (delayed primary closure)

Tertiary intention (delayed primary closure) involves intentionally leaving a wound open to reduce infection risk and closing it surgically 3–5 days later.

Question 97: During the preoperative assessment, the surgical technologist notes the patient is taking warfarin. What is the primary concern with this medication in the perioperative period?

Increased bleeding risk (Correct answer)
Anaphylactic reaction risk
Increased infection risk
Delayed wound healing

Correct answer: Increased bleeding risk

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, significantly increasing the risk of intraoperative and postoperative bleeding.

Question 98: Which instrument is used to measure intraocular pressure during ophthalmic procedures?

Specular microscope
Caliper
Tonometer (Correct answer)
Keratometer

Correct answer: Tonometer

A tonometer measures intraocular pressure (IOP) and is essential in ophthalmic surgery and diagnosis of glaucoma.

Question 99: Which sterilization method is considered the gold standard for heat- and moisture-tolerant surgical instruments?

Steam (autoclave) sterilization (Correct answer)
Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization
Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization
Peracetic acid immersion sterilization

Correct answer: Steam (autoclave) sterilization

Steam sterilization (autoclaving) using saturated steam under pressure is the gold standard for heat- and moisture-stable instruments. It is the most widely used, cost-effective, well-validated, and fastest method available for standard instrument sets.

Question 100: Which suture is MOST appropriate for vascular anastomosis because of its minimal tissue reactivity and strength retention?

Chromic catgut
Polyglycolic acid (Dexon)
Plain catgut
Polypropylene (Prolene) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Polypropylene (Prolene)

Polypropylene (Prolene) is a non-absorbable, monofilament suture with minimal tissue reactivity and permanent strength, ideal for cardiovascular anastomoses.

Question 101: What is the name for the bacterial motion-producing threadlike appendages?

flagella (Correct answer)
insulin
mitochondria
fistula

Correct answer: flagella

Flagella are long, whip-like, threadlike appendages found on the surface of many bacteria and some eukaryotic cells. These structures are primarily responsible for cell motility, allowing bacteria to propel themselves through liquid environments. They rotate or undulate to create a swimming motion, enabling the bacteria to move towards nutrients or away from harmful substances.

Question 102: A patient is scheduled for surgery under general anesthesia. What is the standard NPO (nothing by mouth) guideline for clear liquids prior to elective surgery?

2 hours (Correct answer)
8 hours
4 hours
6 hours

Correct answer: 2 hours

Current ASA guidelines allow clear liquids up to 2 hours before elective procedures under general anesthesia to reduce aspiration risk.

Question 103: What is the proper method for counting instruments during a surgical procedure according to AORN guidelines?

Perform initial count before surgery, then count at closure of each body cavity and final skin closure (Correct answer)
Count only instruments added to the sterile field during the case
Count only when the surgeon requests a count
Count once at the end of the procedure only

Correct answer: Perform initial count before surgery, then count at closure of each body cavity and final skin closure

AORN guidelines require instrument counts before the procedure begins, at closure of each body cavity, at final skin closure, and whenever the scrub person changes.

Question 104: Which of the following uses a binocular microscope to examine the cervix?

acute
colposcopy (Correct answer)
trauma
atherosclerosis

Correct answer: colposcopy

Colposcopy is a medical procedure that utilizes a colposcope, which is a specialized binocular microscope, to provide a magnified view of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. This allows healthcare professionals to closely examine these tissues for any abnormal cells or lesions. It is commonly performed to investigate abnormal Pap test results.

Question 105: A Weitlaner self-retaining retractor is most commonly used for:

Chest wall retraction in thoracotomy
Small superficial wound retraction (Correct answer)
Posterior spinal approach retraction
Abdominal wall retraction in laparotomies

Correct answer: Small superficial wound retraction

The Weitlaner retractor has small, rake-like blades ideal for holding open small, superficial wounds during minor surgical procedures.

Question 106: Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Pulmonic valve
Tricuspid valve
Mitral (bicuspid) valve (Correct answer)
Aortic valve

Correct answer: Mitral (bicuspid) valve

The mitral (bicuspid) valve is positioned between the left atrium and left ventricle, controlling blood flow from the pulmonary veins to the systemic circulation.

Question 107: When a surgical specimen is handed off the sterile field, what is the FIRST step the circulating nurse should take?

Send the specimen to pathology via pneumatic tube
Photograph the specimen for the operative record
Place the specimen in formalin immediately
Label the specimen container with patient information before placing the specimen inside (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Label the specimen container with patient information before placing the specimen inside

The container must be labeled with patient identifying information BEFORE the specimen is placed inside. Labeling after placement risks specimen mix-up. Required information typically includes patient name, MRN, date, surgeon, specimen source/site, and laterality when applicable.

Question 108: What situations would make a cell saver transfusion contraindicated?

ultrasonic washer
cancer procedures (Correct answer)
cottingham punch
separation anxiety

Correct answer: cancer procedures

Cell saver (autologous blood salvage) transfusions involve collecting, processing, and reinfusing a patient's own blood lost during surgery. However, this technique is generally contraindicated in cancer procedures. The primary concern is the potential risk of reinfusing cancerous cells back into the patient's bloodstream, which could theoretically lead to metastasis or recurrence of the cancer.

Question 109: What does the prefix 'brady-' mean?

Painful
Fast or rapid
Large
Slow (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Slow

'Brady-' means slow. Bradycardia = slow heart rate; bradypnea = slow respiratory rate. Its opposite is 'tachy-' (fast), as in tachycardia (rapid heart rate).

Question 110: Which physiological response is triggered by the surgical stress response, causing hyperglycemia during surgery?

Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Release of cortisol and catecholamines causing insulin resistance (Correct answer)
Decreased glucagon secretion
Increased insulin secretion from the pancreas

Correct answer: Release of cortisol and catecholamines causing insulin resistance

Surgical stress triggers cortisol and catecholamine release, which promote gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and insulin resistance, resulting in perioperative hyperglycemia.

Question 111: An incorrect sponge count at the end of a procedure should prompt the surgical team to:

Delay action until the anesthesia provider approves further exploration
Immediately inform the surgeon and perform a thorough wound exploration before closure (Correct answer)
Document the discrepancy and close the wound
Proceed with closure and perform a postoperative X-ray only

Correct answer: Immediately inform the surgeon and perform a thorough wound exploration before closure

An incorrect count is a safety emergency requiring immediate notification of the surgeon and wound exploration before closure to locate the missing item.

Question 112: What is the medical term for the situation where a bowel loop herniates into Douglas's cul-de-sac?

insulin
meningioma
enterocele (Correct answer)
epistaxis

Correct answer: enterocele

An enterocele is a type of pelvic organ prolapse where a loop of the small intestine herniates into Douglas's cul-de-sac, which is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity between the rectum and the uterus (or vagina). This causes the small bowel to push into the posterior vaginal wall. It is a common condition, particularly in women who have had multiple vaginal births or hysterectomies.

Question 113: What bacteria can survive without oxygen?

anaerobes (Correct answer)
subluxation
third
compound

Correct answer: anaerobes

Anaerobes are microorganisms, typically bacteria, that are capable of growing and thriving in environments completely devoid of oxygen. Unlike aerobes, which require oxygen for respiration, anaerobes utilize other molecules as electron acceptors for their metabolic processes. Some anaerobes are even harmed or killed by the presence of oxygen.

Question 114: Which of the following glands may have inflammation if the mumps is present?

hysterectomy
270-276
third
parotid (Correct answer)

Correct answer: parotid

Mumps is a viral infection primarily known for causing swelling and inflammation of the parotid glands. These are the largest salivary glands, located just in front of and below the ears. Their characteristic swelling is a hallmark symptom of the disease.

Question 115: Surgical sponges used inside body cavities must contain which feature to assist in detecting a retained item?

A bright blue color for visual contrast
A unique barcode for electronic tracking
A numbered label on each sponge
A radiopaque (X-ray detectable) strip (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A radiopaque (X-ray detectable) strip

All surgical sponges intended for use in body cavities must contain a radiopaque marker (typically a barium sulfate-impregnated thread) visible on X-ray. If a count discrepancy cannot be resolved by recounting, an intraoperative radiograph can locate a retained sponge.

Question 116: Which one of the following constitutes a high-level disinfection technique?

feet first, side rails up
acromioclavicular
name, date of birth, physician
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes

High-level disinfection is a process that kills all microorganisms except for a high number of bacterial spores. Soaking instruments in a 2% glutaraldehyde solution for a specified duration, such as 20 minutes, is a recognized method for achieving high-level disinfection in healthcare settings. This is crucial for reprocessing heat-sensitive medical devices.

Question 117: When using an elevator to move a patient to the or, how should the stretcher be positioned?

acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
name, date of birth, physician
repositioning penetrating towel clip
enter head first, exit feet first (Correct answer)

Correct answer: enter head first, exit feet first

When transporting a patient on a stretcher in an elevator, the safest practice is to enter the elevator head first and exit feet first. This allows the person pushing the stretcher to maintain control and observe the patient's condition throughout the transfer. It also prevents the patient's head from being bumped if the stretcher is pulled out backward.

Question 118: Which section of the small intestine is the first?

love
cerumen
fistula
duodenum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: duodenum

The small intestine is divided into three distinct sections, and the duodenum is the very first part. It receives partially digested food, known as chyme, from the stomach. The duodenum plays a critical role in digestion by mixing chyme with digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

Question 119: Which of the following item categories must be counted on every surgical case?

Only items opened after the initial count
Suture needles only
Sponges and sharps only
Sponges, sharps, and instruments (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sponges, sharps, and instruments

Standard surgical counts always include three categories: sponges (all types), sharps (needles, blades, electrosurgical tips), and instruments. All three are counted at procedure start, before body cavity closure, before wound closure, and at any shift or personnel change.

Question 120: Which suture needle point is best suited for suturing tough, dense tissue such as fascia or skin?

Keith needle
Tapered (round) needle
Cutting needle (Correct answer)
Blunt needle

Correct answer: Cutting needle

Cutting needles have a sharp, triangular cross-section that can penetrate dense tissue such as fascia, skin, and tendons where tapered needles would bend.

Question 121: The surgical technologist notices heparin and thrombin are both on the sterile back table. The greatest risk is:

Mixing the two agents in the same basin
Thrombin becoming inactive if mixed with heparin
Accidental IV injection of thrombin causing systemic coagulation (Correct answer)
Heparin contaminating the bone wax supply

Correct answer: Accidental IV injection of thrombin causing systemic coagulation

Thrombin must never be injected intravenously as it causes widespread intravascular coagulation and death; it is only for topical hemostatic use.

Question 122: Which type of anesthesia involves injection of anesthetic into the subarachnoid space?

Bier block
Spinal anesthesia (Correct answer)
Epidural anesthesia
Nerve block

Correct answer: Spinal anesthesia

Spinal anesthesia (intrathecal anesthesia) involves injection of local anesthetic directly into the subarachnoid space where cerebrospinal fluid is present.

Question 123: What is the name of the waxy secretion found in the external ear canal?

cerumen (Correct answer)
trephine
circulator
cerebellum

Correct answer: cerumen

Cerumen, commonly known as earwax, is a yellowish, waxy substance secreted in the ear canals of humans and other mammals. It is produced by ceruminous and sebaceous glands in the outer ear canal. Cerumen plays an important protective role by trapping dust, foreign particles, and microorganisms, and by lubricating the ear canal skin.

Question 124: Which abdominal muscle layer has fibers running in a transverse (horizontal) direction?

Transversus abdominis (Correct answer)
External oblique
Rectus abdominis
Internal oblique

Correct answer: Transversus abdominis

The transversus abdominis is the deepest of the three flat abdominal muscles, with horizontally oriented fibers that compress the abdominal contents.

Question 125: The scrub technologist's primary responsibility regarding medications on the sterile field is to:

Reconstitute powdered medications as needed
Select appropriate medications from the pharmacy cart
Label all medications and solutions immediately upon receiving them (Correct answer)
Calculate drug dosages for the surgeon

Correct answer: Label all medications and solutions immediately upon receiving them

All medications and solutions on the sterile field must be labeled immediately with drug name, concentration, and any other required information to prevent medication errors.

Question 126: Which low-temperature sterilization method uses vaporized hydrogen peroxide combined with plasma energy and produces only water vapor and oxygen as byproducts?

Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (Sterrad) (Correct answer)
Peracetic acid immersion (Steris)
Ethylene oxide (ETO) sterilization
Dry heat sterilization

Correct answer: Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (Sterrad)

Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization (brand name Sterrad) uses vaporized hydrogen peroxide energized into a plasma state at low temperatures. It is effective for moisture-sensitive instruments, requires no aeration period, and produces only non-toxic byproducts (water vapor and oxygen).

Question 127: Which sterilization method is preferred for heat-sensitive surgical instruments?

Steam autoclave
Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas (Correct answer)
Boiling water
Dry heat oven

Correct answer: Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas

Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is preferred for heat-sensitive items because it operates at low temperatures.

Question 128: Trendelenburg position (head-down tilt) is most commonly indicated for which type of procedure?

Thyroidectomy
Pelvic laparoscopy (Correct answer)
Shoulder arthroscopy
Craniotomy

Correct answer: Pelvic laparoscopy

Trendelenburg causes abdominal viscera to shift superiorly away from the pelvis, improving visualization of pelvic structures. It is routinely used for laparoscopic pelvic procedures such as hysterectomy, myomectomy, and tubal ligation.

Question 129: Which electrosurgical unit (ESU) mode uses a continuous waveform to provide hemostasis through tissue coagulation?

Blend mode
Bipolar mode
Coag mode (Correct answer)
Cut mode

Correct answer: Coag mode

Coag mode delivers an intermittent, high-voltage waveform that desiccates and coagulates tissue proteins to achieve hemostasis.

Question 130: Which position is most commonly used for procedures on the posterior spine and posterior thorax?

Prone (Correct answer)
Supine
Lithotomy
Reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: Prone

The prone position (patient lying face down) provides direct posterior access, making it the standard position for laminectomies, posterior spinal fusions, and posterior thoracic procedures. Chest rolls or a Wilson frame are used to support the body.

Question 131: Which of the following is a correct practice when a sterile drape has been placed on a patient?

The drape can be repositioned by the circulator only
Drapes can be lifted and repositioned before incision
The drape can be repositioned if it is shifted slightly
Once placed, the drape must not be moved (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Once placed, the drape must not be moved

Once sterile drapes are placed on a patient, they must not be moved or repositioned because doing so risks contaminating the sterile field.

Question 132: Which preoperative skin preparation method is considered most effective for reducing surgical site infection (SSI)?

Soap and water wash
Povidone-iodine scrub only
Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol (Correct answer)
Betadine paint alone

Correct answer: Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol

Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol (CHG-alcohol) is the preferred skin antiseptic for surgical site preparation due to its persistent antimicrobial activity and broad-spectrum efficacy.

Question 133: The scrub technologist's role in the final wound count is to:

Count with the circulator and verbally confirm all counts are correct before closure (Correct answer)
Verify instrument counts only; sponge count is the circulator's responsibility
Count independently and report findings to the surgeon
Document the count in the operative report

Correct answer: Count with the circulator and verbally confirm all counts are correct before closure

The scrub person and circulator count together, both visualizing each item, and verbally confirm counts are correct to the surgeon before wound closure is completed.

Question 134: The common bile duct is formed by the union of which two structures?

Cystic duct and pancreatic duct
Right and left hepatic ducts
Pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
Cystic duct and common hepatic duct (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cystic duct and common hepatic duct

The common bile duct is formed by the junction of the cystic duct (from the gallbladder) and the common hepatic duct (from the liver).

Question 135: Which wound closure material is most appropriate for a highly contaminated traumatic laceration?

Staples for rapid closure
Immediate closure with permanent suture
Delayed primary closure with wet-to-dry dressings (Correct answer)
Absorbable monofilament subcuticular suture

Correct answer: Delayed primary closure with wet-to-dry dressings

Highly contaminated wounds should not be closed primarily; delayed primary closure after adequate irrigation and debridement reduces infection risk.

Question 136: An intraoperative frozen section is ordered during a mastectomy. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this test?

To preserve the specimen for permanent pathology review
To document the specimen's gross appearance before fixation
To sterilize the specimen before sending it to pathology
To provide a rapid intraoperative pathologic diagnosis that guides the ongoing procedure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a rapid intraoperative pathologic diagnosis that guides the ongoing procedure

A frozen section allows the pathologist to examine tissue within approximately 15–20 minutes while the patient remains on the table. The surgeon uses these results to make real-time decisions — for example, whether surgical margins are clear or whether a lymph node contains malignant cells.

Question 137: When positioning a patient in the lateral position for a thoracotomy, what device is placed beneath the chest wall just below the dependent axilla?

Axillary roll (Correct answer)
Kidney rest
Donut headrest
Safety strap

Correct answer: Axillary roll

An axillary roll is placed under the chest wall just inferior to the dependent axilla (NOT inside it) to shift body weight off the arm and prevent compression of the brachial plexus and axillary vessels of the down-side arm.

Question 138: A retained surgical sponge identified postoperatively is an example of which category of surgical adverse event?

Near miss
Adverse drug event
Medical error only if symptomatic
Sentinel event (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sentinel event

A retained foreign body (gossypiboma) is classified as a sentinel event by The Joint Commission — an unexpected occurrence resulting in or risking serious patient harm.

Question 139: Which antibiotic is most commonly administered as prophylaxis within 60 minutes before surgical incision?

Cefazolin (Ancef) (Correct answer)
Gentamicin
Vancomycin
Clindamycin

Correct answer: Cefazolin (Ancef)

Cefazolin is the first-line prophylactic antibiotic for most surgical procedures due to its efficacy against common skin flora, given within 60 minutes of incision.

Question 140: The surgical technologist is performing a preoperative patient identification check. According to The Joint Commission, how many patient identifiers must be used?

One
Three
Four
Two (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two

The Joint Commission requires a minimum of two patient identifiers (such as name and date of birth) before any procedure to prevent wrong-patient errors.

Question 141: When sterile gloves are donned using the closed-glove technique, the hands must remain:

Partially outside the gown cuffs for dexterity
Exposed to allow accurate glove placement
Inside the gown cuffs throughout the gloving process (Correct answer)
Extended beyond the gown cuffs

Correct answer: Inside the gown cuffs throughout the gloving process

During closed gloving, hands remain entirely inside the gown cuffs so that the non-sterile skin never contacts the sterile outer glove surface.

Question 142: Which type of scissors are used to cut suture material rather than tissue?

Metzenbaum scissors
Iris scissors
Potts scissors
Mayo scissors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mayo scissors

Mayo scissors have heavy, straight or curved blades designed for cutting thick suture material and fascia, not delicate tissue.

Question 143: During a thyroidectomy, which structure must be identified and preserved to prevent hoarseness?

Superior laryngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve (Correct answer)
Phrenic nerve

Correct answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

The recurrent laryngeal nerve, which runs in the tracheoesophageal groove, controls the vocal cords; injury causes hoarseness or vocal cord paralysis.

Question 144: What type of surgery is used to treat a condition where the urethral meatus is located on the upper surface of the penis?

incident report
reverse trendelenburg
epispadias repair (Correct answer)
spinal stenosis

Correct answer: epispadias repair

Epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethra does not form a complete tube, and the urethral opening (meatus) is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis instead of at the tip. Epispadias repair is a surgical procedure designed to reconstruct the urethra and penis, repositioning the meatus to its correct anatomical location. This surgery aims to improve urinary function and cosmetic appearance.

Question 145: Which complication occurs when blood accumulates in the tissue planes of a surgical wound?

Seroma
Abscess
Fistula
Hematoma (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hematoma

A hematoma is a collection of blood in the wound tissue planes, often from inadequate hemostasis, that can lead to infection or dehiscence if not evacuated.

Question 146: The medical term 'laparotomy' refers to:

A surgical incision into the abdominal cavity (Correct answer)
Viewing the abdomen with a camera
Suturing of an abdominal wound
Removal of a portion of the large intestine

Correct answer: A surgical incision into the abdominal cavity

'Laparo-' refers to the abdomen/flank, and '-tomy' means incision into. Laparotomy = surgical incision into the abdominal cavity (open surgery). It is distinct from laparoscopy ('-scopy' = to view), which involves camera-assisted minimally invasive examination.

Question 147: Which surgical position places the patient flat on their back with arms extended on armboards no greater than 90 degrees?

Supine (Correct answer)
Lateral
Lithotomy
Prone

Correct answer: Supine

The supine (dorsal recumbent) position places the patient flat on the back. Arms must not be extended beyond 90 degrees to prevent brachial plexus stretch injury. It is the most common surgical position.

Question 148: During a sentinel lymph node biopsy, the surgeon uses a radioactive tracer and/or blue dye. Why must the scrub tech understand the specimen handling protocol for this procedure?

The blue dye will permanently stain instruments and must be removed before sterilization
The radioactive node must be sent fresh (without formalin) to nuclear medicine, then to pathology for frozen section (Correct answer)
The blue dye indicates the specimen requires permanent section only, not frozen section
The patient must be placed in isolation postoperatively due to radiation exposure risk

Correct answer: The radioactive node must be sent fresh (without formalin) to nuclear medicine, then to pathology for frozen section

Sentinel lymph node specimens follow a special chain of custody: the radioactive node is identified with a Geiger counter intraoperatively, then sent fresh (never in formalin) to nuclear medicine for counting and subsequently to pathology for frozen section analysis. Adding formalin would destroy the radioactive signal and prevent frozen section processing.

Question 149: According to AORN guidelines, when should the initial (first) surgical count be performed?

After the surgeon makes the initial incision
After the patient is positioned but before incision
Immediately before wound closure begins
Before the procedure begins as items are being opened onto the sterile field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Before the procedure begins as items are being opened onto the sterile field

The initial count is performed before the procedure starts, as items are opened onto the sterile field. This establishes the baseline. Subsequent counts occur before closure of a body cavity, before final wound closure, and at any personnel change.

Question 150: Which aneurysm typically forms in the iliac and renal arteries?

grounding pad
incident report
abdominal aortic (Correct answer)
escherichia coli

Correct answer: abdominal aortic

An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a localized enlargement or ballooning of the abdominal aorta, the body's largest artery. While primarily affecting the aorta, AAAs frequently extend into or involve the iliac arteries, which branch off the aorta. Although renal arteries are not directly part of the aneurysm, their proximity means they can be affected if the aneurysm is located near them.

Question 151: What is the name of the interaction between two organisms that coexist in the same space but where one benefits while the other is unaffected?

penrose
parotid
commensalism (Correct answer)
mitochondria

Correct answer: commensalism

Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits, and the other organism is neither helped nor harmed. This interaction is distinct from mutualism, where both benefit, or parasitism, where one benefits at the expense of the other. An example is barnacles on whales.

Question 152: Which phase of the surgical experience begins when the patient enters the operating room and ends when the patient is transferred to the PACU?

Postoperative phase
Perioperative phase
Preoperative phase
Intraoperative phase (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intraoperative phase

The intraoperative phase encompasses the period from the patient's arrival in the OR through the completion of surgery and transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU).

Question 153: A patient reports a latex allergy during preoperative assessment. What is the priority intervention?

Administer an antihistamine preoperatively
Notify the entire surgical team and prepare a latex-free environment (Correct answer)
Schedule the case as the last of the day
Use only sterile latex gloves

Correct answer: Notify the entire surgical team and prepare a latex-free environment

A latex allergy requires immediate notification of the entire surgical team and creation of a latex-free environment to prevent potentially life-threatening anaphylaxis.

Question 154: The harmonic scalpel (ultrasonic dissector) achieves hemostasis through which mechanism?

Laser energy vaporizing tissue
Electrical energy converting to heat via tissue resistance
Mechanical compression of vessel walls
Ultrasonic vibration causing protein denaturation and coagulation at low temperatures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ultrasonic vibration causing protein denaturation and coagulation at low temperatures

The harmonic scalpel uses ultrasonic vibration (55,000 Hz) to denature protein, coagulating vessels at temperatures much lower (50–100°C) than electrosurgery.

Question 155: An item is considered sterile if it was sterilized by steam autoclave and stored in a clean, closed cabinet for:

Until opened
30 days maximum
Indefinitely, as long as packaging is intact (Correct answer)
6 months maximum

Correct answer: Indefinitely, as long as packaging is intact

Per event-related sterility, an item sterilized by autoclave remains sterile indefinitely as long as the packaging remains intact and undamaged.

Question 156: Which instrument is used to crush and occlude the cystic duct before it is ligated and divided during an open cholecystectomy?

Kelly clamp
Mixter right-angle clamp (Correct answer)
Ochsner clamp
Rochester-Pean clamp

Correct answer: Mixter right-angle clamp

A Mixter (right-angle) clamp is passed around the cystic duct to encircle it, allowing a tie or clip to be placed before transection.

Question 157: Which dressing type is appropriate for a heavily exuding wound to prevent maceration of surrounding tissue?

Transparent film dressing
Dry gauze dressing
Alginate dressing (Correct answer)
Hydrocolloid dressing

Correct answer: Alginate dressing

Alginate dressings are highly absorbent calcium-alginate materials derived from seaweed that are ideal for heavily exuding wounds, preventing wound-bed desiccation while absorbing excess fluid.

Question 158: Which of the following preparation methods is best for a split-thickness skin graft?

chlorhexidine (Correct answer)
hypertension
anaerobes
compound

Correct answer: chlorhexidine

Chlorhexidine is a commonly used antiseptic solution for skin preparation before surgical procedures, including split-thickness skin grafts. It provides broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and has a persistent effect, making it effective in reducing the risk of surgical site infections. Its efficacy helps ensure a sterile field for the graft.

Question 159: During case setup, sterile drapes must be placed on the back table by:

Holding them at arm's length and shaking them open
Unfolding them from the center outward while keeping hands above table level (Correct answer)
Placing them folded and then unfolding once all items are added
Asking the circulator to spread them on the table

Correct answer: Unfolding them from the center outward while keeping hands above table level

Drapes are unfolded from the center outward while keeping hands above table level to prevent contamination of the sterile field from below.

Question 160: The ureter crosses which structure at the pelvic brim that surgeons must identify during pelvic dissection?

Obturator nerve
Pudendal artery
Femoral artery
Internal iliac artery bifurcation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Internal iliac artery bifurcation

The ureter crosses the bifurcation of the common iliac artery (becoming internal and external iliac arteries) at the pelvic brim — a key landmark to prevent ureteral injury.

Question 161: What surgical posture allows for the best pelvis or lower abdomen visibility?

alpha-chymotrypsin
skeletal
subdural
trendelenburg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: trendelenburg

The Trendelenburg position involves placing the patient on their back with the head lower than the feet, tilting the entire operating table. This position uses gravity to shift the abdominal organs superiorly (towards the head). This displacement provides excellent exposure and visibility of the pelvic and lower abdominal regions, making it ideal for gynecological, urological, and lower abdominal surgeries.

Question 162: What effects do antagonistic medications have?

counteract the action of another drug (Correct answer)
upper arms, neckline and axillary region
repositioning penetrating towel clip
acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

Correct answer: counteract the action of another drug

Antagonistic medications are drugs that bind to a receptor site but do not activate it, thereby blocking or counteracting the action of another drug or natural substance (an agonist) that would normally activate that receptor. Their primary effect is to oppose or neutralize the physiological or pharmacological effects of another agent. This mechanism is often used to reverse drug overdoses or manage conditions caused by excessive receptor stimulation.

Question 163: The drug category that includes midazolam (Versed) and is commonly used for preoperative anxiolysis and amnesia is:

Alpha-2 agonists
Barbiturates
Opioids
Benzodiazepines (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Benzodiazepines

Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that provides preoperative anxiolysis, sedation, and anterograde amnesia by enhancing GABA-mediated CNS inhibition.

Question 164: A patient is positioned in lithotomy for a vaginal hysterectomy. Which complication is the surgical technologist most concerned about preventing?

Pressure ulcer on the occiput
Brachial plexus injury
Compartment syndrome of the lower extremities (Correct answer)
Corneal abrasion

Correct answer: Compartment syndrome of the lower extremities

In lithotomy, legs are elevated in stirrups. Prolonged elevation can reduce blood flow to the lower extremities, leading to compartment syndrome — a potentially limb-threatening complication unique to this position. Both legs must be raised and lowered simultaneously.

Question 165: In surgical terminology, 'anastomosis' refers to:

Removal of a segment of the bowel
Infection of a surgical wound
A surgically created connection between two hollow structures (Correct answer)
Inflammation of a blood vessel

Correct answer: A surgically created connection between two hollow structures

Anastomosis is a surgically created junction between two hollow tubular structures, such as segments of bowel (after resection), blood vessels (in bypass surgery), or other organs. Restoring bowel continuity after colectomy is a common example.

Question 166: A Bookwalter retractor system is best classified as which type of retractor?

Hand-held retractor
Self-retaining retractor (Correct answer)
Vein retractor
Skin hook retractor

Correct answer: Self-retaining retractor

The Bookwalter is a self-retaining ring retractor system that attaches to the OR table and holds abdominal walls open without requiring an assistant.

Question 167: During laparoscopic surgery, the standard insufflation gas used to create the pneumoperitoneum is:

Carbon dioxide (CO2) (Correct answer)
Nitrous oxide
Oxygen
Room air

Correct answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Carbon dioxide is used for laparoscopic insufflation because it is non-flammable, rapidly absorbed, and does not support combustion from electrosurgical sparks.

Question 168: A flash (immediate use) steam sterilization cycle is appropriate for:

An instrument that was dropped and is urgently needed (Correct answer)
Routine sterilization of instrument trays
Sterilizing implantable devices as a backup
All instruments used in total joint replacement

Correct answer: An instrument that was dropped and is urgently needed

Flash sterilization is reserved for emergency situations such as when a critical instrument is dropped and immediately needed, not for routine processing.

Question 169: Which of the following actions is correct when a sterile gown becomes wet during a procedure?

Dry the gown with a sterile towel
Apply a sterile drape over the wet area
Continue the procedure if moisture is minimal
Replace the gown immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Replace the gown immediately

A wet sterile gown is considered contaminated due to strike-through contamination and must be replaced immediately.

Question 170: A patient's wound shows redness, warmth, swelling, and purulent drainage on postoperative day 4. The MOST likely diagnosis is:

Wound dehiscence
Seroma formation
Surgical site infection (Correct answer)
Normal inflammatory response

Correct answer: Surgical site infection

Classic signs of surgical site infection (SSI) include the cardinal signs of inflammation plus purulent drainage, typically appearing 4–8 days postoperatively.

Question 171: Which wound healing phase involves collagen synthesis and fibroblast proliferation beginning approximately 3 days after injury?

Hemostasis phase
Inflammatory phase
Proliferative (fibroblastic) phase (Correct answer)
Remodeling (maturation) phase

Correct answer: Proliferative (fibroblastic) phase

The proliferative phase (days 3–21) is characterized by fibroblast migration, collagen synthesis, angiogenesis, and granulation tissue formation.

Question 172: During a radical mastectomy, which nerve, if damaged, causes 'winged scapula'?

Medial pectoral nerve
Long thoracic nerve (Correct answer)
Thoracodorsal nerve
Intercostobrachial nerve

Correct answer: Long thoracic nerve

The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle; its injury causes the medial border of the scapula to protrude (winged scapula).

Question 173: During a surgical time-out, who has the authority to pause the procedure if a discrepancy or safety concern is identified?

Only the circulating nurse
Any member of the surgical team (Correct answer)
Only the anesthesia provider
Only the attending surgeon

Correct answer: Any member of the surgical team

The Universal Protocol requires a culture of safety in which any team member — scrub tech, circulator, anesthesiologist, or surgeon — has both the right and the responsibility to speak up and halt the procedure when a safety concern arises during the time-out.

Question 174: Which type of needle holder is specifically designed to prevent suture damage when working with delicate, fine suture material?

Crile-Wood needle holder
Castroviejo needle holder (Correct answer)
Hegar needle holder
Mayo-Hegar needle holder

Correct answer: Castroviejo needle holder

The Castroviejo needle holder has fine, smooth jaws designed for ophthalmic and microsurgical procedures where delicate suture material must not be damaged.

CST (Certified Surgical Technologist) Exam

The CST exam certifies surgical technologists who possess the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective patient care in the operating room.

175

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

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