CST (Certified Surgical Technologist) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which hand antisepsis technique requires a minimum of how many minutes of scrubbing with a traditional surgical brush?

2 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes (Correct answer)
10 minutes

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Traditional counted-stroke or timed surgical scrubs typically require a minimum of 5 minutes for an effective first scrub of the day.

Question 2: During open-heart surgery, the scrub notices that the surgeon's gown sleeve has brushed the unsterile anesthesia screen. What is the priority action?

Document the incident and monitor for signs of infection postoperatively
Continue the procedure since it was a brief contact
Cover the contaminated sleeve with a sterile towel and continue
Alert the surgeon to change gown sleeves or have the area recovered (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Alert the surgeon to change gown sleeves or have the area recovered

Any contact between a sterile gown and an unsterile surface requires immediate correction — the contaminated gown must be changed or the area re-covered.

Question 3: During laparoscopic surgery, the standard insufflation gas used to create the pneumoperitoneum is:

Carbon dioxide (CO2) (Correct answer)
Nitrous oxide
Oxygen
Room air

Correct answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Carbon dioxide is used for laparoscopic insufflation because it is non-flammable, rapidly absorbed, and does not support combustion from electrosurgical sparks.

Question 4: Which retractor system is most commonly used for deep pelvic exposure during a low anterior resection?

Gelpi retractor
Richardson retractor
Army-Navy retractor
Bookwalter retractor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bookwalter retractor

The Bookwalter retractor provides circumferential exposure with multiple interchangeable blades, making it ideal for deep pelvic procedures.

Question 5: Which complication is characterized by a loop of bowel protruding through an abdominal incision after surgery?

Evisceration (Correct answer)
Seroma
Dehiscence
Hematoma

Correct answer: Evisceration

Evisceration is the protrusion of abdominal viscera (bowel) through a disrupted surgical incision, a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 6: A bipolar electrosurgical forceps differs from monopolar ESU because it:

Operates at a lower frequency to prevent tissue burns
Uses alternating current instead of radio frequency
Passes current only between its two tips, limiting spread (Correct answer)
Requires a dispersive (grounding) pad placed on the patient

Correct answer: Passes current only between its two tips, limiting spread

Bipolar ESU confines current between the two forceps tips, making it safer near delicate structures such as nerves and in patients with implanted electronic devices.

Question 7: Which local anesthetic classification includes bupivacaine?

Ester
Amide (Correct answer)
Opioid
Glycoside

Correct answer: Amide

Bupivacaine is an amide-type local anesthetic, metabolized by the liver, with a longer duration of action than most esters.

Question 8: During a sentinel lymph node biopsy, the surgeon uses a radioactive tracer and/or blue dye. Why must the scrub tech understand the specimen handling protocol for this procedure?

The blue dye will permanently stain instruments and must be removed before sterilization
The blue dye indicates the specimen requires permanent section only, not frozen section
The patient must be placed in isolation postoperatively due to radiation exposure risk
The radioactive node must be sent fresh (without formalin) to nuclear medicine, then to pathology for frozen section (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The radioactive node must be sent fresh (without formalin) to nuclear medicine, then to pathology for frozen section

Sentinel lymph node specimens follow a special chain of custody: the radioactive node is identified with a Geiger counter intraoperatively, then sent fresh (never in formalin) to nuclear medicine for counting and subsequently to pathology for frozen section analysis. Adding formalin would destroy the radioactive signal and prevent frozen section processing.

Question 9: What is the Kraske position's other name?

choroid
jackknife (Correct answer)
trauma
sprilli

Correct answer: jackknife

The Kraske position is a surgical patient position commonly used for procedures involving the rectum and anus. In this position, the patient lies prone with the hips flexed and the knees bent, often with the operating table broken in the middle to elevate the hips. This position is also widely known as the jackknife position due to the patient's folded appearance, which provides excellent exposure to the perineal area.

Question 10: What is the purpose of intraoperative cholangiography during cholecystectomy?

Confirm liver function
Assess hepatic arterial flow
Measure gallbladder volume
Identify bile duct stones and ductal anatomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify bile duct stones and ductal anatomy

Intraoperative cholangiography injects contrast into the biliary system to detect common bile duct stones and delineate ductal anatomy to prevent injury.

Question 11: Which wound classification is assigned to a cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis without perforation?

Class I - Clean
Class II - Clean-contaminated
Class IV - Dirty-infected
Class III - Contaminated (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class III - Contaminated

Acute cholecystitis without perforation is classified as Class III (contaminated) because acute inflammation is present without a perforated viscus.

Question 12: Which low-temperature sterilization method uses vaporized hydrogen peroxide combined with plasma energy and produces only water vapor and oxygen as byproducts?

Ethylene oxide (ETO) sterilization
Dry heat sterilization
Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (Sterrad) (Correct answer)
Peracetic acid immersion (Steris)

Correct answer: Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (Sterrad)

Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization (brand name Sterrad) uses vaporized hydrogen peroxide energized into a plasma state at low temperatures. It is effective for moisture-sensitive instruments, requires no aeration period, and produces only non-toxic byproducts (water vapor and oxygen).

Question 13: What bacteria can survive without oxygen?

compound
anaerobes (Correct answer)
third
subluxation

Correct answer: anaerobes

Anaerobes are microorganisms, typically bacteria, that are capable of growing and thriving in environments completely devoid of oxygen. Unlike aerobes, which require oxygen for respiration, anaerobes utilize other molecules as electron acceptors for their metabolic processes. Some anaerobes are even harmed or killed by the presence of oxygen.

Question 14: Which method of sterilization is most appropriate for heat-sensitive laparoscopic camera systems?

Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization (Correct answer)
Dry heat oven sterilization
Flash sterilization at 134°C
Steam autoclave at 132°C

Correct answer: Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization

Ethylene oxide gas sterilization operates at low temperatures and is the preferred method for heat-sensitive endoscopic and electronic equipment.

Question 15: The suffix '-plasty' means:

Surgical repair or reconstruction (Correct answer)
Abnormal condition of
Surgical removal
Surgical creation of a new opening

Correct answer: Surgical repair or reconstruction

'-plasty' means surgical repair, reconstruction, or reshaping. Examples: rhinoplasty (reshaping of the nose), arthroplasty (repair/replacement of a joint), mammoplasty (reshaping of the breast). The word 'plastic' in plastic surgery derives from the same Greek root meaning to mold or form.

Question 16: Which layer of the surgical gown is considered sterile and may contact the sterile field?

Collar and neckline
Sleeves from cuff to elbow
Front from chest to table level (Correct answer)
Back panel

Correct answer: Front from chest to table level

The sterile zone of a surgical gown is the front from the chest down to the level of the sterile field, and the sleeves to the cuff.

Question 17: An incorrect sponge count at the end of a procedure should prompt the surgical team to:

Document the discrepancy and close the wound
Immediately inform the surgeon and perform a thorough wound exploration before closure (Correct answer)
Proceed with closure and perform a postoperative X-ray only
Delay action until the anesthesia provider approves further exploration

Correct answer: Immediately inform the surgeon and perform a thorough wound exploration before closure

An incorrect count is a safety emergency requiring immediate notification of the surgeon and wound exploration before closure to locate the missing item.

Question 18: What is the primary purpose of the Universal Protocol (Time-Out) immediately before surgical incision?

To ensure the correct implants are available in the room
To verify the surgical team has all necessary instruments
To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient surgery (Correct answer)
To confirm the anesthesia machine is properly calibrated

Correct answer: To prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient surgery

The Universal Protocol, developed by The Joint Commission, requires active verification of patient identity, surgical site (including laterality), and procedure immediately before incision. Its sole purpose is to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-patient errors — classified as 'never events.'

Question 19: Oxidized regenerated cellulose (Surgicel) achieves hemostasis through which mechanism?

Lowering local pH and activating the coagulation cascade (Correct answer)
Releasing calcium ions to promote platelet aggregation
Absorbing thrombin and concentrating it at the bleeding site
Providing a fibrin scaffold that mimics natural clot

Correct answer: Lowering local pH and activating the coagulation cascade

Surgicel (oxidized cellulose) lowers the local pH when moistened with blood, denaturing proteins and facilitating hemostasis through a physical and chemical mechanism.

Question 20: Which of the following glands may have inflammation if the mumps is present?

parotid (Correct answer)
third
hysterectomy
270-276

Correct answer: parotid

Mumps is a viral infection primarily known for causing swelling and inflammation of the parotid glands. These are the largest salivary glands, located just in front of and below the ears. Their characteristic swelling is a hallmark symptom of the disease.

Question 21: Which scrub technique is recognized by the AORN as the evidence-based alternative to the traditional brush-stroke method?

Glove-only technique
Betadine paint scrub
Waterless scrub with alcohol-based hand rub (Correct answer)
Three-minute hand wash

Correct answer: Waterless scrub with alcohol-based hand rub

AORN recognizes alcohol-based hand rubs as an evidence-based surgical hand antisepsis method when hands are not visibly soiled.

Question 22: The proper technique for donning a sterile gown after hand antisepsis is:

Grasp the gown at the inside neckline and step away from the table (Correct answer)
Pick up the gown at the collar and shake it open
Open the gown on the back table and step into it
Ask the circulator to unfold and hold the gown open

Correct answer: Grasp the gown at the inside neckline and step away from the table

The scrub person grasps the inside of the gown at the neckline, steps away from the table, and allows it to unfold without touching the outside sterile surface.

Question 23: An item is considered sterile if it was sterilized by steam autoclave and stored in a clean, closed cabinet for:

Indefinitely, as long as packaging is intact (Correct answer)
30 days maximum
6 months maximum
Until opened

Correct answer: Indefinitely, as long as packaging is intact

Per event-related sterility, an item sterilized by autoclave remains sterile indefinitely as long as the packaging remains intact and undamaged.

Question 24: Which condition describes the unintentional retention of a foreign object (e.g., sponge) in a surgical patient post-operatively?

Wrong-site surgery
Never event (retained surgical item) (Correct answer)
Surgical site infection
Anastomotic leak

Correct answer: Never event (retained surgical item)

Retention of a surgical item (RSI) is classified as a 'never event' — a serious, preventable patient safety incident that should never occur.

Question 25: What pathology in neurosurgery would a myelogram identify?

spinal stenosis (Correct answer)
cottingham punch
cancer procedures
10 minutes

Correct answer: spinal stenosis

A myelogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure that involves injecting a contrast dye into the spinal canal, followed by X-rays or CT scans. This dye highlights the spinal cord, nerve roots, and surrounding structures. It is particularly valuable in neurosurgery for identifying conditions like spinal stenosis, which is the narrowing of the spinal canal that can compress the spinal cord or nerve roots.

Question 26: During a laparoscopic procedure, a 10 mm port becomes contaminated. The scrub tech should:

Irrigate the port with saline and continue
Continue using the port and decontaminate at case end
Downsize to a 5 mm port to avoid disruption
Replace with a new sterile port and re-establish pneumoperitoneum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Replace with a new sterile port and re-establish pneumoperitoneum

Any contaminated instrument or device must be removed from the sterile field and replaced with a sterile equivalent to maintain aseptic technique.

Question 27: Which sterilization method is considered the gold standard for heat- and moisture-tolerant surgical instruments?

Peracetic acid immersion sterilization
Steam (autoclave) sterilization (Correct answer)
Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization
Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization

Correct answer: Steam (autoclave) sterilization

Steam sterilization (autoclaving) using saturated steam under pressure is the gold standard for heat- and moisture-stable instruments. It is the most widely used, cost-effective, well-validated, and fastest method available for standard instrument sets.

Question 28: During laparoscopic surgery, what pressure range is standard for maintaining pneumoperitoneum in adults?

30–35 mmHg
20–25 mmHg
5–8 mmHg
10–15 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10–15 mmHg

Adult pneumoperitoneum is maintained at 10–15 mmHg, which provides adequate working space while minimizing cardiopulmonary compromise.

Question 29: Which structure in the knee joint prevents anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur?

Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) (Correct answer)
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

The ACL runs from the anterior tibial plateau to the posterior femoral condyle, resisting anterior tibial translation relative to the femur.

Question 30: During a surgical time-out, who has the authority to pause the procedure if a discrepancy or safety concern is identified?

Only the anesthesia provider
Only the circulating nurse
Only the attending surgeon
Any member of the surgical team (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Any member of the surgical team

The Universal Protocol requires a culture of safety in which any team member — scrub tech, circulator, anesthesiologist, or surgeon — has both the right and the responsibility to speak up and halt the procedure when a safety concern arises during the time-out.

Question 31: A sterile field has been set up for a case scheduled in 30 minutes, but the case is now delayed 4 hours. What should the scrub do?

Have the circulator check the field every hour and document integrity
Cover the field with a sterile drape and leave it undisturbed
Keep the OR doors closed and the field can remain set for up to 8 hours
Tear down the sterile field and re-set when the case is imminent (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tear down the sterile field and re-set when the case is imminent

Sterile fields should not be left unattended for extended periods; the field should be torn down and a new one established when the case is ready to proceed.

Question 32: Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by which class of anesthetic agents?

Regional anesthetics and propofol
Volatile halogenated agents and succinylcholine (Correct answer)
Nitrous oxide and ketamine
Opioids and benzodiazepines

Correct answer: Volatile halogenated agents and succinylcholine

Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis triggered by volatile halogenated anesthetics and succinylcholine in genetically susceptible patients.

Question 33: Which type of wound closure involves approximating wound edges using metal staples?

Delayed primary closure
Secondary closure
Mechanical stapled closure (Correct answer)
Primary closure

Correct answer: Mechanical stapled closure

Mechanical stapled closure uses surgical staplers to rapidly close skin or internal tissues with metal staples.

Question 34: Which preoperative patient statement indicates a need for further education about NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines?

'I drank a full glass of orange juice two hours before my procedure.' (Correct answer)
'I stopped eating solid food at midnight last night.'
'I can take my blood pressure pill with a tiny sip of water this morning.'
'I brushed my teeth but did not swallow the water.'

Correct answer: 'I drank a full glass of orange juice two hours before my procedure.'

Current ASA NPO guidelines require clear liquids to be stopped at least 2 hours before surgery, and orange juice (a clear liquid with pulp) consumed 2 hours prior is a borderline violation that warrants clarification and possible case delay.

Question 35: When passing a scalpel to the surgeon during a procedure, the correct technique is to:

Pass it blade-down in a kidney basin (Correct answer)
Place it in the surgeon's hand blade-up to allow grip adjustment
Hand it handle-first with the blade facing away from both parties
Place it on the sterile field and let the surgeon pick it up

Correct answer: Pass it blade-down in a kidney basin

The safest method is the neutral zone or hands-free technique—placing the scalpel in a basin or designated area rather than hand-to-hand transfer to prevent sharps injury.

Question 36: During a procedure, a circulator notices condensation forming on the outside of a sterile saline bottle just retrieved from storage. What is the correct action?

Wipe the outside with a sterile towel and proceed
Use the bottle immediately before more condensation forms
Consider the contents contaminated and discard (Correct answer)
Pour slowly to avoid splashing the sterile field

Correct answer: Consider the contents contaminated and discard

Condensation (strike-through moisture) on a sterile package or container indicates potential contamination and the item must be discarded.

Question 37: Which antibiotic class is most commonly used for surgical site infection prophylaxis and is typically given within 60 minutes prior to incision?

Tetracyclines
First-generation cephalosporins (Correct answer)
Macrolides
Fluoroquinolones

Correct answer: First-generation cephalosporins

First-generation cephalosporins such as cefazolin are the standard for surgical prophylaxis due to their broad-spectrum coverage against common skin organisms and favorable safety profile.

Question 38: Which preoperative skin preparation method is considered most effective for reducing surgical site infection (SSI)?

Povidone-iodine scrub only
Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol (Correct answer)
Betadine paint alone
Soap and water wash

Correct answer: Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol

Chlorhexidine gluconate with alcohol (CHG-alcohol) is the preferred skin antiseptic for surgical site preparation due to its persistent antimicrobial activity and broad-spectrum efficacy.

Question 39: What situations would make a cell saver transfusion contraindicated?

ultrasonic washer
separation anxiety
cottingham punch
cancer procedures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: cancer procedures

Cell saver (autologous blood salvage) transfusions involve collecting, processing, and reinfusing a patient's own blood lost during surgery. However, this technique is generally contraindicated in cancer procedures. The primary concern is the potential risk of reinfusing cancerous cells back into the patient's bloodstream, which could theoretically lead to metastasis or recurrence of the cancer.

Question 40: What term describes the transfer of microorganisms from a contaminated source to a sterile area via contact?

Airborne contamination
Aerosol transmission
Vector transmission
Direct contact contamination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Direct contact contamination

Direct contact contamination occurs when a sterile item touches a non-sterile surface, person, or object.

Question 41: During an open appendectomy, which incision is most commonly used?

McBurney's incision (Correct answer)
Midline laparotomy
Kocher incision
Pfannenstiel incision

Correct answer: McBurney's incision

McBurney's incision is made at McBurney's point (1/3 the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus) and is standard for open appendectomy.

Question 42: A specimen removed during surgery must be handled by the surgical technologist in which manner?

Pass it off the field immediately after labeling (Correct answer)
Hold it on the sterile field until the end of the case
Place it in any available container
Immerse it in saline on the back table

Correct answer: Pass it off the field immediately after labeling

Specimens must be properly labeled and passed off the sterile field promptly to prevent loss, damage, or contamination.

Question 43: During a thyroidectomy, which parathyroid finding would most concern the surgical team regarding postoperative hypocalcemia?

Division of the isthmus
Ligation of the superior thyroid artery
Inadvertent removal of all four parathyroid glands (Correct answer)
Identification of the superior laryngeal nerve

Correct answer: Inadvertent removal of all four parathyroid glands

The parathyroid glands regulate calcium homeostasis; their accidental removal leads to postoperative hypocalcemia, causing tetany and potentially laryngospasm.

Question 44: Which abdominal muscle layer has fibers running in a transverse (horizontal) direction?

External oblique
Internal oblique
Transversus abdominis (Correct answer)
Rectus abdominis

Correct answer: Transversus abdominis

The transversus abdominis is the deepest of the three flat abdominal muscles, with horizontally oriented fibers that compress the abdominal contents.

Question 45: When gowning another team member, the scrub technologist should hand the gown in which manner?

Presented by the collar with the outside facing the surgeon
Held open with the inside facing the surgeon and hands protected by the gown (Correct answer)
Folded inside-out with the armholes facing the surgeon
Cuffed at the sleeves so the surgeon can easily grasp it

Correct answer: Held open with the inside facing the surgeon and hands protected by the gown

The gown is held open at the neck with the sterile outside facing out and the scrub's hands tucked inside to protect sterility.

Question 46: Which fixative is most commonly used to preserve surgical tissue specimens for routine permanent pathology?

Normal saline
Isopropyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
10% neutral buffered formalin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10% neutral buffered formalin

10% neutral buffered formalin (NBF) is the universal standard fixative for routine surgical pathology. It preserves tissue architecture and cellular morphology for histologic examination. Normal saline keeps tissue temporarily moist but does not fix it. Glutaraldehyde is reserved for electron microscopy.

Question 47: Which phase of the surgical experience begins when the patient enters the operating room and ends when the patient is transferred to the PACU?

Postoperative phase
Perioperative phase
Intraoperative phase (Correct answer)
Preoperative phase

Correct answer: Intraoperative phase

The intraoperative phase encompasses the period from the patient's arrival in the OR through the completion of surgery and transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU).

Question 48: What is the minimum sterile field margin from the edge of a draped table that is considered non-sterile?

3 inches
2 inches
1 inch (Correct answer)
4 inches

Correct answer: 1 inch

The outer 1-inch border of a draped sterile field is considered non-sterile and must not be used for sterile items.

Question 49: A patient is scheduled for elective abdominal surgery and is currently taking warfarin. What preoperative management is typically expected?

Administer vitamin K on the morning of surgery without stopping warfarin
Discontinue warfarin and bridge with low-molecular-weight heparin if indicated (Correct answer)
Switch warfarin to aspirin 24 hours before surgery
Continue warfarin at the same dose through surgery

Correct answer: Discontinue warfarin and bridge with low-molecular-weight heparin if indicated

Warfarin is typically held preoperatively and patients at high thromboembolic risk are bridged with low-molecular-weight heparin per the surgeon and anticoagulation team's protocol.

Question 50: Which cranial nerve is at greatest risk during a parotidectomy due to its course through the parotid gland?

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Facial nerve (CN VII) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Facial nerve (CN VII)

The facial nerve divides into its five branches within the parotid gland, making it the primary structure at risk during parotid surgery.

Question 51: Which neuromuscular blocking agent is depolarizing and has the fastest onset?

Succinylcholine (Correct answer)
Rocuronium
Atracurium
Vecuronium

Correct answer: Succinylcholine

Succinylcholine is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker in clinical use, with the fastest onset (60 seconds) and shortest duration, ideal for rapid sequence intubation.

Question 52: Which position is used for a patient undergoing a hemorrhoidectomy?

Lithotomy position
Supine with Trendelenburg
Prone jackknife (Kraske) position (Correct answer)
Lateral decubitus

Correct answer: Prone jackknife (Kraske) position

The prone jackknife position flexes the patient at the hips with the buttocks elevated, providing optimal exposure of the perianal region.

Question 53: The harmonic scalpel (ultrasonic dissector) achieves hemostasis through which mechanism?

Ultrasonic vibration causing protein denaturation and coagulation at low temperatures (Correct answer)
Electrical energy converting to heat via tissue resistance
Laser energy vaporizing tissue
Mechanical compression of vessel walls

Correct answer: Ultrasonic vibration causing protein denaturation and coagulation at low temperatures

The harmonic scalpel uses ultrasonic vibration (55,000 Hz) to denature protein, coagulating vessels at temperatures much lower (50–100°C) than electrosurgery.

Question 54: Postoperative wound dehiscence is most likely associated with which patient condition?

Hypothyroidism
Osteoporosis
Malnutrition and poor protein intake (Correct answer)
Hypertension

Correct answer: Malnutrition and poor protein intake

Malnutrition and inadequate protein intake impair collagen synthesis and tissue repair, significantly increasing the risk of wound dehiscence.

Question 55: Which Aldrete scoring system parameter is evaluated when determining a patient's readiness for discharge from the PACU?

Activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and oxygen saturation (Correct answer)
Pupil reaction and Glasgow Coma Scale
Temperature, pain score, and urine output only
Blood glucose and electrolyte levels

Correct answer: Activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and oxygen saturation

The Aldrete scoring system assesses five parameters—activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and oxygen saturation—to objectively determine PACU discharge readiness.

Question 56: What is the proper method for counting instruments during a surgical procedure according to AORN guidelines?

Perform initial count before surgery, then count at closure of each body cavity and final skin closure (Correct answer)
Count only instruments added to the sterile field during the case
Count only when the surgeon requests a count
Count once at the end of the procedure only

Correct answer: Perform initial count before surgery, then count at closure of each body cavity and final skin closure

AORN guidelines require instrument counts before the procedure begins, at closure of each body cavity, at final skin closure, and whenever the scrub person changes.

Question 57: Which sterilization method is preferred for heat-sensitive surgical instruments?

Steam autoclave
Boiling water
Dry heat oven
Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas

Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is preferred for heat-sensitive items because it operates at low temperatures.

Question 58: During a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy), which structure is NOT routinely resected?

Body of the pancreas (Correct answer)
Head of the pancreas
Distal common bile duct
Duodenum

Correct answer: Body of the pancreas

The standard Whipple procedure removes the pancreatic head, duodenum, distal CBD, gallbladder, and part of the stomach, preserving the pancreatic body and tail.

Question 59: Which document must be completed and signed by the patient before a surgical procedure can legally proceed?

Informed consent form (Correct answer)
Insurance authorization
Advance directive
HIPAA acknowledgment

Correct answer: Informed consent form

An informed consent form must be signed by the patient (or legal guardian) before surgery, confirming the patient understands the procedure, risks, and alternatives.

Question 60: Which of the following preparation methods is best for a split-thickness skin graft?

hypertension
anaerobes
compound
chlorhexidine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: chlorhexidine

Chlorhexidine is a commonly used antiseptic solution for skin preparation before surgical procedures, including split-thickness skin grafts. It provides broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and has a persistent effect, making it effective in reducing the risk of surgical site infections. Its efficacy helps ensure a sterile field for the graft.

Question 61: Which type of surgical drain is commonly placed in the bile duct after common bile duct exploration?

Hemovac drain
T-tube drain (Correct answer)
Penrose drain
Jackson-Pratt drain

Correct answer: T-tube drain

A T-tube drain is placed in the common bile duct after choledochotomy to maintain patency, allow bile drainage, and permit postoperative cholangiography.

Question 62: During case setup, sterile drapes must be placed on the back table by:

Asking the circulator to spread them on the table
Unfolding them from the center outward while keeping hands above table level (Correct answer)
Placing them folded and then unfolding once all items are added
Holding them at arm's length and shaking them open

Correct answer: Unfolding them from the center outward while keeping hands above table level

Drapes are unfolded from the center outward while keeping hands above table level to prevent contamination of the sterile field from below.

Question 63: Which instrument is specifically designed for grasping and manipulating the appendix during appendectomy?

Kocher clamp
Allis clamp
Babcock clamp (Correct answer)
Sponge stick (ring forceps)

Correct answer: Babcock clamp

The Babcock clamp has atraumatic, curved fenestrated jaws designed to encircle and grasp tubular structures like the appendix, fallopian tube, or ureter without crushing.

Question 64: Which of the following is an example of a fenestrated drape?

aperture (Correct answer)
mitochondria
systolic
fistula

Correct answer: aperture

A fenestrated drape is a surgical drape designed with a specific opening or 'aperture' to expose the surgical site. This allows the surgical team to isolate the operative field while maintaining sterility of the surrounding areas. The term 'aperture' directly refers to this pre-cut opening in the drape.

Question 65: Which type of scissors are used to cut suture material rather than tissue?

Mayo scissors (Correct answer)
Metzenbaum scissors
Potts scissors
Iris scissors

Correct answer: Mayo scissors

Mayo scissors have heavy, straight or curved blades designed for cutting thick suture material and fascia, not delicate tissue.

Question 66: A Class 5 chemical integrator placed inside a sterilization package changes to the correct endpoint color. What does this confirm?

The item inside is guaranteed to be sterile
All critical sterilization parameters (time, temperature, and steam) were met (Correct answer)
The package was exposed to the correct temperature only
The outside of the package was exposed to steam

Correct answer: All critical sterilization parameters (time, temperature, and steam) were met

Class 5 integrating indicators react to all critical parameters of a steam sterilization cycle: time, temperature, and the presence of saturated steam. Reaching the endpoint color confirms all three were achieved. However, they do not guarantee sterility — only a biological indicator (spore test) can verify that.

Question 67: The scrub technologist's role in the final wound count is to:

Document the count in the operative report
Count with the circulator and verbally confirm all counts are correct before closure (Correct answer)
Count independently and report findings to the surgeon
Verify instrument counts only; sponge count is the circulator's responsibility

Correct answer: Count with the circulator and verbally confirm all counts are correct before closure

The scrub person and circulator count together, both visualizing each item, and verbally confirm counts are correct to the surgeon before wound closure is completed.

Question 68: What is the primary purpose of a grooved director during surgery?

To retract tendons away from the operative site
To dilate a vessel before catheter insertion
To measure wound depth prior to closure
To guide a scalpel when incising along a structure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To guide a scalpel when incising along a structure

A grooved director is placed under a structure (such as a sinus tract or fistula) to guide and protect underlying tissue while the overlying tissue is incised.

Question 69: What is the correct height for a scrub technologist's sterile gloved hands when not actively working?

Below the waist
Extended at arm's length to the sides
At waist level or above (Correct answer)
At shoulder height or above

Correct answer: At waist level or above

Sterile gloved hands must be kept at waist level or above because anything below the waist is considered non-sterile.

Question 70: Which physiological response is triggered by the surgical stress response, causing hyperglycemia during surgery?

Release of cortisol and catecholamines causing insulin resistance (Correct answer)
Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Decreased glucagon secretion
Increased insulin secretion from the pancreas

Correct answer: Release of cortisol and catecholamines causing insulin resistance

Surgical stress triggers cortisol and catecholamine release, which promote gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and insulin resistance, resulting in perioperative hyperglycemia.

Question 71: A Harrington retractor (sweetheart retractor) is primarily used to retract which structure?

The liver during upper abdominal surgery (Correct answer)
The bladder during pelvic dissection
The lung during thoracotomy
The kidney during nephrectomy

Correct answer: The liver during upper abdominal surgery

The curved, heart-shaped blade of the Harrington retractor is designed to gently retract the liver during upper abdominal procedures such as cholecystectomy or esophageal surgery.

Question 72: The scrub technologist is responsible for which action when contrast media is placed on the sterile field for a fluoroscopic procedure?

Adjusting the fluoroscopy machine settings
Monitoring the patient for allergic reaction
Injecting the contrast under surgeon direction
Drawing up the contrast in a sterile syringe and labeling it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drawing up the contrast in a sterile syringe and labeling it

The scrub technologist draws contrast into a labeled sterile syringe for the surgeon's use; labeling is mandatory immediately upon transfer to the sterile field.

Question 73: Which patient positioning complication is most associated with the lithotomy position?

Compartment syndrome of the lower legs (Correct answer)
Pressure injury to the sacrum
Radial nerve palsy
Brachial plexus injury

Correct answer: Compartment syndrome of the lower legs

Prolonged lithotomy position with legs elevated in stirrups can cause compartment syndrome in the lower legs due to decreased arterial perfusion and venous pooling.

Question 74: When opening a peel-pack onto the sterile field, the scrub technologist should:

Reach into the pack and remove the item
Flip the item onto the sterile field from a distance
Peel back the edges and present the item without touching the sterile field (Correct answer)
Have the circulator drop the item onto the field

Correct answer: Peel back the edges and present the item without touching the sterile field

The circulator peels back the packaging edges and presents or flips the sterile item onto the field without contaminating either surface.

Question 75: The surgeon requests thrombin solution during a liver resection. How should the surgical technologist handle this medication on the sterile field?

It must only be applied topically and must never be injected intravascularly (Correct answer)
It should be warmed to 37°C before use
It can be diluted in heparin solution for better efficacy
It can be mixed with saline and injected intravenously

Correct answer: It must only be applied topically and must never be injected intravascularly

Topical thrombin must never be injected intravascularly because it can cause rapid widespread clotting, leading to potentially fatal thrombosis.

Question 76: What type of surgery is used to treat a condition where the urethral meatus is located on the upper surface of the penis?

reverse trendelenburg
incident report
epispadias repair (Correct answer)
spinal stenosis

Correct answer: epispadias repair

Epispadias is a congenital condition where the urethra does not form a complete tube, and the urethral opening (meatus) is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis instead of at the tip. Epispadias repair is a surgical procedure designed to reconstruct the urethra and penis, repositioning the meatus to its correct anatomical location. This surgery aims to improve urinary function and cosmetic appearance.

Question 77: A sterile package is found with a small, dried blood stain on the outer wrapper from a previous case. What is the appropriate action?

Consider it contaminated and do not use (Correct answer)
Use it if the inner wrap is intact
Clean the stain with alcohol and use if the seal is unbroken
Use it only for non-critical items

Correct answer: Consider it contaminated and do not use

Any stain or soil on a sterile wrapper is evidence of potential contamination and the package must not be used.

Question 78: Which suture material is classified as both absorbable and synthetic?

Catgut
Nylon
Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) (Correct answer)
Silk

Correct answer: Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) is a synthetic absorbable suture that is broken down by hydrolysis.

Question 79: Which phase of the cardiac cycle does the heart muscle receive its blood supply from the coronary arteries?

Isovolumetric contraction
Diastole (Correct answer)
Systole
Atrial systole

Correct answer: Diastole

Coronary artery filling occurs primarily during diastole when ventricular pressure drops and the coronary ostia are no longer occluded by high ventricular pressure.

Question 80: What is the name of the urinary catheter used on patients with urethral strictures that has a narrow, curved, tapered tip?

55-60
acute
laser
coude (Correct answer)

Correct answer: coude

A coudé catheter is a type of urinary catheter distinguished by its curved, tapered tip. This specific design makes it particularly useful for navigating past obstructions in the urethra, such as an enlarged prostate or urethral strictures. The curved tip helps the catheter slide more smoothly through constricted areas, reducing trauma and facilitating successful catheterization.

Question 81: Which instrument is used to measure intraocular pressure during ophthalmic procedures?

Specular microscope
Tonometer (Correct answer)
Caliper
Keratometer

Correct answer: Tonometer

A tonometer measures intraocular pressure (IOP) and is essential in ophthalmic surgery and diagnosis of glaucoma.

Question 82: Which muscle group is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and is tested by asking a patient to stand on their toes?

Extensor digitorum longus
Gastrocnemius and soleus (triceps surae) (Correct answer)
Tibialis anterior
Peroneus longus and brevis

Correct answer: Gastrocnemius and soleus (triceps surae)

The gastrocnemius and soleus together form the triceps surae and are the primary plantar flexors of the foot, inserting via the calcaneal (Achilles) tendon.

Question 83: Which of the following is a correct practice when a sterile drape has been placed on a patient?

The drape can be repositioned if it is shifted slightly
The drape can be repositioned by the circulator only
Once placed, the drape must not be moved (Correct answer)
Drapes can be lifted and repositioned before incision

Correct answer: Once placed, the drape must not be moved

Once sterile drapes are placed on a patient, they must not be moved or repositioned because doing so risks contaminating the sterile field.

Question 84: Which of the following wants is being met by the patient when he or she has faith in the surgical team's skills, according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

pterygium
safety (Correct answer)
trauma
parasitism

Correct answer: safety

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the 'safety' need encompasses personal security, health, and protection from harm. When a patient expresses faith in the surgical team's skills, they are seeking assurance that their physical well-being will be protected and that the procedure will be performed competently. This directly addresses their fundamental need for safety and security during a vulnerable time.

Question 85: Which suture technique provides the strongest abdominal fascial closure?

Figure-of-eight suture (Correct answer)
Continuous (running) closure
Subcuticular closure
Simple interrupted

Correct answer: Figure-of-eight suture

The figure-of-eight suture provides a mass closure with double-strand reinforcement at each bite, making it particularly strong for high-tension fascial closures.

Question 86: A flash (immediate use) steam sterilization cycle is appropriate for:

An instrument that was dropped and is urgently needed (Correct answer)
Routine sterilization of instrument trays
Sterilizing implantable devices as a backup
All instruments used in total joint replacement

Correct answer: An instrument that was dropped and is urgently needed

Flash sterilization is reserved for emergency situations such as when a critical instrument is dropped and immediately needed, not for routine processing.

Question 87: Which layer of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone?

Adrenal medulla
Zona glomerulosa (Correct answer)
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

Correct answer: Zona glomerulosa

The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal cortex and is the primary site of aldosterone synthesis.

Question 88: A patient's wound shows redness, warmth, swelling, and purulent drainage on postoperative day 4. The MOST likely diagnosis is:

Normal inflammatory response
Wound dehiscence
Surgical site infection (Correct answer)
Seroma formation

Correct answer: Surgical site infection

Classic signs of surgical site infection (SSI) include the cardinal signs of inflammation plus purulent drainage, typically appearing 4–8 days postoperatively.

Question 89: When positioning a patient in the Trendelenburg position, what is the primary physiological concern the surgical team must monitor?

Increased cardiac afterload
Increased intracranial pressure (Correct answer)
Peripheral nerve compression only
Decreased venous return

Correct answer: Increased intracranial pressure

Trendelenburg position (head-down tilt) causes blood to shift toward the head, increasing intracranial and intraocular pressure, which is especially dangerous for patients with head injury or glaucoma.

Question 90: What is the first step a surgical technologist should take if a sponge count discrepancy is discovered at closure?

Conduct a second count silently
Document the discrepancy and proceed
Close the wound and recount after
Immediately notify the surgeon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately notify the surgeon

The surgeon must be notified immediately of any count discrepancy so a search of the wound and field can be conducted before closure.

Question 91: A Weitlaner self-retaining retractor is most commonly used for:

Abdominal wall retraction in laparotomies
Chest wall retraction in thoracotomy
Posterior spinal approach retraction
Small superficial wound retraction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Small superficial wound retraction

The Weitlaner retractor has small, rake-like blades ideal for holding open small, superficial wounds during minor surgical procedures.

Question 92: Which surgical position places the patient flat on the table with the head lowered and feet elevated?

Lithotomy position
Reverse Trendelenburg
Trendelenburg position (Correct answer)
Fowler's position

Correct answer: Trendelenburg position

Trendelenburg position tilts the patient so the head is lower than the feet, often used to improve surgical access to pelvic organs.

Question 93: Ethylene oxide (EO) gas sterilization is preferred for which category of items?

Items potentially contaminated with prion disease
Heat- and moisture-sensitive items such as flexible endoscopes and plastics (Correct answer)
Stainless steel surgical instruments
Instruments that must be available for immediate use

Correct answer: Heat- and moisture-sensitive items such as flexible endoscopes and plastics

EO is a low-temperature sterilization method suitable for items that cannot tolerate the heat and moisture of steam sterilization, such as flexible endoscopes, cameras, plastic components, and rubber items. A major drawback is the prolonged aeration time required (hours to days) before items are safe to use.

Question 94: A patient reports a latex allergy during preoperative assessment. What is the priority intervention?

Notify the entire surgical team and prepare a latex-free environment (Correct answer)
Schedule the case as the last of the day
Use only sterile latex gloves
Administer an antihistamine preoperatively

Correct answer: Notify the entire surgical team and prepare a latex-free environment

A latex allergy requires immediate notification of the entire surgical team and creation of a latex-free environment to prevent potentially life-threatening anaphylaxis.

Question 95: A surgical technologist preparing a back table should arrange instruments in which manner?

Randomly based on personal preference
By size from largest to smallest only
Grouped by manufacturer
In a systematic, logical order based on sequence of use (Correct answer)

Correct answer: In a systematic, logical order based on sequence of use

Instruments should be organized systematically by anticipated order of use to allow efficient, accurate passing throughout the procedure.

Question 96: During the preoperative assessment, the surgical technologist notes the patient is taking warfarin. What is the primary concern with this medication in the perioperative period?

Increased bleeding risk (Correct answer)
Increased infection risk
Anaphylactic reaction risk
Delayed wound healing

Correct answer: Increased bleeding risk

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, significantly increasing the risk of intraoperative and postoperative bleeding.

Question 97: The Penrose drain is correctly described as a:

Rigid chest drain
Closed suction drain
T-tube biliary drain
Passive soft rubber tube drain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Passive soft rubber tube drain

A Penrose drain is a passive, soft latex rubber flat tube that drains wound secretions by capillary action and gravity without suction.

Question 98: Which of the following actions is correct when a sterile gown becomes wet during a procedure?

Replace the gown immediately (Correct answer)
Dry the gown with a sterile towel
Continue the procedure if moisture is minimal
Apply a sterile drape over the wet area

Correct answer: Replace the gown immediately

A wet sterile gown is considered contaminated due to strike-through contamination and must be replaced immediately.

Question 99: The portal triad (portal tract) of the liver contains which three structures?

Portal vein, central vein, bile duct
Portal vein, hepatic artery, lymphatic vessel
Hepatic vein, hepatic artery, bile duct
Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct

Each portal tract contains a branch of the portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct — the three structures that travel together as the 'portal triad' within the liver lobule.

Question 100: What is the term for cardiac compression brought on by an excess of fluid or blood?

fistula
daily
tamponade (Correct answer)
flat

Correct answer: tamponade

Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening condition where an excessive accumulation of fluid or blood in the pericardial sac (the sac surrounding the heart) compresses the heart. This compression prevents the heart's chambers from filling properly, severely impairing its ability to pump blood. It leads to a rapid and dangerous drop in cardiac output.

Question 101: Which type of anesthesia involves injection of a local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space to produce regional blockade?

Spinal (intrathecal) anesthesia (Correct answer)
Epidural anesthesia
Bier block
Nerve block

Correct answer: Spinal (intrathecal) anesthesia

Spinal anesthesia delivers local anesthetic directly into the cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space, producing dense lower-body blockade.

Question 102: When giving towels to a surgeon to square off an incision site, where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand?

bony overgrowth of stapes
same side as surgeon (Correct answer)
bone to bone fixation
distilled water in lumen

Correct answer: same side as surgeon

When assisting the surgeon with draping, specifically when squaring off an incision site with towels, the first scrub surgical technologist should stand on the same side as the surgeon. This positioning facilitates efficient and sterile transfer of instruments and drapes, maintaining the sterile field and promoting smooth teamwork. It allows the technologist to anticipate the surgeon's needs and pass items directly.

Question 103: Which of the following best describes the principle of 'surgical conscience'?

An internal commitment to report and correct breaks in sterile technique immediately (Correct answer)
Following the surgeon's preferences for instrument arrangement
Documenting all instruments used during a procedure
Ensuring correct patient identification before surgery

Correct answer: An internal commitment to report and correct breaks in sterile technique immediately

Surgical conscience is the personal ethical commitment of each team member to acknowledge and correct any break in sterile technique, even if unobserved.

Question 104: Which solution is used to irrigate joints during arthroscopic procedures?

Betadine (povidone-iodine)
Hydrogen peroxide
Normal saline (Correct answer)
Chlorhexidine gluconate

Correct answer: Normal saline

Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is isotonic and non-toxic, making it the standard irrigation solution for arthroscopy.

Question 105: Which Spaulding classification category applies to surgical instruments that enter sterile tissue or the vascular system?

Non-critical
Semi-critical
Intermediate
Critical (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Critical

Critical items, per the Spaulding classification, contact sterile tissue or the vascular system and require sterilization before use.

Question 106: Which of the following correctly describes the OR attire rule for a scrub technologist leaving and re-entering the OR suite?

A fresh scrub suit must be donned after any exit from the OR (Correct answer)
The scrub suit can be reused if the OR is restricted access
Shoe covers must be changed; scrub suit does not need replacing
The same scrub attire may be worn if the case is still in progress

Correct answer: A fresh scrub suit must be donned after any exit from the OR

When a scrub technologist leaves the OR suite area, the scrub attire is considered contaminated and a fresh suit should be donned upon re-entry.

Question 107: Choose the oblique incision from the list below.

incus
vomer
cecum
daily (Correct answer)

Correct answer: daily

An oblique incision is a surgical cut made at an angle, rather than vertically or horizontally, often following the natural lines of muscle fibers or skin creases. While 'daily' is not a standard, widely recognized name for an oblique incision in surgical literature, in the context of this question, it is presented as the correct option for an oblique incision. Common oblique incisions include the McBurney or Kocher incisions.

Question 108: Which layer of the abdominal wall is encountered immediately deep to the external oblique muscle?

Internal oblique (Correct answer)
Transversalis fascia
Transversus abdominis
Peritoneum

Correct answer: Internal oblique

The internal oblique muscle lies directly beneath the external oblique in the abdominal wall layers.

Question 109: A surgeon requests retention sutures for closure of a high-risk abdominal wound. The purpose of retention sutures is to:

Secure the drain in place postoperatively
Provide additional support to prevent dehiscence of fascial layers (Correct answer)
Approximate skin edges without tension
Control bleeding along the incision line

Correct answer: Provide additional support to prevent dehiscence of fascial layers

Retention sutures (e.g., through-and-through sutures with bolsters) provide supplemental support to the fascial closure and reduce the risk of wound dehiscence in high-risk patients.

Question 110: A preoperative patient reports a shellfish allergy. Which intraoperative agent should be flagged for potential cross-reactivity?

Heparin sodium
Vancomycin
Protamine sulfate
Povidone-iodine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Povidone-iodine

Povidone-iodine contains iodine, and while the exact cross-reactivity with shellfish allergy is debated, it is standard practice to flag and assess risk in patients with shellfish or iodine sensitivities.

Question 111: Which surgical position places the patient flat on their back with arms extended on armboards no greater than 90 degrees?

Lithotomy
Supine (Correct answer)
Lateral
Prone

Correct answer: Supine

The supine (dorsal recumbent) position places the patient flat on the back. Arms must not be extended beyond 90 degrees to prevent brachial plexus stretch injury. It is the most common surgical position.

Question 112: A sterile team member must move past another sterile team member in a tight operative corridor. How should they pass?

One turns to face unsterile areas while the other passes behind
Either person may turn in any direction as long as distance is maintained
One passes facing the unsterile field while the other stands still
One passes with back to the other's back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: One passes with back to the other's back

Sterile team members pass each other back-to-back to keep sterile surfaces (front of gown) from contacting unsterile back surfaces.

Question 113: During an abdominal case, the scrub tech and circulator discover a discrepant sponge count at wound closure. What is the FIRST action to take?

Document the discrepancy and notify the charge nurse
Immediately notify the surgeon before closure proceeds (Correct answer)
Recount all sponges before notifying anyone
Ask the surgeon to close and recount afterward

Correct answer: Immediately notify the surgeon before closure proceeds

The surgeon must be notified immediately before closure proceeds. The surgeon then initiates a methodical search of the wound and room. Closing with an unresolved count discrepancy violates patient safety standards and risks leaving a retained surgical item.

Question 114: Which energy device uses ultrasonic vibration to simultaneously cut and coagulate tissue?

Argon beam coagulator
Monopolar electrosurgery
Bipolar electrosurgery
Harmonic scalpel (ultrasonic shears) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Harmonic scalpel (ultrasonic shears)

The harmonic scalpel converts electrical energy to mechanical ultrasonic vibration, denaturing tissue proteins to cut and seal vessels simultaneously with minimal thermal spread.

Question 115: During a cesarean section, which uterine incision is most commonly used?

Classical vertical incision
Low transverse (Pfannenstiel) incision (Correct answer)
Midline vertical incision
T-shaped incision

Correct answer: Low transverse (Pfannenstiel) incision

The low transverse uterine incision (also called Kerr incision) is preferred because it has less bleeding and heals with a stronger scar.

Question 116: When performing sharp wound debridement intraoperatively, the scrub technologist should:

Pass soiled instruments back to the sterile Mayo stand after use
Remove debrided tissue from the sterile field immediately and discard instruments used on necrotic tissue (Correct answer)
Keep all instruments within the sterile field until the procedure is complete
Irrigate the wound with saline before each pass of the instrument

Correct answer: Remove debrided tissue from the sterile field immediately and discard instruments used on necrotic tissue

Instruments contaminated with necrotic or infected tissue should be removed from the sterile field promptly to prevent cross-contamination of clean instruments.

Question 117: Which suture material is absorbable and derived from sheep intestinal submucosa?

Plain catgut (Correct answer)
Polyester (Mersilene)
Polydioxanone (PDS)
Polyglycolic acid (Dexon)

Correct answer: Plain catgut

Plain catgut is a natural absorbable suture derived from sheep intestinal submucosa; it is absorbed by enzymatic proteolysis in 10–14 days.

Question 118: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a preoperative Time Out?

To verify patient identity, surgical site, procedure, and team readiness before incision (Correct answer)
To confirm the sterile field is established and all drapes are secured
To document the count of instruments before the case begins
To allow the anesthesiologist to complete medication preparation

Correct answer: To verify patient identity, surgical site, procedure, and team readiness before incision

The Time Out is a Joint Commission-required pause performed immediately before incision to confirm correct patient, site, side, and procedure, preventing wrong-site surgery.

Question 119: A needle holder differs from a hemostat primarily because the needle holder has:

Ratcheted locking mechanism only
Crosshatched or diamond-pattern jaws to grip needles without spinning (Correct answer)
Smoother jaws with no serrations
Curved, atraumatic blades

Correct answer: Crosshatched or diamond-pattern jaws to grip needles without spinning

Needle holders have specially textured (crosshatched or tungsten carbide-inlaid) jaws to securely grip suture needles and prevent rotation during suturing.

Question 120: Biofilm formation in a chronic wound is clinically significant because biofilms:

Accelerate granulation tissue formation
Protect bacteria from antibiotics and the host immune response (Correct answer)
Are only found in wounds infected with gram-negative organisms
Indicate wound healing is progressing normally

Correct answer: Protect bacteria from antibiotics and the host immune response

Bacterial biofilms are structured communities encased in a polysaccharide matrix that renders them highly resistant to antibiotics and phagocytosis, perpetuating chronic wound states.

Question 121: Which instrument is used to create a purse-string suture around the anastomosis site during colon resection?

Dennis clamp
GIA stapler
Purse-string clamp (Correct answer)
Curved Mayo scissors

Correct answer: Purse-string clamp

A purse-string clamp has evenly spaced notches that guide placement of a continuous suture circumferentially, used to secure the bowel ends before circular stapler insertion.

Question 122: During a laparotomy, which layer of the abdominal wall is encountered immediately after the skin and subcutaneous tissue?

Muscle
Omentum
Fascia (Correct answer)
Peritoneum

Correct answer: Fascia

The fascia (such as the anterior rectus sheath) is encountered after the subcutaneous fat and before the muscle layer in an abdominal incision.

Question 123: Which section of the small intestine is the first?

love
cerumen
fistula
duodenum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: duodenum

The small intestine is divided into three distinct sections, and the duodenum is the very first part. It receives partially digested food, known as chyme, from the stomach. The duodenum plays a critical role in digestion by mixing chyme with digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

Question 124: Which anatomical space is accessed during a total hip replacement (posterior approach) after splitting the gluteus maximus?

Greater sciatic foramen
Short external rotators and posterior hip capsule (Correct answer)
Obturator foramen
Femoral triangle

Correct answer: Short external rotators and posterior hip capsule

The posterior hip approach involves splitting the gluteus maximus and dividing the short external rotators (piriformis, obturator internus, gemelli) to access the posterior hip capsule.

Question 125: Which instrument would the surgical technologist hand to the surgeon to cut sutures close to the knot?

Metzenbaum scissors
Mayo scissors
Bandage scissors
Iris scissors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Iris scissors

Iris scissors are small, sharp-tipped scissors ideal for fine, precise cutting tasks such as trimming sutures close to the knot.

Question 126: Which structure must be ligated and divided during appendectomy to remove the appendix?

Cecal wall mucosa
Ileo-appendiceal fold
Ileocecal valve
Mesoappendix (containing the appendiceal artery) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mesoappendix (containing the appendiceal artery)

The mesoappendix contains the appendiceal artery (a branch of the ileocolic artery) and must be ligated and divided to devascularize the appendix before its removal.

Question 127: Which instrument is used to retract the liver during upper abdominal procedures?

Senn retractor
Army-Navy retractor
Deaver retractor (Correct answer)
Weitlaner retractor

Correct answer: Deaver retractor

The Deaver retractor is a large, flat, curved blade designed specifically for retracting heavy organs like the liver.

Question 128: Which retractor is most commonly used to retract the liver during upper abdominal procedures such as cholecystectomy?

Richardson retractor
Army-Navy retractor
Deaver retractor (Correct answer)
Weitlaner retractor

Correct answer: Deaver retractor

The Deaver retractor has a long, curved blade designed to retract deep abdominal organs such as the liver and is commonly used in upper abdominal procedures.

Question 129: Which of the following item categories must be counted on every surgical case?

Sponges, sharps, and instruments (Correct answer)
Only items opened after the initial count
Sponges and sharps only
Suture needles only

Correct answer: Sponges, sharps, and instruments

Standard surgical counts always include three categories: sponges (all types), sharps (needles, blades, electrosurgical tips), and instruments. All three are counted at procedure start, before body cavity closure, before wound closure, and at any shift or personnel change.

Question 130: What surgical posture allows for the best pelvis or lower abdomen visibility?

skeletal
alpha-chymotrypsin
trendelenburg (Correct answer)
subdural

Correct answer: trendelenburg

The Trendelenburg position involves placing the patient on their back with the head lower than the feet, tilting the entire operating table. This position uses gravity to shift the abdominal organs superiorly (towards the head). This displacement provides excellent exposure and visibility of the pelvic and lower abdominal regions, making it ideal for gynecological, urological, and lower abdominal surgeries.

Question 131: When setting up a pneumatic tourniquet for an extremity procedure, the cuff should be placed:

Distally, just above the joint
At the widest circumference of the extremity, proximal to the operative site (Correct answer)
At the mid-shaft level regardless of anatomy
Directly over a bony prominence to prevent slipping

Correct answer: At the widest circumference of the extremity, proximal to the operative site

The cuff is placed at the widest part of the limb proximal to the surgical site to evenly distribute pressure and protect neurovascular structures.

Question 132: Where can you find a Baker's cyst?

webbed fingers
10 minutes
surgically clean
popliteal fossa (Correct answer)

Correct answer: popliteal fossa

A Baker's cyst, also medically known as a popliteal cyst, is a fluid-filled sac that forms behind the knee. It typically arises from an accumulation of synovial fluid that has been pushed out of the knee joint due to underlying knee problems like arthritis or cartilage tears. The popliteal fossa is the anatomical space located at the back of the knee, which is the characteristic location for this type of cyst.

Question 133: Which patient position is used for procedures involving the lower abdomen and pelvis, placing the patient flat with legs elevated and abducted?

Lateral decubitus position
Lithotomy position (Correct answer)
Trendelenburg position
Prone position

Correct answer: Lithotomy position

The lithotomy position places the patient supine with legs elevated, abducted, and supported in stirrups, providing optimal access to the perineum, vagina, rectum, and lower pelvis.

Question 134: What is the purpose of a fenestrated drape in the surgical field?

To cover non-sterile equipment near the field
To create a sterile barrier with an opening over the operative site (Correct answer)
To insulate the patient from heat loss
To absorb blood from the incision

Correct answer: To create a sterile barrier with an opening over the operative site

A fenestrated drape has a cut-out (fenestration) that exposes only the operative site while maintaining sterility around it.

Question 135: The Penrose drain is categorized as which type of drain?

Sump drain
Passive open drain (Correct answer)
Closed-gravity drain
Active closed-suction drain

Correct answer: Passive open drain

The Penrose is a soft latex tube that drains passively by capillary action and gravity without any suction mechanism.

Question 136: Which of the following uses a binocular microscope to examine the cervix?

acute
trauma
colposcopy (Correct answer)
atherosclerosis

Correct answer: colposcopy

Colposcopy is a medical procedure that utilizes a colposcope, which is a specialized binocular microscope, to provide a magnified view of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. This allows healthcare professionals to closely examine these tissues for any abnormal cells or lesions. It is commonly performed to investigate abnormal Pap test results.

Question 137: Which anatomical structure forms the medial border of Hesselbach's triangle?

Inguinal ligament
Femoral vein
Lateral border of rectus abdominis (Correct answer)
Inferior epigastric vessels

Correct answer: Lateral border of rectus abdominis

Hesselbach's triangle is bounded medially by the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, inferiorly by the inguinal ligament, and laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels.

Question 138: Which neuromuscular blocking agent is classified as a depolarizing agent?

Cisatracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Succinylcholine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Succinylcholine

Succinylcholine is the only clinically used depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, mimicking acetylcholine to cause sustained muscle depolarization.

Question 139: What is the minimum number of people required to perform a surgical count?

One
Two (Correct answer)
Three
Four

Correct answer: Two

Surgical counts must be performed by two qualified individuals — typically the scrub and the circulator — simultaneously.

Question 140: A biological indicator (BI) from a sterilization load returns a positive (failed) result. What is the required immediate action?

Re-sterilize the load and release the items
Notify the surgeon and proceed if instruments appear visually clean
Quarantine all items from that load and investigate the sterilizer failure (Correct answer)
Run an additional chemical indicator test before releasing items

Correct answer: Quarantine all items from that load and investigate the sterilizer failure

A positive BI means living bacterial spores survived the cycle, indicating sterilization failure. All items from that load — and potentially previous loads back to the last negative BI — must be quarantined and recalled. The sterilizer must be taken out of service and investigated.

Question 141: A Bookwalter retractor system is best classified as which type of retractor?

Self-retaining retractor (Correct answer)
Hand-held retractor
Skin hook retractor
Vein retractor

Correct answer: Self-retaining retractor

The Bookwalter is a self-retaining ring retractor system that attaches to the OR table and holds abdominal walls open without requiring an assistant.

Question 142: Which type of anesthesia involves injection of anesthetic into the subarachnoid space?

Nerve block
Spinal anesthesia (Correct answer)
Epidural anesthesia
Bier block

Correct answer: Spinal anesthesia

Spinal anesthesia (intrathecal anesthesia) involves injection of local anesthetic directly into the subarachnoid space where cerebrospinal fluid is present.

Question 143: Which complication occurs when blood accumulates in the tissue planes of a surgical wound?

Fistula
Seroma
Abscess
Hematoma (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hematoma

A hematoma is a collection of blood in the wound tissue planes, often from inadequate hemostasis, that can lead to infection or dehiscence if not evacuated.

Question 144: Which disinfection level is required for semi-critical surgical instruments that contact intact mucous membranes?

High-level disinfection (Correct answer)
Sterilization
Intermediate-level disinfection
Low-level disinfection

Correct answer: High-level disinfection

Semi-critical items require high-level disinfection because they contact mucous membranes and need elimination of all microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores.

Question 145: During a thyroidectomy, which structure must be identified and preserved to prevent hoarseness?

Recurrent laryngeal nerve (Correct answer)
Vagus nerve
Phrenic nerve
Superior laryngeal nerve

Correct answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

The recurrent laryngeal nerve, which runs in the tracheoesophageal groove, controls the vocal cords; injury causes hoarseness or vocal cord paralysis.

Question 146: During a sterile procedure, a non-scrubbed team member needs to pass an item onto the sterile field. What is the correct method?

Drop or flip the item onto the sterile field without touching it (Correct answer)
Place it on the floor near the field
Hand it directly to the scrubbed technologist's ungloved hand
Reach across the sterile field quickly

Correct answer: Drop or flip the item onto the sterile field without touching it

Non-scrubbed personnel must flip or drop sterile items onto the field without contaminating the sterile field or the item.

Question 147: What is the primary purpose of a tourniquet applied to an extremity during surgery?

Immobilize the limb
Control blood flow to create a bloodless field (Correct answer)
Prevent nerve damage
Reduce infection risk

Correct answer: Control blood flow to create a bloodless field

A tourniquet occludes blood vessels to create a bloodless surgical field, improving visualization and reducing blood loss.

Question 148: Which layer of the abdominal wall is opened last when entering the peritoneal cavity during a laparotomy?

Peritoneum (Correct answer)
Subcutaneous fat (Camper's and Scarpa's fascia)
Skin
Anterior rectus sheath

Correct answer: Peritoneum

The peritoneum is the innermost layer of the abdominal wall; entering it during laparotomy provides access to the peritoneal cavity.

Question 149: The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Incision into
Viewing or examining
Surgical removal of (Correct answer)
Surgical repair of

Correct answer: Surgical removal of

'-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision. Examples: appendectomy (removal of the appendix), cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder), mastectomy (removal of breast tissue). It is one of the most frequently used surgical suffixes.

Question 150: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis for surgical patients most commonly includes:

Aspirin only
Elevation of the operative extremity
Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and/or anticoagulants (Correct answer)
Early ambulation alone is sufficient

Correct answer: Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and/or anticoagulants

DVT prophylaxis combines mechanical measures (SCDs) and pharmacologic agents (heparin, LMWH) based on patient risk stratification.

Question 151: Immediate Use Steam Sterilization (IUSS), formerly called flash sterilization, should be used in which circumstance?

For all implantable devices to ensure the highest sterility level
Whenever standard sterilization packaging materials are unavailable
Only when an item is urgently needed and no sterile replacement is available (Correct answer)
As a routine method for all instrument sets to save time

Correct answer: Only when an item is urgently needed and no sterile replacement is available

IUSS is intended only for emergency situations where a needed item is contaminated or dropped intraoperatively and no pre-packaged sterile replacement is available. It should never be used routinely because items are transported without packaging, increasing contamination risk, and cycle monitoring is reduced.

Question 152: During a mastectomy, the scrub technologist should have which vessel loops or ties ready for the axillary dissection portion?

Silk ties for skin vessels only
Vessel loops to isolate the axillary vein (Correct answer)
3-0 Vicryl ties for lymphatics
Stapler loads for vascular control

Correct answer: Vessel loops to isolate the axillary vein

Vessel loops are placed around the axillary vein to allow safe retraction and protect it during lymph node dissection.

Question 153: During surgery on the right colon, the surgical technologist must be aware that the right ureter crosses anterior to which vessel?

Right renal artery
Right gonadal artery
Right common iliac artery (Correct answer)
Inferior mesenteric artery

Correct answer: Right common iliac artery

The right ureter crosses anterior to the right common iliac artery at the pelvic brim, making it vulnerable during right colon and pelvic surgeries.

Question 154: How many continuing education credits must a CST earn every four years to maintain certification?

90
45
30
60 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60

CSTs must complete 60 continuing education credits during each four-year certification period to remain certified.

Question 155: The purpose of a chemical indicator (Class 1 process indicator) placed on the outside of a sterilization pack is to:

Confirm that sterilization conditions were met inside the pack
Measure steam penetration to the pack center
Replace biological indicator monitoring
Show that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Show that the pack has been exposed to the sterilization process

Class 1 indicators (e.g., autoclave tape) only confirm exposure to the sterilization process, not that sterilization conditions were achieved.

Question 156: Which instrument is most appropriate for grasping the bowel during intestinal surgery without causing injury?

Babcock forceps (Correct answer)
Allis clamp
Ochsner clamp
Kocher clamp

Correct answer: Babcock forceps

Babcock forceps have an atraumatic design with fenestrated blades that gently encircle bowel without crushing the tissue.

Question 157: What is the correct sequence of steps when performing a stapled end-to-end anastomosis using a circular stapler?

Connect to stapler body, insert anvil, fire stapler, check donuts
Fire stapler, insert anvil, check donuts, connect body
Insert anvil distally, connect to stapler body proximally, approximate, fire, inspect donuts (Correct answer)
Insert anvil, fire stapler, check donuts, connect to stapler body

Correct answer: Insert anvil distally, connect to stapler body proximally, approximate, fire, inspect donuts

The anvil is placed in the distal bowel end, the stapler body is introduced proximally, both ends are approximated and fired, then the tissue donuts are inspected for completeness.

Question 158: The femoral triangle contains which three structures (from lateral to medial)?

Femoral nerve, femoral vein, femoral artery
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve
Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein (Correct answer)
Femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve

Correct answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein

The femoral triangle contains, from lateral to medial: femoral Nerve, femoral Artery, and femoral Vein (mnemonic: NAVEL — Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, Lymphatics).

Question 159: A Penrose drain is classified as which type of drain?

Passive open drain (Correct answer)
Negative pressure wound therapy
Jackson-Pratt drain
Active closed suction drain

Correct answer: Passive open drain

A Penrose drain is a passive, open drain that relies on gravity and capillary action to remove fluid rather than active suction.

Question 160: A patient experiences evisceration of abdominal contents through the wound on postoperative day 6. The IMMEDIATE nursing/surgical technologist action is to:

Cover the evisceration with sterile saline-moistened dressings and notify the surgeon (Correct answer)
Administer oral fluids and place patient in Trendelenburg position
Apply an abdominal binder tightly over the wound
Attempt to reduce the eviscerated contents manually

Correct answer: Cover the evisceration with sterile saline-moistened dressings and notify the surgeon

Sterile saline-moistened dressings protect the eviscerated organs from drying and further injury while the surgical team prepares for emergent return to the OR.

Question 161: Which aneurysm typically forms in the iliac and renal arteries?

incident report
abdominal aortic (Correct answer)
escherichia coli
grounding pad

Correct answer: abdominal aortic

An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a localized enlargement or ballooning of the abdominal aorta, the body's largest artery. While primarily affecting the aorta, AAAs frequently extend into or involve the iliac arteries, which branch off the aorta. Although renal arteries are not directly part of the aneurysm, their proximity means they can be affected if the aneurysm is located near them.

Question 162: Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Pulmonic valve
Tricuspid valve
Aortic valve
Mitral (bicuspid) valve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mitral (bicuspid) valve

The mitral (bicuspid) valve is positioned between the left atrium and left ventricle, controlling blood flow from the pulmonary veins to the systemic circulation.

Question 163: When transferring a patient from lithotomy back to supine, both legs must be lowered simultaneously. What is the primary reason for this requirement?

To avoid sudden hemodynamic instability (Correct answer)
To maintain the sterile drape
To prevent tangling of IV tubing
To prevent pressure on the sacrum

Correct answer: To avoid sudden hemodynamic instability

Lowering one leg at a time causes unequal redistribution of blood volume, which can trigger rapid hypotension and cardiovascular compromise. Simultaneous, slow bilateral lowering prevents sudden hemodynamic shifts and also avoids pelvic ligament strain.

Question 164: According to AORN guidelines, when should the initial (first) surgical count be performed?

Immediately before wound closure begins
After the patient is positioned but before incision
Before the procedure begins as items are being opened onto the sterile field (Correct answer)
After the surgeon makes the initial incision

Correct answer: Before the procedure begins as items are being opened onto the sterile field

The initial count is performed before the procedure starts, as items are opened onto the sterile field. This establishes the baseline. Subsequent counts occur before closure of a body cavity, before final wound closure, and at any personnel change.

Question 165: Surgical sponges used inside body cavities must contain which feature to assist in detecting a retained item?

A unique barcode for electronic tracking
A numbered label on each sponge
A bright blue color for visual contrast
A radiopaque (X-ray detectable) strip (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A radiopaque (X-ray detectable) strip

All surgical sponges intended for use in body cavities must contain a radiopaque marker (typically a barium sulfate-impregnated thread) visible on X-ray. If a count discrepancy cannot be resolved by recounting, an intraoperative radiograph can locate a retained sponge.

Question 166: A patient undergoing an inguinal hernia repair has an indirect hernia. Where does the hernia sac originate?

Internal inguinal ring (Correct answer)
Hesselbach's triangle
External inguinal ring
Femoral canal

Correct answer: Internal inguinal ring

Indirect inguinal hernias originate at the internal inguinal ring and pass through the inguinal canal lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

Question 167: A negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) device is applied to a wound. The purpose of the foam dressing placed in the wound is to:

Distribute negative pressure evenly across the wound bed (Correct answer)
Promote hemostasis at the wound edges
Absorb excess exudate directly
Prevent bacterial colonization

Correct answer: Distribute negative pressure evenly across the wound bed

The open-cell foam dressing in NPWT distributes negative pressure uniformly across the entire wound surface to promote granulation tissue formation.

Question 168: During abdominal surgery, the scrub technologist notices the surgeon inadvertently enters the bowel. The FIRST priority is to:

Irrigate the abdomen with antibiotic solution
Isolate the contaminated area with laparotomy sponges (Correct answer)
Apply a clamp to the bowel
Notify the circulator to open additional instruments

Correct answer: Isolate the contaminated area with laparotomy sponges

Isolating the contaminated site with laparotomy sponges prevents further spread of intestinal contents and limits peritoneal contamination.

Question 169: What is the correct action when a circulator passes a non-sterile item over the sterile field?

Consider the entire sterile field contaminated (Correct answer)
Accept the item if it was done quickly
Continue if the item did not touch the field
Discard only the item that was passed over

Correct answer: Consider the entire sterile field contaminated

Any non-sterile item passing over the sterile field contaminates it because particles may fall from above onto the field.

Question 170: During a procedure, the anesthesia provider administers neostigmine. Which drug must be co-administered to prevent bradycardia?

Atropine or glycopyrrolate (Correct answer)
Adenosine
Epinephrine
Metoprolol

Correct answer: Atropine or glycopyrrolate

Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase and can cause bradycardia via muscarinic effects; anticholinergics like atropine or glycopyrrolate are given concurrently to counteract this.

Question 171: Which lab value is most critical to review before a patient undergoes a procedure requiring general anesthesia?

Serum albumin
Hemoglobin and hematocrit (Correct answer)
Urine specific gravity
Serum calcium

Correct answer: Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Hemoglobin and hematocrit assess the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity, which directly impacts anesthetic safety and tolerance of blood loss during surgery.

Question 172: What does the term 'cutting' refer to in the context of electrosurgical units (ESU)?

A continuous low-voltage, high-frequency current that rapidly heats cells to vaporize them (Correct answer)
A high-voltage, low-frequency current that chars tissue
A bipolar current that seals small vessels
A blended current that coagulates and cuts simultaneously

Correct answer: A continuous low-voltage, high-frequency current that rapidly heats cells to vaporize them

The cutting mode uses continuous, low-voltage, high-frequency current that heats intracellular water rapidly, vaporizing cells for precise cutting.

Question 173: During a procedure, the scrub technologist suspects that a glove may have been punctured by a needle. What is the correct response?

Finish the immediate task then change gloves at the next convenient break
Ask the circulator to inspect the glove without removing it
Double-glove over the suspected puncture and continue
Notify the surgeon, remove the hand from the field, and change gloves immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the surgeon, remove the hand from the field, and change gloves immediately

A suspected glove puncture is a break in sterile technique requiring immediate glove change to restore the sterile barrier.

Question 174: When sterile gloves are donned using the closed-glove technique, the hands must remain:

Partially outside the gown cuffs for dexterity
Exposed to allow accurate glove placement
Inside the gown cuffs throughout the gloving process (Correct answer)
Extended beyond the gown cuffs

Correct answer: Inside the gown cuffs throughout the gloving process

During closed gloving, hands remain entirely inside the gown cuffs so that the non-sterile skin never contacts the sterile outer glove surface.

Question 175: The Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain operates on which principle?

Passive gravity drainage
Positive pressure irrigation and drainage
Negative pressure (closed suction) drainage (Correct answer)
Osmotic drainage

Correct answer: Negative pressure (closed suction) drainage

The Jackson-Pratt drain uses a collapsible bulb reservoir that creates gentle negative pressure (closed suction) to continuously drain wound secretions.

Question 176: A Bookwalter retractor system is most commonly used for which type of surgery?

Abdominal and pelvic surgery (Correct answer)
Thoracic surgery
Cranial surgery
Orthopedic extremity surgery

Correct answer: Abdominal and pelvic surgery

The Bookwalter is a table-mounted, self-retaining ring retractor system designed to provide wide exposure during open abdominal and pelvic procedures.

CST (Certified Surgical Technologist) Exam

The CST exam certifies surgical technologists who possess the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective patient care in the operating room.

175

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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