A patient with type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 9.2% despite metformin 1000 mg twice daily. Which is the most appropriate next step in therapy?
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A
Add a GLP-1 receptor agonist or SGLT-2 inhibitor with cardiovascular benefit if indicated
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B
Switch metformin to insulin glargine immediately
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C
Add a sulfonylurea as the sole intensification strategy
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D
Discontinue metformin due to inadequate response