Mixed Deck — All MPharm Master of Pharmacy Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real MPharm Master of Pharmacy practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All MPharm Master of Pharmacy Topics flashcards as text
Which computational method is used to predict the binding pose and affinity of a drug candidate in a protein active site?
Answer: Molecular docking
Molecular docking uses computational algorithms to predict how a small molecule positions itself within a target binding site and estimates binding affinity.
The bioequivalence of two formulations is assessed primarily by comparing:
Answer: AUC and Cmax under standardized conditions
Bioequivalence studies compare AUC (total exposure) and Cmax (peak concentration) between test and reference formulations within 80–125% confidence intervals.
A clinical pharmacist identifies a patient on lisinopril who develops a persistent dry cough. What is the recommended intervention?
Answer: Switch to an ARB such as losartan
ACE inhibitor-induced cough is a class effect due to bradykinin accumulation; switching to an ARB eliminates this side effect.
In the treatment of status epilepticus, why is lorazepam preferred over diazepam for initial IV management?
Answer: Lorazepam has longer duration of action due to less rapid CNS redistribution
Although both have similar onset, lorazepam is less lipophilic and redistributes more slowly out of the CNS, providing a longer anticonvulsant effect (12-24 hours vs 20-30 minutes).
At what frequency should a patient who has been using clozapine for a duration of seven months without experiencing any adverse effects undergo a complete blood count (CBC) test?
Answer: Every four weeks
Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication known for its risk of causing agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cell count. Due to this serious side effect, patients on clozapine require regular monitoring of their complete blood count (CBC). After an initial period of more frequent monitoring, patients who have been stable on clozapine for seven months without adverse effects typically undergo a CBC test every four weeks.
Which class of secondary metabolites includes morphine, quinine, and vincristine?
Answer: Alkaloids
Alkaloids are nitrogen-containing secondary metabolites derived from amino acids and include many pharmacologically significant compounds like morphine and quinine.
What term refers to whether a variable or methodology measures what it claims to measure?
Answer: Validity
Validity refers to the extent to which a variable or methodology accurately measures what it intends to measure. It ensures that the research tool or assessment truly captures the concept it claims to, making the findings meaningful and relevant. This is distinct from reliability, which focuses on consistency of measurement.
In the Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmic medications, which group acts as inhibitors of potassium channels?
Answer: Class III
The Vaughan-Williams classification categorizes antiarrhythmic drugs based on their primary electrophysiological effects. Class III antiarrhythmics, such as amiodarone and sotalol, primarily act by inhibiting potassium channels. This inhibition prolongs the action potential duration and the effective refractory period in cardiac cells, thereby preventing re-entrant arrhythmias.
Which atomic spectroscopy technique is most sensitive for trace metal analysis in pharmaceuticals?
Answer: Inductively coupled plasma mass spectrometry (ICP-MS)
ICP-MS offers sub-ppb detection limits for elemental impurities, making it the most sensitive technique for trace metal analysis.
What is the critical quality attribute (CQA) most important for determining the potency of a monoclonal antibody therapeutic?
Answer: Fc receptor binding and ADCC activity
For most therapeutic mAbs, Fc-mediated effector functions such as ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity) directly determine clinical potency and must be controlled during manufacturing.
Which ring system forms the core structure of the benzodiazepine class of drugs?
Answer: Benzene fused with a seven-membered diazepine ring
Benzodiazepines consist of a benzene ring fused to a 1,4-diazepine seven-membered ring, forming the core pharmacophore for GABA-A receptor modulation.
Tachyphylaxis is best described as:
Answer: Rapid decrease in response following repeated doses in a short time period
Tachyphylaxis is a rapid, short-term decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration, often due to receptor desensitization or depletion of mediators.
Which type of controlled-release mechanism relies on osmotic pressure to drive drug release at a constant rate?
Answer: Elementary osmotic pump (OROS)
The elementary osmotic pump uses a semipermeable membrane and an orifice; water enters by osmosis, creating pressure that pushes drug solution out at a controlled zero-order rate.
In a patient with chronic kidney disease, why does the dosing interval for aminoglycosides need to be extended rather than reducing individual doses?
Answer: Reduced renal clearance extends half-life; maintaining peak concentrations preserves concentration-dependent killing
Aminoglycosides are concentration-dependent antibiotics; high peak/MIC ratios drive efficacy, so maintaining peak concentrations while extending intervals accommodates reduced clearance in CKD.
A pharmacist receives a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance written 45 days ago. What is the correct action?
Answer: Refuse to fill it as Schedule II prescriptions must be filled within 30 days
Schedule II prescriptions must be filled within 30 days of the date written under federal DEA regulations.
Which of the following best describes the concept of intrinsic efficacy in pharmacodynamics?
Answer: The ability of a drug-receptor complex to produce a biological response
Intrinsic efficacy describes the capacity of the drug-receptor complex to activate the receptor and produce a functional response.
Reserpine, derived from Rauwolfia serpentina, lowers blood pressure by which mechanism?
Answer: Depletion of catecholamines from storage vesicles in adrenergic neurons
Reserpine inhibits VMAT2 (vesicular monoamine transporter), depleting norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin from nerve terminals, reducing sympathetic tone.
Explain the concept of a competitive antagonist.
Answer: A molecule that binds to the binding site for the endogenous agonist of the receptor, causing a conformational change that does not yield a biological response.
A competitive antagonist is a molecule that binds reversibly to the same active site on a receptor as the endogenous agonist. By occupying the binding site, it prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor, but it does not produce a biological response itself. This competition can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
Under the principle of 'pharmaceutical care,' which responsibility extends BEYOND the traditional dispensing role of a pharmacist?
Answer: Taking ownership of patient drug therapy outcomes
Pharmaceutical care, as defined by Hepler and Strand, requires pharmacists to accept responsibility for patient drug therapy outcomes, not merely dispense medications.
Which regulatory pathway allows manufacturers to submit a Biologics License Application (BLA) for a biosimilar in the United States?
Answer: Section 351(k) of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act
The Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act created Section 351(k) of the PHS Act, allowing an abbreviated approval pathway for biosimilar biologics referencing an approved reference product.