Maryland Integrated Science Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the mode of the following set of numbers: 5, 8, 5, 2, 7, 5, 4, 9?

2
5 (Correct answer)
7
4

Correct answer: 5

Explanation: The mode of a set of numbers is the number that appears most frequently. Given the set of numbers: 5, 8, 5, 2, 7, 5, 4, 9 The number 5 appears three times, which is more than any other number in the set.

Question 2: The chemical reaction 2 H₂O₂ → 2 H₂O + O₂ shows hydrogen peroxide changing into water and oxygen gas. How is this type of reaction best classified?

Single-replacement
Double-replacement
Synthesis
Decomposition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decomposition

A decomposition reaction occurs when a single, more complex compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances. In this case, hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) breaks down into water (H₂O) and oxygen (O₂).

Question 3: The chemical equation for the combustion of methane is: CH₄ + 2 O₂ → CO₂ + 2 H₂O. In this reaction, which of the following are the reactants?

CH₄ and CO₂
CO₂ and H₂O
O₂ and H₂O
CH₄ and O₂ (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CH₄ and O₂

In a chemical equation, the substances written on the left side of the reaction arrow (→) are the reactants, which are the starting materials. The substances on the right side are the products. Therefore, methane (CH₄) and oxygen (O₂) are the reactants.

Question 4: Which of the following scenarios is the best example of elastic potential energy being converted into kinetic energy?

A rock sitting at the top of a cliff
A candle burning and giving off light
A car accelerating on a flat road
A stretched rubber band being released to fly across a room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A stretched rubber band being released to fly across a room

Elastic potential energy is the energy stored in an object when it is stretched or compressed. A stretched rubber band has stored elastic potential energy. When it is released, this stored energy is converted into kinetic energy, the energy of motion, causing the rubber band to move.

Question 5: A strain of bacteria becomes resistant to a common antibiotic. A doctor continues to prescribe the same antibiotic to infected patients. How does this situation illustrate the process of natural selection?

The antibiotic causes new mutations in the bacteria, making them resistant.
The bacteria learn to tolerate the antibiotic and pass this tolerance to their offspring.
The non-resistant bacteria evolve into resistant bacteria within a single generation.
The antibiotic acts as a selective pressure, favoring the survival and reproduction of resistant bacteria. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The antibiotic acts as a selective pressure, favoring the survival and reproduction of resistant bacteria.

The antibiotic does not cause the resistance mutation; the variation already exists in the bacterial population. The presence of the antibiotic creates a strong selective pressure where resistant bacteria have a significant survival advantage. They survive the treatment and reproduce, passing the resistance genes to the next generation, leading to a population dominated by resistant bacteria.

Question 6: What is the next number in the sequence: 2, 5, 8, 11, ...?

15
12
14 (Correct answer)
13

Correct answer: 14

Explanation: To find the next number in the sequence, we observe that each number is increasing by 3: 2, 5, 8, 11,... So, to find the next number, we add 3 to the last number in the sequence: 11 + 3 = 14

Question 7: What is the perimeter of a rectangle with a length of 8 meters and a width of 5 meters?

13 meters
26 meters (Correct answer)
40 meters
18 meters

Correct answer: 26 meters

Explanation: The perimeter of a rectangle is calculated by adding all four sides. For this rectangle: Length = 8 meters Width = 5 meters Perimeter = 2*(Length + Width) = 2*(8 + 5) = 2*(13) = 26 meters

Question 8: A large area of rainforest is cleared and burned to make way for agriculture. Which of the following describes the most significant, direct impact of this action on the global climate?

A temporary cooling effect from the smoke and ash blocking sunlight.
A major disruption in local wind patterns, leading to fewer hurricanes.
A decrease in the Earth's capacity to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. (Correct answer)
An increase in atmospheric oxygen levels from the burning of plant matter.

Correct answer: A decrease in the Earth's capacity to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Forests, especially large rainforests, act as critical 'carbon sinks,' absorbing massive amounts of CO₂ from the atmosphere for photosynthesis. Deforestation not only releases the carbon stored in the trees back into the atmosphere but also permanently removes that area's ability to absorb CO₂, leading to a net increase in greenhouse gases.

Question 9: A soccer ball with a mass of 0.45 kg is kicked by a player. The ball accelerates at 20 m/s². What is the net force applied to the ball?

44.4 N
9 N (Correct answer)
0.0225 N
20.45 N

Correct answer: 9 N

According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the net force on an object is the product of its mass and acceleration (F=ma). To find the force, multiply the mass (0.45 kg) by the acceleration (20 m/s²), which equals 9 N.

Question 10: In multicellular organisms, cells differentiate to perform specific jobs. Which statement best explains how different cell types, like muscle cells and nerve cells, develop from a single fertilized egg?

Each cell type contains different genes.
Cells acquire different genes as they divide and migrate.
Different genes are activated or expressed in each cell type. (Correct answer)
Random mutations cause cells to develop into different types.

Correct answer: Different genes are activated or expressed in each cell type.

All somatic cells in an organism generally contain the same full set of genes (genome). Cell differentiation occurs because specific genes are 'turned on' (expressed) or 'turned off' in different cells, leading to the production of specific proteins that determine the cell's unique structure and function.

Question 11: Which type of electromagnetic radiation is used in medical imaging to view bones inside the body?

X-rays (Correct answer)
Infrared radiation
Microwaves
Ultraviolet rays

Correct answer: X-rays

X-rays have enough energy to penetrate soft tissue but are absorbed by denser bone, making them ideal for diagnostic medical imaging.

Question 12: A biomass pyramid models the amount of living organic matter at each trophic level. In a stable grassland ecosystem, which trophic level would be expected to have the greatest amount of biomass?

Producers (e.g., grasses) (Correct answer)
Secondary consumers (e.g., snakes)
Tertiary consumers (e.g., hawks)
Primary consumers (e.g., grasshoppers)

Correct answer: Producers (e.g., grasses)

Producers form the base of the biomass pyramid and have the largest amount of living organic matter. This is because only a fraction of the energy and biomass from one trophic level is transferred to the next level above it. Therefore, the total mass of producers must be greater than the primary consumers they support, and so on up the pyramid.

Question 13: Photosynthesis is the process plants use to make their own food. What is the fundamental energy conversion that occurs during photosynthesis?

Thermal energy is converted into kinetic energy.
Radiant energy is converted into chemical energy. (Correct answer)
Chemical energy is converted into radiant energy.
Kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.

Correct answer: Radiant energy is converted into chemical energy.

During photosynthesis, plants capture radiant energy (light energy) from the sun. They use this energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (a sugar), which stores the energy in its chemical bonds. This process is a direct conversion of radiant energy into stored chemical energy.

Question 14: Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?

Blue
Red (Correct answer)
Green
Violet

Correct answer: Red

Red light has the longest wavelength (approximately 620–750 nm) of all colors in the visible spectrum, meaning it also has the lowest frequency among visible colors.

Question 15: Which of the following scenarios describes an object experiencing a net unbalanced force?

A book resting motionless on a tabletop.
A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed. (Correct answer)
A helium balloon floating stationary in the middle of a room.
A car driving in a straight line at a constant 60 mph.

Correct answer: A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed.

A net unbalanced force causes acceleration, which is a change in velocity (speed or direction). A satellite orbiting Earth is constantly changing its direction, so it is continuously accelerating due to the unbalanced force of gravity, which acts as a centripetal force.

Question 16: Which human activity is the largest source of the excess carbon dioxide (CO₂) that is enhancing the greenhouse effect and causing recent climate change?

The burning of fossil fuels for electricity, heat, and transportation. (Correct answer)
The use of chemical fertilizers in large-scale agriculture.
Large-scale deforestation, particularly in tropical regions.
The disposal of organic waste in municipal landfills.

Correct answer: The burning of fossil fuels for electricity, heat, and transportation.

The combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) for energy is the single largest human-caused source of carbon dioxide emissions. This process releases vast amounts of carbon that were stored underground for millions of years, significantly increasing the concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere.

Question 17: A student wants to increase the rate of reaction between a solid lump of calcium carbonate and a hydrochloric acid solution. Which of the following actions would be LEAST effective at increasing the reaction rate?

Crushing the lump of calcium carbonate into a powder.
Gently warming the hydrochloric acid solution.
Decreasing the concentration of the hydrochloric acid solution. (Correct answer)
Stirring the mixture continuously.

Correct answer: Decreasing the concentration of the hydrochloric acid solution.

Decreasing the concentration of a reactant reduces the number of reactant particles in a given volume, which leads to fewer collisions per unit of time and therefore slows down the reaction rate. Increasing surface area (crushing), increasing temperature, and agitating the mixture all increase the reaction rate.

Question 18: Solve for x in the equation 3 (x − 2) = 15.

8
5
7 (Correct answer)
6

Correct answer: 7

Explanation: To solve the equation 3 (x − 2) = 15, follow these steps: Distribute the 3 to both terms inside the parentheses: 3 × X − 3 × 2 = 15 3x − 6 = 15 Add 6 to both sides of the equation: 3x − 6 + 6 = 15 + 6 3x = 21 Divide both sides by 3 to isolate x: 3𝑥/3 = 21/3 x = 7

Question 19: A student observes a cell under a microscope and notes the presence of a cell wall, ribosomes, and a circular loop of DNA not enclosed in a nucleus. Which of the following is the most likely classification for this cell?

A prokaryotic cell (Correct answer)
An animal cell
A plant cell
A fungal cell

Correct answer: A prokaryotic cell

The defining characteristics described—a cell wall, ribosomes, and genetic material not contained within a nucleus—are all hallmarks of a prokaryotic cell, such as a bacterium. Plant and fungal cells are eukaryotic and have a nucleus, and animal cells lack a cell wall.

Question 20: Which of the following scenarios best describes a direct interaction where the biosphere affects the hydrosphere?

Wind blows across a lake, creating waves.
A glacier melts, adding fresh water to the ocean.
Extensive growth of algae in a lake depletes oxygen levels in the water. (Correct answer)
A river carves a channel through soil and rock.

Correct answer: Extensive growth of algae in a lake depletes oxygen levels in the water.

Algae are living organisms, part of the biosphere. Their life processes (growth, death, and decomposition) directly alter the chemical composition (oxygen levels) of the lake water, which is part of the hydrosphere.

Question 21: In a hydroelectric power plant, a dam holds back a large volume of water in a reservoir. When the water is released, it flows through a turbine, which spins a generator to produce electricity. What is the correct sequence of energy transformations in this process?

Potential energy → Kinetic energy → Electrical energy (Correct answer)
Kinetic energy → Electrical energy → Potential energy
Thermal energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy
Chemical energy → Kinetic energy → Electrical energy

Correct answer: Potential energy → Kinetic energy → Electrical energy

The water held in the reservoir at a high elevation possesses gravitational potential energy. When released, this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy as the water flows downwards. The moving water spins a turbine (mechanical energy), which powers a generator that converts this motion into electrical energy.

Question 22: If a car travels at a speed of 60 miles per hour, how far will it travel in 2.5 hours?

150 miles (Correct answer)
175 miles
200 miles
120 miles

Correct answer: 150 miles

Explanation: To find the distance traveled, we multiply the speed (rate) by the time traveled. Given: Speed = 60 miles per hour Time = 2.5 hours Distance = Speed × Time Distance = 60 miles/hour × 2.5 hours Distance = 150 miles

Question 23: According to Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation, the gravitational force between two objects is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. If the distance between two planets is doubled, what happens to the gravitational force between them?

It is reduced to one-fourth of its original value. (Correct answer)
It is doubled.
It is halved.
It remains the same.

Correct answer: It is reduced to one-fourth of its original value.

The Law of Universal Gravitation follows an inverse square law. This means if the distance (r) is doubled, the new force is proportional to 1/(2r)², which equals 1/4r². Therefore, the force becomes one-fourth of its original value.

Question 24: A major volcanic eruption ejects large amounts of sulfur dioxide and ash into the stratosphere. This leads to a temporary global cooling effect because the particles reflect incoming solar radiation. This event primarily illustrates an interaction between which two Earth systems?

Hydrosphere and Biosphere
Geosphere and Atmosphere (Correct answer)
Geosphere and Hydrosphere
Atmosphere and Biosphere

Correct answer: Geosphere and Atmosphere

The volcano is part of the geosphere (solid Earth), and it releases ash and gases into the air, which is the atmosphere. This interaction directly impacts atmospheric composition and clarity, leading to climate effects.

Question 25: The world's oceans absorb a significant amount of the carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere by human activities. Which of the following is a direct chemical consequence of this absorption?

A rapid increase in dissolved oxygen levels, benefiting most fish.
A significant increase in the ocean's average temperature.
A decrease in the average salinity of the ocean's surface waters.
Increased ocean acidity, which harms marine organisms with shells. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Increased ocean acidity, which harms marine organisms with shells.

When excess carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves in seawater, it forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which lowers the ocean's pH. This process, known as ocean acidification, reduces the availability of carbonate ions that marine organisms like corals, clams, and oysters need to build their shells and skeletons.

Question 26: Which statement best explains why electromagnetic waves can travel through the vacuum of space but sound waves cannot?

Electromagnetic waves travel faster than sound, allowing them to cross empty space
Electromagnetic waves are self-propagating disturbances in electric and magnetic fields and need no medium, whereas sound waves require matter to transmit compressions (Correct answer)
Sound waves have too low a frequency to travel through a vacuum
Sound waves lose energy quickly while electromagnetic waves do not

Correct answer: Electromagnetic waves are self-propagating disturbances in electric and magnetic fields and need no medium, whereas sound waves require matter to transmit compressions

Electromagnetic waves are oscillating electric and magnetic fields that sustain each other as they travel, requiring no material medium, while sound waves are pressure disturbances that need matter (particles) to propagate.

Question 27: An observer on Earth sees a full moon. Approximately one week later, which lunar phase will the observer most likely see?

Third Quarter Moon (Correct answer)
Another Full Moon
New Moon
First Quarter Moon

Correct answer: Third Quarter Moon

The lunar cycle takes about 29.5 days to complete. The phases proceed in a specific order: New Moon, Waxing Crescent, First Quarter, Waxing Gibbous, Full Moon, Waning Gibbous, Third Quarter, and Waning Crescent. The Third Quarter (or Last Quarter) phase occurs approximately one week after the Full Moon, when the Moon has completed another quarter of its orbit and appears as a half-moon.

Question 28: If x = 7, what is the value of 2x − 3?

9
10
11 (Correct answer)
8

Correct answer: 11

Explanation: If x = 7, we can substitute this value into the expression 2x − 3 and calculate the result: 2x − 3 = 2 (7) − 3 = 14−3 = 11

Question 29: A student in Maryland observes that the days are much longer and the weather is warmer in June than in December. Which statement best explains this seasonal variation?

Earth's orbit is an ellipse, and Earth is closer to the Sun in the summer.
The Earth's rotation on its axis speeds up during the summer months, increasing daylight hours.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun in June, receiving more direct solar energy. (Correct answer)
Increased sunspot activity on the Sun's surface releases more heat in June.

Correct answer: The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun in June, receiving more direct solar energy.

Earth has seasons because its axis is tilted at approximately 23.5 degrees. When the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, it receives sunlight at a more direct angle and for a longer duration each day, resulting in summer. When it is tilted away, it receives less direct sunlight, resulting in winter. Earth is actually closest to the Sun in its orbit during the Northern Hemisphere's winter.

Question 30: According to the most widely accepted scientific theory, how did the planets in our solar system form?

They are the remaining fragments from an ancient collision between two massive stars.
They were ejected as large molten masses directly from the surface of the Sun.
They were captured by the Sun's gravity as they traveled through deep space.
They formed from the gradual accumulation of dust and gas in a rotating disk around the young Sun. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They formed from the gradual accumulation of dust and gas in a rotating disk around the young Sun.

The nebular hypothesis is the most accepted model for the formation of the solar system. It states that a giant cloud of gas and dust (a nebula) collapsed under gravity, forming a spinning protoplanetary disk. The Sun formed at the center, and the planets were created through the process of accretion, where dust and gas particles stuck together and gradually grew larger.

Question 31: A state government offers incentives for power companies to close coal-fired power plants and build wind and solar farms instead. What is the primary climate-related benefit of this shift in energy production?

It eliminates all environmental impacts associated with energy generation.
It guarantees a constant and uninterrupted supply of electricity.
Wind and solar farms take up less land area than coal mines.
It reduces the emission of greenhouse gases that cause global warming. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It reduces the emission of greenhouse gases that cause global warming.

The primary climate benefit of switching from fossil fuels like coal to renewable sources like wind and solar is the significant reduction in greenhouse gas emissions. Coal plants release large amounts of CO₂ during combustion, while wind and solar generate electricity with little to no direct emissions.

Question 32: A student drops a rubber ball from a height of one meter. The ball bounces back up, but not to its original height. According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, what best explains why the ball does not reach its starting height?

The ball did not have enough kinetic energy to begin with.
The force of gravity on the ball decreased after the bounce.
Some mechanical energy was converted into thermal and sound energy. (Correct answer)
Some of the ball's energy was destroyed during the bounce.

Correct answer: Some mechanical energy was converted into thermal and sound energy.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed. When the ball hits the floor, some of its kinetic energy is converted into other forms, primarily thermal energy (heat) due to friction and the deformation of the ball, and sound energy. This loss of mechanical energy prevents it from returning to its original height.

Question 33: Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum carries the most energy per photon?

Visible light
Infrared radiation
Radio waves
Gamma rays (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gamma rays

Gamma rays have the highest frequency and shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum, giving them the greatest energy per photon.

Question 34: An instant cold pack is activated by breaking an inner pouch, allowing two substances to mix. The pack quickly becomes very cold. This is an example of what type of process?

An exothermic reaction
A physical change
A combustion reaction
An endothermic reaction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An endothermic reaction

An endothermic reaction is a process that absorbs heat from its surroundings. This absorption of heat causes the temperature of the surroundings (the pack itself) to decrease, making it feel cold.

Question 35: Which of the following statements best describes the primary difference between how matter and energy move through an ecosystem?

Matter flows in one direction, while energy is recycled.
Matter is cycled within the ecosystem, while energy flows through it. (Correct answer)
Energy is created by producers, while matter is created by consumers.
Matter and energy are both fully recycled by decomposers.

Correct answer: Matter is cycled within the ecosystem, while energy flows through it.

The key principle of ecosystem dynamics is that matter (like carbon, nitrogen, and water) is continuously cycled between living and nonliving components. In contrast, energy flows in one direction: from the sun, through the trophic levels, and is eventually lost as heat. It is not recycled.

Question 36: If the primary producers in a marine food web store 25,000 kcal of energy, approximately how much energy would be available to the tertiary consumers in that same food web?

25 kcal (Correct answer)
2.5 kcal
2,500 kcal
250 kcal

Correct answer: 25 kcal

Only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next. Therefore, primary consumers would receive about 2,500 kcal (10% of 25,000). Secondary consumers would receive about 250 kcal (10% of 2,500). Tertiary consumers would receive approximately 25 kcal (10% of 250).

Question 37: Scientists analyze air bubbles trapped deep within Antarctic ice cores. They find that over the past 800,000 years, atmospheric CO₂ levels and global temperatures have consistently risen and fallen together. What is the most logical conclusion that can be drawn from this strong correlation?

The amount of ice on Earth's surface directly controls the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere.
Changes in Earth's orbit are the only factor that influences long-term climate.
Volcanic activity has ceased to be a factor in climate during this period.
Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration is a critical factor in regulating Earth's temperature. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration is a critical factor in regulating Earth's temperature.

The consistent, repeating pattern found in ice core data shows a strong coupling between atmospheric CO₂ and global temperature. While orbital cycles can initiate warming or cooling, the resulting change in CO₂ acts as a powerful feedback that amplifies the temperature change, demonstrating that CO₂ is a principal control knob for Earth's climate.

Question 38: The process of chemical weathering, where slightly acidic rainwater dissolves limestone to form caves, is a primary example of an interaction between which two spheres?

Geosphere and Atmosphere
Biosphere and Hydrosphere
Atmosphere and Biosphere
Hydrosphere and Geosphere (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hydrosphere and Geosphere

Rainwater (hydrosphere) acts as a chemical agent that breaks down and erodes the limestone rock (geosphere) over long periods, creating geological features like caves.

Question 39: The river roared angrily as it crashed against the rocks, its fury unleashed by the storm. Which literary device is used in the sentence, "The wind whispered secrets through the trees"?

Hyperbole
Onomatopoeia
Personification (Correct answer)
Alliteration

Correct answer: Personification

Explanation: Personification is used when human qualities are attributed to non-human entities. In this sentence, the wind is given the human ability to whisper secrets, making it an example of personification.

Question 40: Which of the following correctly describes the function of the cell membrane?

It is the site of protein synthesis and modification.
It acts as a rigid, protective layer that gives the cell a fixed shape.
It controls the passage of substances into and out of the cell. (Correct answer)
It contains the cell's genetic material and controls its activities.

Correct answer: It controls the passage of substances into and out of the cell.

The cell membrane is a selectively permeable barrier that encloses the cell. Its primary function is to regulate which molecules, such as nutrients, ions, and waste products, can enter or leave the cytoplasm, thereby maintaining the cell's internal environment.

Question 41: If a rectangle has a length of 10 units and a width of 4 units, what is its area?

40 square units (Correct answer)
20 square units
24 square units
30 square units

Correct answer: 40 square units

Explanation: To find the area of a rectangle, multiply its length by its width. Given: Length = 10 units Width = 4 units Area = Length × Width = 10 units × 4 units = 40 square units

Question 42: A plant's roots grow into the cracks of a large rock. As the roots grow larger and thicker, they exert pressure on the rock, eventually causing it to break apart. This process, known as root wedging, is an example of the:

biosphere causing physical weathering of the geosphere. (Correct answer)
atmosphere causing erosion of the biosphere.
geosphere causing changes in the biosphere.
hydrosphere causing chemical weathering of the geosphere.

Correct answer: biosphere causing physical weathering of the geosphere.

A living organism, the plant (biosphere), is physically breaking down a non-living material, the rock (geosphere). This is a form of mechanical or physical weathering driven by a biological process.

Question 43: The pelvic bones of modern whales are small, non-functional structures that are remnants of the hind limbs of their land-dwelling ancestors. These non-functional structures are best described as:

Analogous structures
Homologous structures
Vestigial structures (Correct answer)
Embryonic structures

Correct answer: Vestigial structures

Vestigial structures are genetically determined features that have lost most or all of their ancestral function in a given species but were functional in an ancestor. The whale's pelvic bones are a classic example, providing evidence of their evolution from four-legged terrestrial mammals.

Question 44: Sound waves traveling through air are best classified as which type of wave?

Transverse waves
Longitudinal waves (Correct answer)
Electromagnetic waves
Surface waves

Correct answer: Longitudinal waves

Sound waves are longitudinal (compressional) waves in which particle displacement is parallel to the direction the wave travels.

Question 45: A student is riding a skateboard at a constant velocity. Suddenly, the skateboard hits a crack in the sidewalk and stops, but the student continues to move forward. Which of the following principles best explains why the student continues to move forward?

Friction
Newton's Third Law (Action-Reaction)
Gravitational Force
Inertia (Newton's First Law) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inertia (Newton's First Law)

This is an example of Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the law of inertia. The student's body was in motion and tends to remain in motion with the same velocity, even after the skateboard was stopped by an external force.

Question 46: A student pushes a heavy box across a rough floor. After the student stops pushing, the box slides for a short distance and then stops. The student observes that the bottom of the box and the floor feel slightly warmer. This is because the box's kinetic energy was converted primarily into:

radiant energy.
chemical energy.
thermal energy. (Correct answer)
potential energy.

Correct answer: thermal energy.

Friction is a force that opposes motion. As the box slides across the rough floor, friction does work on the box, converting its kinetic energy (energy of motion) into thermal energy (heat). This is why both the box and the floor feel warmer after the interaction.

Question 47: Besides carbon dioxide, methane (CH₄) is another powerful greenhouse gas. Which of the following human activities is a major source of atmospheric methane?

Livestock farming and the decomposition of waste in landfills. (Correct answer)
The manufacturing of cement and concrete.
The process of splitting atoms in nuclear power plants.
The use of nitrogen-based fertilizers on farmland.

Correct answer: Livestock farming and the decomposition of waste in landfills.

Major human-related sources of methane include agriculture and waste management. Methane is produced by the digestive processes of livestock (like cattle) and is also released when organic matter decomposes in oxygen-poor environments, such as landfills.

Question 48: A student is designing a model to illustrate the cycling of carbon in an ecosystem. To accurately represent the process, which of the following components is essential to include as a mechanism that returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

Transpiration
Nitrogen Fixation
Cellular Respiration (Correct answer)
Photosynthesis

Correct answer: Cellular Respiration

Cellular respiration is a process by which organisms (including plants, animals, and decomposers) break down organic compounds (like glucose) to release energy, with carbon dioxide being a primary waste product released back into the atmosphere. Photosynthesis removes CO2 from the atmosphere, transpiration releases water vapor, and nitrogen fixation converts nitrogen gas.

Question 49: Inheritable genetic variation is essential for evolution. Which of the following is a source of such variation?

The development of learned behaviors in a population.
A viable error in DNA replication that results in a mutation. (Correct answer)
The differentiation of cells into specialized tissues.
The growth of an organism through the process of mitosis.

Correct answer: A viable error in DNA replication that results in a mutation.

Inheritable variation stems from changes in the genetic code. A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence. If this change occurs in a germ line cell (a cell that produces gametes), it can be passed on to offspring. Errors during DNA replication are one of the primary ways mutations arise, creating new alleles and thus new genetic variation.

Question 50: For a total solar eclipse to be observed from a specific location on Earth, which of the following alignments of the Sun, Moon, and Earth must occur?

The Earth must be positioned directly between the Sun and the Moon.
The Sun, Earth, and Moon must form a right angle.
The Moon must be positioned directly between the Sun and Earth. (Correct answer)
The Sun must be positioned directly between the Earth and the Moon.

Correct answer: The Moon must be positioned directly between the Sun and Earth.

A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, casting a shadow on Earth's surface. For a total eclipse, the alignment must be precise, with the Moon completely blocking the Sun's disk from the viewer's perspective on Earth.

Question 51: What is the value of 15 − 3× (4 + 2)?

5
3 (Correct answer)
21
9

Correct answer: 3

Explanation: To solve the expression 15 − 3 × (4 + 2), follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Perform the operation inside the parentheses: 4 + 2 = 6 Multiply: 3 × 6 = 18 Subtract: 15 − 18 = −3

Question 52: A person engages in strenuous exercise, causing their body temperature to rise. In response, they begin to sweat, which cools the body as it evaporates. This scenario is an example of a cell or organism maintaining what state?

Homeostasis (Correct answer)
Differentiation
Respiration
Metabolism

Correct answer: Homeostasis

Homeostasis is the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in external conditions. The body's response of sweating to cool down is a classic example of a negative feedback loop used to maintain a constant internal temperature.

Question 53: A swimmer pushes backward on the water with their hands. In response, the water pushes the swimmer forward. This is a direct application of which principle?

The Law of Force and Acceleration (Newton's Second Law)
The Law of Inertia (Newton's First Law)
The Law of Universal Gravitation
The Law of Action-Reaction (Newton's Third Law) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Law of Action-Reaction (Newton's Third Law)

Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. The swimmer's push on the water is the 'action,' and the water pushing back on the swimmer with an equal and opposite force is the 'reaction,' which propels the swimmer forward.

Question 54: Himalayan rabbits have a gene that codes for fur color. The enzyme produced by this gene is only active at cooler temperatures. In a warm environment, the rabbit's fur is white. However, if an area of its body, like its ears or nose, is exposed to cold, the fur in that area grows black. This scenario is an example of:

A spontaneous mutation that changes fur color.
The Law of Segregation in action.
Codominance, where both alleles are fully expressed.
Environmental factors influencing gene expression. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Environmental factors influencing gene expression.

The Himalayan rabbit's fur color is a classic example of how environmental factors can affect the expression of traits (phenotype). The rabbit has the gene for black fur, but its expression is regulated by temperature. This shows that the variation of traits depends on both genetic and environmental factors.

Question 55: Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun can cause sunburn because it:

Travels faster than visible light and delivers energy more quickly
Has a longer wavelength than visible light and carries more heat energy
Has higher frequency than visible light and carries enough energy to damage skin cells (Correct answer)
Reflects off the atmosphere and is concentrated on Earth's surface

Correct answer: Has higher frequency than visible light and carries enough energy to damage skin cells

UV radiation has higher frequency and more energy per photon than visible light, giving it enough energy to break chemical bonds and damage DNA in skin cells.

Maryland Integrated Science Assessment

The MISA (Maryland Integrated Science Assessment) is a state science exam administered to Maryland students in grades 5, 8, and high school, assessing mastery of Next Generation Science Standards across life science, physical science, Earth and space science, and engineering through real-world scenario-based item sets.

Questions

200 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

news.maryland.gov — Eligibility · verified Oct 2026