Microsoft Certification — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What does the unified client interface (UCI) provide in Dynamics 365?
- A legacy desktop interface for older browsers
- A batch processing tool
- A command-line interface for developers
- A responsive, consistent user experience across all devices and form factors (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A responsive, consistent user experience across all devices and form factors
The Unified Client Interface provides a modern, responsive design that works consistently across desktops, tablets, and phones in Dynamics 365.
Question 2: What is the purpose of Azure Bastion?
- Encrypting storage accounts
- Load balancing web applications
- Managing certificates
- Providing secure RDP/SSH connectivity to VMs without exposing public IP addresses (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Providing secure RDP/SSH connectivity to VMs without exposing public IP addresses
Azure Bastion provides browser-based RDP and SSH access to virtual machines directly through the Azure portal, without requiring a public IP on the VM.
Question 3: When should an architect choose Azure Service Bus over Azure Event Hubs?
- When building real-time IoT pipelines
- When ingesting millions of telemetry events per second for streaming analytics
- When enterprise messaging semantics like message ordering, dead-lettering, and transactions are required (Correct answer)
- When storing events for long-term replay and historical analysis
Correct answer: When enterprise messaging semantics like message ordering, dead-lettering, and transactions are required
Azure Service Bus is appropriate when you need enterprise messaging guarantees like ordering, dead-letter queues, and transactions, while Event Hubs is designed for high-volume event streaming.
Question 4: Which of the following is the best example of structured data?
- Rows in a relational database table (Correct answer)
- Social media posts
- PDF documents
- Audio recordings
Correct answer: Rows in a relational database table
Structured data is organized in a defined format with rows and columns, as found in relational database tables.
Question 5: What does OneDrive provide in the Microsoft 365 ecosystem?
- Personal cloud storage and file synchronization (Correct answer)
- Video conferencing
- Email hosting
- Identity management
Correct answer: Personal cloud storage and file synchronization
OneDrive is Microsoft's personal cloud storage service that syncs files across devices and integrates with Microsoft 365 apps.
Question 6: What is the Strangler Fig pattern in cloud migration?
- Immediately rewriting all legacy code from scratch in the cloud
- Decomposing databases by vertical partitioning
- Migrating entire workloads in one big-bang cutover
- Incrementally replacing a monolithic application by routing specific features to new microservices while the old system handles the rest (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Incrementally replacing a monolithic application by routing specific features to new microservices while the old system handles the rest
The Strangler Fig pattern gradually migrates a monolith by redirecting specific capabilities to new cloud-native services until the legacy system is fully replaced and can be retired.
Question 7: Which Power Platform tool allows business users to create automated workflows without writing code?
- Power Automate (Correct answer)
- Power Apps
- Power Virtual Agents
- Power BI
Correct answer: Power Automate
Power Automate provides a visual, no-code/low-code interface for creating automated workflows that connect hundreds of apps and services.
Question 8: What does ACID stand for in the context of database transactions?
- Availability, Consistency, Isolation, Data
- Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability (Correct answer)
- Accuracy, Completeness, Integrity, Dependency
- Atomicity, Correctness, Integration, Distribution
Correct answer: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
ACID stands for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability — four properties that guarantee reliable processing of database transactions.
Question 9: What is the relationship between Dynamics 365 and the Power Platform?
- Dynamics 365 apps are built on the Power Platform, enabling customization via Power Apps and Power Automate (Correct answer)
- Dynamics 365 replaces the Power Platform
- They are completely separate products with no integration
- Power Platform is only for non-business users
Correct answer: Dynamics 365 apps are built on the Power Platform, enabling customization via Power Apps and Power Automate
Dynamics 365 applications are built on the Power Platform foundation, allowing users to extend and customize them using Power Apps, Power Automate, and Power BI.
Question 10: Which Azure architecture pattern involves event sourcing and maintaining separate read/write models?
- CRUD pattern
- CQRS (Command Query Responsibility Segregation) (Correct answer)
- Bulkhead pattern
- Microservices pattern
Correct answer: CQRS (Command Query Responsibility Segregation)
CQRS separates the command (write) and query (read) models of an application, allowing each to be optimized independently and often combined with event sourcing.
Question 11: What is a primary key in a relational database?
- The most frequently queried field in a record
- A unique identifier that distinguishes each row in a table (Correct answer)
- The first column defined in a table
- A column that references a row in another table
Correct answer: A unique identifier that distinguishes each row in a table
A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a database table, ensuring no two rows have the same key value and enabling efficient lookups.
Question 12: What is Azure Cache for Redis used for?
- Managing DNS records
- Storing large binary files
- Providing a fast, in-memory data store for caching and session management (Correct answer)
- Hosting relational databases
Correct answer: Providing a fast, in-memory data store for caching and session management
Azure Cache for Redis is a fully managed in-memory cache service based on Redis, used for improving application performance through caching.
Question 13: What is the purpose of Microsoft Intune within Microsoft 365?
- File storage
- Email encryption
- Video streaming
- Mobile device and application management (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Mobile device and application management
Microsoft Intune is a cloud-based endpoint management solution that controls how devices and apps access organizational data.
Question 14: What is the purpose of an Azure Application Gateway?
- Connecting on-premises networks to Azure via VPN
- A Layer 7 web application load balancer with SSL termination, URL-based routing, and optional WAF (Correct answer)
- Managing service endpoints for Azure PaaS services
- Providing private DNS resolution for virtual networks
Correct answer: A Layer 7 web application load balancer with SSL termination, URL-based routing, and optional WAF
Azure Application Gateway is a Layer 7 load balancer that routes HTTP/S traffic based on URL paths or hostnames, with SSL offloading and an optional Web Application Firewall.
Question 15: What is the primary purpose of a data warehouse?
- To provide document storage for unstructured content
- To store and analyze large volumes of historical data for reporting (Correct answer)
- To cache frequently accessed application data
- To store real-time transactional data
Correct answer: To store and analyze large volumes of historical data for reporting
A data warehouse is optimized for storing and analyzing large amounts of historical data to support business intelligence, analytics, and reporting.
Question 16: What is Microsoft Power Automate used for in Microsoft 365?
- Managing user accounts
- Automating repetitive workflows and business processes (Correct answer)
- Creating spreadsheets
- Generating reports from databases
Correct answer: Automating repetitive workflows and business processes
Power Automate (formerly Flow) allows users to create automated workflows between apps and services without writing code.
Question 17: Which Azure storage option provides the highest throughput for high-performance computing (HPC) workloads?
- Azure Queue Storage
- Azure NetApp Files or Azure Managed Lustre (Correct answer)
- Azure Table Storage
- Azure Blob Storage (LRS)
Correct answer: Azure NetApp Files or Azure Managed Lustre
Azure NetApp Files and Azure Managed Lustre provide high-performance NFS/SMB file storage optimized for HPC, AI training, and media rendering workloads requiring ultra-low latency.
Question 18: What is Azure Private Endpoint used for?
- Assigning static public IP addresses to virtual machines
- Connecting to Azure PaaS services over a private IP within your VNet, eliminating public internet exposure (Correct answer)
- Load balancing traffic between Azure regions
- Creating public-facing API endpoints for mobile apps
Correct answer: Connecting to Azure PaaS services over a private IP within your VNet, eliminating public internet exposure
Azure Private Endpoint assigns a private IP address from your VNet to Azure PaaS services like Storage or SQL, so all traffic stays on the Microsoft backbone without traversing the public internet.
Question 19: What does Azure Application Insights provide?
- Application performance monitoring and diagnostics for live web applications (Correct answer)
- Container orchestration
- API publishing and management
- Virtual machine backups
Correct answer: Application performance monitoring and diagnostics for live web applications
Application Insights is an APM service that monitors live web applications, detecting performance anomalies and providing diagnostics telemetry.
Question 20: In a hub-spoke network topology in Azure, what is the purpose of the hub VNet?
- Isolating development environments from production
- Hosting all production workloads
- Acting as the only VNet with internet access for billing purposes
- Centralizing shared services like VPN gateway, firewall, and DNS that spoke VNets connect to via peering (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Centralizing shared services like VPN gateway, firewall, and DNS that spoke VNets connect to via peering
The hub VNet in a hub-spoke topology centralizes shared network services like VPN gateways, Azure Firewall, and DNS servers that multiple spoke VNets consume via peering.
Question 21: Which Azure storage tier is most cost-effective for data that is rarely accessed and can tolerate higher retrieval latency?
- Hot tier
- Cool tier
- Archive tier (Correct answer)
- Premium tier
Correct answer: Archive tier
The Archive tier offers the lowest storage cost for data that is rarely accessed, but retrieval can take hours as data must be rehydrated first.
Question 22: Which of the following is the entire time it takes to complete a disk IO request?
- Torpidity
- Throughput
- Expectancy
- Latency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Latency
Latency refers to the time delay between when an I/O request is issued and when it is completed. It encompasses the entire duration it takes for a disk I/O request to travel from the application, through the operating system and storage stack, to the physical disk, and for the response to return. Lower latency indicates faster response times for storage operations.
Question 23: Which Azure service provides managed DNS hosting?
- Azure Load Balancer
- Azure Traffic Manager
- Azure DNS (Correct answer)
- Azure CDN
Correct answer: Azure DNS
Azure DNS is a hosting service for DNS domains that provides name resolution using Microsoft Azure's global infrastructure.
Question 24: What is the role of Azure API Management (APIM) in a microservices architecture?
- It acts as a gateway providing security, rate limiting, monitoring, and transformation for APIs (Correct answer)
- It only routes traffic between Azure regions
- It stores API response caches in blob storage
- It replaces all backend API logic with Azure-native code
Correct answer: It acts as a gateway providing security, rate limiting, monitoring, and transformation for APIs
Azure API Management acts as a front-door gateway that enforces policies like authentication, rate limiting, and caching while providing a unified API surface.
Question 25: Which Power Automate flow type runs on a schedule?
- Automated flow
- Instant flow
- Business process flow
- Scheduled flow (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Scheduled flow
A scheduled flow in Power Automate runs automatically at specified intervals, such as daily or weekly, without manual triggering.
Question 26: What does Azure Policy do?
- Controls user login behavior
- Enforces organizational standards and compliance by evaluating Azure resources against defined rules (Correct answer)
- Manages virtual machine OS updates
- Sets up billing budgets
Correct answer: Enforces organizational standards and compliance by evaluating Azure resources against defined rules
Azure Policy evaluates resources in Azure against business rules and can enforce compliance, deny non-compliant configurations, or audit existing resources.
Question 27: When designing a multi-region active-active architecture, which Azure database service supports automatic multi-region write capabilities?
- Azure Cosmos DB with multi-region writes enabled (Correct answer)
- Azure Table Storage
- Azure Database for MySQL
- Azure SQL Database
Correct answer: Azure Cosmos DB with multi-region writes enabled
Azure Cosmos DB supports multi-region writes, allowing applications to write data to any configured region with automatic conflict resolution.
Question 28: Which Microsoft 365 licensing tier includes advanced security features like Microsoft Defender for Identity?
- Microsoft 365 F1
- Microsoft 365 E5 (Correct answer)
- Microsoft 365 Apps for Business
- Microsoft 365 Business Basic
Correct answer: Microsoft 365 E5
Microsoft 365 E5 is the highest enterprise tier and includes advanced security, compliance, and analytics tools including Defender for Identity.
Question 29: Which Azure Cosmos DB consistency level provides the strongest consistency guarantees?
- Session
- Eventual
- Strong (Correct answer)
- Bounded Staleness
Correct answer: Strong
Strong consistency in Cosmos DB guarantees that reads always return the most recently committed write, but comes with higher latency and lower availability.
Question 30: Which feature in Microsoft Teams allows users to host webinars for external attendees?
- Teams Live Events / Webinars (Correct answer)
- Apps
- Connectors
- Channels
Correct answer: Teams Live Events / Webinars
Teams Webinars and Live Events allow organizations to broadcast presentations and training sessions to large external audiences.
Question 31: What is Dynamics 365 Commerce primarily used for?
- Employee performance management
- Managing field service technicians
- Providing end-to-end omnichannel retail commerce solutions (Correct answer)
- Financial accounting and reporting
Correct answer: Providing end-to-end omnichannel retail commerce solutions
Dynamics 365 Commerce provides retailers with omnichannel capabilities including point-of-sale, e-commerce, back-office operations, and merchandising.
Question 32: What is the SLA (Service Level Agreement) uptime guarantee Microsoft provides for Microsoft 365?
- 98%
- 100%
- 95%
- 99.9% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 99.9%
Microsoft guarantees 99.9% uptime for Microsoft 365 services, backed by a financially supported SLA.
Question 33: What is the maximum file size that can be uploaded to SharePoint Online in Microsoft 365?
- 15 GB (Correct answer)
- 250 GB
- 4 TB
- 1 GB
Correct answer: 15 GB
SharePoint Online supports file uploads up to 250 GB, making it suitable for large media files and documents.
Question 34: What is the purpose of Azure Blueprints?
- Defining repeatable sets of Azure resources, policies, and role assignments to deploy compliant environments consistently (Correct answer)
- Creating virtual machine images for deployment
- Generating cost reports for Azure subscriptions
- Designing network topology diagrams
Correct answer: Defining repeatable sets of Azure resources, policies, and role assignments to deploy compliant environments consistently
Azure Blueprints package ARM templates, policies, and RBAC assignments into a single artifact that can be deployed to subscriptions to enforce consistent, compliant environments.
Question 35: Which Microsoft 365 plan is best suited for small businesses needing basic Office apps plus email?
- Microsoft 365 E5
- Microsoft 365 F3
- Microsoft 365 Business Basic (Correct answer)
- Microsoft 365 E3
Correct answer: Microsoft 365 Business Basic
Microsoft 365 Business Basic provides cloud-based Office apps, Exchange email, and Teams at an entry-level price for small businesses.
Question 36: What type of data workload processes data in real-time as it continuously arrives?
- Batch processing
- Analytical processing
- Transactional processing
- Stream processing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Stream processing
Stream processing handles data in real-time as it arrives, unlike batch processing which accumulates data and processes it in groups.
Question 37: What does 'elasticity' mean in the context of cloud architecture?
- The physical flexibility of Azure datacenters
- The ability to automatically scale resources up or down dynamically to match current demand (Correct answer)
- Disaster recovery across multiple regions
- The durability guarantee for cloud storage
Correct answer: The ability to automatically scale resources up or down dynamically to match current demand
Elasticity in cloud architecture refers to the ability to automatically provision and de-provision compute resources in real time to match fluctuating demand and avoid over-provisioning.
Question 38: What does DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack attempt to do?
- Steal user credentials by brute force
- Intercept network communications
- Overwhelm a service with traffic from many sources to make it unavailable to legitimate users (Correct answer)
- Encrypt files and demand ransom
Correct answer: Overwhelm a service with traffic from many sources to make it unavailable to legitimate users
DDoS attacks flood a target service with massive amounts of traffic from many compromised systems simultaneously, exhausting resources and causing outages.
Question 39: Which Microsoft 365 app is used to create low-code business applications without traditional programming?
- Power Apps (Correct answer)
- Access
- Project
- Visio
Correct answer: Power Apps
Power Apps enables users to build custom business apps with a low-code interface that connects to data sources across Microsoft 365.
Question 40: Which Microsoft 365 compliance feature helps organizations prevent accidental data leaks?
- Power Automate
- Multi-Factor Authentication
- Azure AD
- Data Loss Prevention (DLP) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
Data Loss Prevention policies in Microsoft 365 detect and prevent the unauthorized sharing of sensitive information.
Question 41: What is the primary difference between Microsoft 365 Business and Enterprise plans?
- Business plans include Dynamics 365, Enterprise plans do not
- Enterprise plans support Mac, Business plans do not
- Enterprise plans support more than 300 users and include advanced compliance tools (Correct answer)
- Enterprise plans are for non-profits only
Correct answer: Enterprise plans support more than 300 users and include advanced compliance tools
Microsoft 365 Enterprise plans are designed for organizations with more than 300 users and include advanced security, compliance, and analytics features.
Question 42: Which design pattern decouples services by placing a queue between a producer and consumer to handle load spikes?
- Queue-based Load Leveling pattern (Correct answer)
- Saga pattern
- Strangler Fig pattern
- Circuit Breaker pattern
Correct answer: Queue-based Load Leveling pattern
The Queue-based Load Leveling pattern uses a message queue as a buffer between a producer and consumer, smoothing out spikes in traffic without dropping requests.
Question 43: What does the Microsoft 365 Security & Compliance Center help administrators manage?
- Hardware inventory
- Network bandwidth
- Software licensing
- Organizational security policies, audit logs, and compliance reports (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Organizational security policies, audit logs, and compliance reports
The Microsoft Purview compliance portal centralizes tools for managing data governance, audits, eDiscovery, and security policies.
Question 44: Which of the following best describes a NoSQL database?
- A non-relational database that stores unstructured or semi-structured data flexibly (Correct answer)
- A database that uses only structured query language
- A database that cannot handle large volumes of data
- A database that enforces strict table schemas with foreign keys
Correct answer: A non-relational database that stores unstructured or semi-structured data flexibly
NoSQL databases are non-relational and can store unstructured or semi-structured data without requiring a fixed schema, offering flexibility and horizontal scalability.
Question 45: What is the difference between Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
- RTO is the maximum acceptable downtime to restore service; RPO is the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time (Correct answer)
- RTO applies to databases; RPO applies to virtual machines only
- They are the same concept with different names
- RTO measures data loss; RPO measures downtime duration
Correct answer: RTO is the maximum acceptable downtime to restore service; RPO is the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time
RTO defines how quickly a system must be restored after a failure (downtime tolerance), while RPO defines how much data loss is acceptable (last backup age tolerance).
Question 46: What is the benefit of using Azure Reserved Instances?
- Reduced cost by committing to a one- or three-year term (Correct answer)
- Faster network throughput
- Automatic security patching
- Free data egress
Correct answer: Reduced cost by committing to a one- or three-year term
Reserved Instances offer significant discounts in exchange for a one- or three-year usage commitment.
Question 47: Which Azure service provides a fully managed relational database based on the SQL Server engine?
- Azure Blob Storage
- Azure SQL Database (Correct answer)
- Azure Table Storage
- Azure Cosmos DB
Correct answer: Azure SQL Database
Azure SQL Database is a fully managed, Platform-as-a-Service relational database built on the SQL Server engine.
Question 48: Which Microsoft 365 service replaces traditional on-premises Exchange server for email hosting?
- SharePoint Online
- Outlook.com
- Exchange Online (Correct answer)
- Teams
Correct answer: Exchange Online
Exchange Online is the cloud-hosted version of Microsoft Exchange that provides email, calendar, and contacts without on-premises servers.
Question 49: What is the primary consideration when choosing between Azure Traffic Manager and Azure Front Door?
- Traffic Manager supports HTTP/HTTPS; Front Door supports TCP only
- Traffic Manager is cheaper; Front Door has no cost difference
- Traffic Manager routes DNS-level traffic globally; Front Door is an application-layer (L7) global load balancer with WAF and CDN capabilities (Correct answer)
- Front Door only works in US regions; Traffic Manager is global
Correct answer: Traffic Manager routes DNS-level traffic globally; Front Door is an application-layer (L7) global load balancer with WAF and CDN capabilities
Traffic Manager operates at DNS level for global routing, while Azure Front Door provides Layer 7 HTTP routing with built-in WAF, SSL offload, and CDN edge caching.
Question 50: What is the purpose of Azure Cost Management + Billing in architecture planning?
- Managing Microsoft 365 license assignments
- Monitoring, analyzing, and optimizing Azure spending through budgets, alerts, and cost allocation (Correct answer)
- Configuring network routing policies
- Optimizing CPU performance of virtual machines
Correct answer: Monitoring, analyzing, and optimizing Azure spending through budgets, alerts, and cost allocation
Azure Cost Management + Billing provides visibility into Azure spending, allows budget creation with alerts, and provides cost optimization recommendations to control cloud costs.
Question 51: Which Microsoft 365 service provides enterprise social networking features?
- Forms
- Planner
- SharePoint
- Yammer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Yammer
Yammer (now part of Viva Engage) is Microsoft's enterprise social networking platform for company-wide conversations.
Question 52: Which Azure role provides full access to manage all Azure resources but does not grant access to manage role assignments?
- Owner
- Contributor (Correct answer)
- User Access Administrator
- Reader
Correct answer: Contributor
The Contributor role grants full access to create and manage Azure resources but cannot assign roles or grant access to others.
Question 53: Which feature in Azure AD enables users to access multiple applications with one login?
- Multi-factor authentication
- Privileged Identity Management
- Single Sign-On (SSO) (Correct answer)
- Conditional Access
Correct answer: Single Sign-On (SSO)
Single Sign-On allows users to authenticate once and gain access to all integrated applications without re-entering credentials.
Question 54: What is an Azure Landing Zone?
- A physical data center location for Azure hardware
- A specific Azure VM size tier
- A temporary sandbox for testing Azure resources
- A pre-configured, scalable environment following best practices for deploying enterprise workloads in Azure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A pre-configured, scalable environment following best practices for deploying enterprise workloads in Azure
Azure Landing Zones provide a modular, opinionated environment with governance, networking, security, and identity foundations for deploying enterprise workloads at scale.
Question 55: What are Power Automate connectors?
- Azure VM configuration files
- Pre-built integrations that allow Power Automate to communicate with external apps and services (Correct answer)
- Power BI data source plugins
- Physical network cables for Power Platform servers
Correct answer: Pre-built integrations that allow Power Automate to communicate with external apps and services
Connectors are pre-built integrations in Power Automate that provide a standard interface to communicate with external services like Office 365, Salesforce, Twitter, and hundreds more.
Question 56: What is Azure App Service primarily used for?
- Hosting web applications, REST APIs, and mobile backends (Correct answer)
- Running batch processing jobs
- Managing DNS zones
- Storing large media files
Correct answer: Hosting web applications, REST APIs, and mobile backends
Azure App Service is a fully managed PaaS platform for hosting web apps, REST APIs, and mobile back-ends on Windows or Linux.
Question 57: What is the purpose of Dynamics 365 Human Resources?
- Streamlining HR operations including benefits, leave, and workforce management (Correct answer)
- Tracking marketing campaign performance
- Processing customer orders
- Managing IT infrastructure
Correct answer: Streamlining HR operations including benefits, leave, and workforce management
Dynamics 365 Human Resources helps HR teams manage employee benefits, leave and absence, compensation, and workforce planning.
Question 58: What type of cloud model combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud resources?
- Public cloud
- Community cloud
- Hybrid cloud (Correct answer)
- Private cloud
Correct answer: Hybrid cloud
A hybrid cloud connects on-premises (private) infrastructure with public cloud services.
Question 59: What is the purpose of Network Security Groups (NSGs) in Azure?
- Filtering network traffic to and from Azure resources using security rules (Correct answer)
- Managing user accounts
- Backing up virtual machines
- Storing encryption keys
Correct answer: Filtering network traffic to and from Azure resources using security rules
NSGs contain security rules that allow or deny inbound and outbound network traffic to Azure resources based on port, protocol, and IP address.
Question 60: Which Microsoft 365 service is designed primarily for team communication and collaboration?
- Microsoft Teams (Correct answer)
- OneDrive
- Exchange Online
- SharePoint
Correct answer: Microsoft Teams
Microsoft Teams is Microsoft 365's hub for teamwork, providing chat, video meetings, and file collaboration in one place.
Microsoft Certification
Microsoft Certification exams validate technical skills across Azure, Microsoft 365, security, data, and other Microsoft technologies. Each exam tests role-based competencies for cloud architects, administrators, developers, and data professionals, with a scaled passing score of 700 out of 1000.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
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