MEPS Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The General Technical (GT) score is an important composite used by all branches. Which subtests primarily contribute to the GT score?

Arithmetic Reasoning and Word Knowledge (Correct answer)
Mathematics Knowledge and Electronics Information
Paragraph Comprehension and Auto Information
General Science and Mechanical Comprehension

Correct answer: Arithmetic Reasoning and Word Knowledge

The GT score is generally derived from Arithmetic Reasoning (AR) and Word Knowledge (WK), reflecting cognitive and verbal reasoning ability.

Question 2: According to USMEPCOM Regulation 40-1, what is the standard submission timeline for a DD Form 2807-2 with supporting medical documents for a routine applicant with a history of a treated medical condition?

At least 10 business days prior to the scheduled physical.
The day the applicant arrives at MEPS for their physical.
Within 30 days after the applicant completes the physical examination.
A minimum of 2 processing days in advance of the scheduled MEPS visit. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A minimum of 2 processing days in advance of the scheduled MEPS visit.

USMEPCOM Regulation 40-1 and instructions for the DD Form 2807-2 specify timelines to allow for proper medical review. For an applicant with supporting medical documentation, the form must be submitted at least 2 processing days in advance to allow the MEPS Chief Medical Officer (CMO) time to review the records before the applicant's arrival. More complex cases with extensive records may require even more time.

Question 3: What is the significance of 'tentative' qualification at the pre-screening stage?

It means the applicant has fully passed all MEPS requirements
It indicates the applicant may be eligible but must be confirmed by the MEPS physician and staff (Correct answer)
It means the applicant failed and needs retesting
It guarantees enlistment in the chosen branch

Correct answer: It indicates the applicant may be eligible but must be confirmed by the MEPS physician and staff

Tentative qualification signals that initial records suggest eligibility, but final determination requires the full MEPS physical and evaluation process.

Question 4: Which ASVAB subtest most directly measures a recruit's ability to understand written instructions and technical manuals?

Electronics Information
Word Knowledge
General Science
Paragraph Comprehension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Paragraph Comprehension

Paragraph Comprehension (PC) tests reading comprehension skills essential for understanding military regulations, technical orders, and field manuals.

Question 5: During the MEPS abdominal examination, which finding would be most concerning to the examining physician?

A large inguinal hernia not yet surgically repaired (Correct answer)
Mild bloating reported by the applicant
A small, easily reducible umbilical hernia
A well-healed appendectomy scar

Correct answer: A large inguinal hernia not yet surgically repaired

A large unreduced inguinal hernia is disqualifying because it poses a risk of strangulation under physical exertion typical in military service.

Question 6: How is the MEPS medical examination record typically transmitted to the recruit's gaining military branch?

The MEPS physician mails records directly to the drill sergeant
Records are uploaded to the recruit's personal email
The recruit hand-carries a sealed envelope to basic training
It is transmitted electronically through the USMEPCOM system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It is transmitted electronically through the USMEPCOM system

MEPS uses the USMEPCOM (United States Military Entrance Processing Command) electronic system to transmit records to the branches.

Question 7: Which of the following best explains why the military asks about juvenile adjudications that have been sealed?

Military personnel may have access to classified information requiring full transparency about past conduct (Correct answer)
The military is required by law to report juvenile records to local courts
Sealed records are treated as if they never occurred even for military purposes
It is required only for applicants seeking officer commissions

Correct answer: Military personnel may have access to classified information requiring full transparency about past conduct

Because military personnel often handle sensitive information and must be security-clearable, full disclosure of conduct history — including sealed juvenile records — is required.

Question 8: Can the military legally order a DEP member to report to active duty before their scheduled ship date?

No, the military has no legal authority over DEP members whatsoever
Yes, theoretically, because DEP members are technically enlisted members of the Ready Reserve (Correct answer)
Only if the DEP member provides written consent to the early reporting date
Only in cases of a formal war declaration by Congress

Correct answer: Yes, theoretically, because DEP members are technically enlisted members of the Ready Reserve

Because DEP members are technically enlisted in the Ready Reserve, the military has the legal authority to order them to active duty, though this authority is rarely exercised.

Question 9: An applicant has excellent ASVAB scores and is qualified for numerous jobs. During the counseling session, the applicant expresses strong interest in a specific Military Occupational Specialty (MOS) that is not currently available. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the MEPS Guidance Counselor to take?

Inform the applicant about the Delayed Entry Program (DEP) as an option to wait for the desired MOS to become available. (Correct answer)
Advise the applicant to select another available job and reclassify later.
Tell the applicant to return to MEPS at a later date when the job might be open.
Assign the applicant to a high-priority job that offers an enlistment bonus.

Correct answer: Inform the applicant about the Delayed Entry Program (DEP) as an option to wait for the desired MOS to become available.

The Delayed Entry Program (DEP) is designed for situations like this. It allows a qualified applicant to enlist in the service but delay their entry to active duty, often to wait for a specific job or training date. This respects the applicant's preference while securing their commitment. Advising them to reclassify later is not guaranteed, and assigning them to a job they don't want is poor counseling. Simply telling them to return later offers no concrete solution.

Question 10: What is the primary legal authority that governs the conduct of enlisted service members after they take the Oath of Enlistment?

The Federal Employees' Compensation Act
The National Defense Authorization Act
Title 5 of the U.S. Code
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

Once the oath is taken, service members become subject to the UCMJ, which is the federal law defining military criminal offenses and procedures.

Question 11: What does it mean for an enlistment to be 'conditional'?

The contract takes full effect only if the recruit meets all medical, legal, and aptitude requirements (Correct answer)
The contract is valid only for the branch where it was originally signed
The military can change the contract terms unilaterally at any time
The recruit can set personal conditions on the terms of service

Correct answer: The contract takes full effect only if the recruit meets all medical, legal, and aptitude requirements

A conditional enlistment is contingent on the recruit satisfying all eligibility requirements; failure to qualify in any area cancels the agreement.

Question 12: Which of the following tests conducted during the MEPS medical exam requires a supervised collection to ensure the integrity of the sample?

Urinalysis for drugs and medical issues (Correct answer)
Audiogram for hearing acuity
Blood draw for HIV and RPR
Spirometry test for lung function

Correct answer: Urinalysis for drugs and medical issues

To prevent tampering or substitution, the urinalysis is conducted under direct supervision by a MEPS staff member of the same gender. The sample is tested for illegal drugs, as well as for medical indicators such as sugar, protein, and pregnancy (for female applicants).

Question 13: Why are applicants typically required to surrender their cell phones or keep them off during certain MEPS procedures?

To prevent cheating on the ASVAB retake portion
Because cell signals interfere with medical equipment
To prevent applicants from calling their recruiter for coaching
To protect the confidentiality of other applicants and secure test content (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect the confidentiality of other applicants and secure test content

Phone restrictions protect the privacy of other applicants and prevent leaking of proprietary test materials.

Question 14: The ASVAB line scores are used to determine what beyond basic enlistment eligibility?

Physical fitness classification
Officer candidate ranking
Military Occupational Specialty (MOS) qualification (Correct answer)
Security clearance level

Correct answer: Military Occupational Specialty (MOS) qualification

ASVAB line scores (composites) determine which Military Occupational Specialties a recruit qualifies for.

Question 15: A recruit receives an ASVAB score report listing subtests in standard scores. What does a standard score of 50 indicate?

The recruit passed the minimum threshold for all military branches
The recruit answered exactly half the questions correctly
The recruit performed at the mean of the reference group (Correct answer)
The recruit's score falls in the bottom 50th percentile

Correct answer: The recruit performed at the mean of the reference group

ASVAB standard scores have a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a score of 50 equals the average performance of the reference group.

Question 16: What is the primary reason the AFQT is expressed as a percentile rather than a raw score?

To allow comparison of performance across different test versions and years (Correct answer)
To make the scoring system simpler to understand
Because military regulations prohibit raw score reporting
To prevent recruits from knowing how many questions they got wrong

Correct answer: To allow comparison of performance across different test versions and years

Using a percentile score allows fair comparison of performance across different test forms, administration years, and norming groups.

Question 17: At a group oath ceremony at MEPS, how do enlistees typically confirm their individual identity?

By presenting a government-issued photo ID to the officer
By signing their enlistment documents before the ceremony begins (Correct answer)
By stating their Social Security Number aloud before the oath
By having their recruiter vouch for them verbally

Correct answer: By signing their enlistment documents before the ceremony begins

Enlistees sign their DD Form 4 and other documents before or during the ceremony, which officially records their identity and agreement.

Question 18: How many times total can an applicant take the ASVAB before a mandatory six-month waiting period is imposed?

Once
Four times
Twice (Correct answer)
Three times

Correct answer: Twice

After two ASVAB attempts (initial + one retest after 30 days), a six-month waiting period is required before a third attempt.

Question 19: Which of the following is a primary role of the MEPS security section during an applicant's processing?

Initiating the background check by collecting fingerprints and reviewing the security questionnaire for completeness. (Correct answer)
Adjudicating the final security clearance and granting access to classified information.
Conducting the full field investigation by interviewing the applicant's neighbors and employers.
Issuing the applicant's Common Access Card (CAC) upon successful enlistment.

Correct answer: Initiating the background check by collecting fingerprints and reviewing the security questionnaire for completeness.

The role of MEPS in the security process is foundational. MEPS personnel initiate the background investigation by collecting the applicant's fingerprints for an FBI check and reviewing the security questionnaire (like the SF 86) to ensure it is filled out correctly before forwarding it for investigation. The actual investigation and final adjudication are handled by separate government agencies, such as DCSA.

Question 20: At MEPS, what is a 'medical waiver' and who typically initiates the process?

A waiver is a request to override a disqualification, usually initiated by the recruiter or applicant with supporting medical documentation (Correct answer)
A waiver permanently disqualifies an applicant from all future service
A waiver is issued by the MEPS physician on the day of examination
A waiver is automatic when any disqualifying condition is found

Correct answer: A waiver is a request to override a disqualification, usually initiated by the recruiter or applicant with supporting medical documentation

A medical waiver is a formal request submitted with supporting documentation asking the service branch to override a standard disqualifying finding on a case-by-case basis.

Question 21: What document is an applicant typically required to bring to MEPS that proves their legal identity and citizenship?

A birth certificate and Social Security card (Correct answer)
A high school diploma and transcripts
A library card and utility bill
A recruiter's letter of recommendation

Correct answer: A birth certificate and Social Security card

Applicants must bring identity documents such as a birth certificate and Social Security card to verify their legal identity and citizenship status.

Question 22: What is 'fraudulent enlistment' in the military context?

Enlisting by concealing or misrepresenting disqualifying information (Correct answer)
Using a false identity to obtain a higher enlistment bonus
Falsely claiming prior military service
Enlisting in multiple branches simultaneously

Correct answer: Enlisting by concealing or misrepresenting disqualifying information

Fraudulent enlistment occurs when an applicant conceals or misrepresents any information that would have been disqualifying, making the enlistment contract void.

Question 23: How does military service waiver policy differ between active duty and the National Guard/Reserve?

National Guard applicants do not go through MEPS
Active duty has the most restrictive waiver standards
Individual states' National Guard units may have slightly different waiver flexibility than active duty components (Correct answer)
National Guard and Reserve never grant waivers

Correct answer: Individual states' National Guard units may have slightly different waiver flexibility than active duty components

Individual state National Guard units have some flexibility in waiver authority that may differ from federal active-duty standards, though all Guard and Reserve members must still meet minimum federal military standards.

Question 24: What is the 'chain of custody' in military drug testing?

The sequence of command authority over drug policy
The legal procedure for arresting a service member for drug use
A documented process ensuring the urine sample is tracked from collection to laboratory result without tampering (Correct answer)
The order in which drill sergeants supervise recruits

Correct answer: A documented process ensuring the urine sample is tracked from collection to laboratory result without tampering

Chain of custody is the documented, unbroken record of how a urine specimen is collected, labeled, sealed, transported, and analyzed, ensuring its integrity and admissibility.

Question 25: What is a 'Future Soldier' or 'Delayed Entry Program (DEP)' in relation to MEPS?

A recruit who failed MEPS and is awaiting a second chance
A mentoring role assigned to senior enlisted soldiers at MEPS
A special MEPS track for recruits with prior military experience
A program allowing applicants to enlist and delay their ship date for up to a year after MEPS processing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A program allowing applicants to enlist and delay their ship date for up to a year after MEPS processing

The Delayed Entry Program (DEP) lets recruits complete MEPS processing and officially enlist while delaying their report date for up to 12 months.

Question 26: Which branch of service conducts its own separate oath ceremony distinct from joint MEPS ceremonies?

Navy
Air Force
Army
Marine Corps (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Marine Corps

The Marine Corps traditionally conducts its own oath ceremony with Marine-specific traditions and uniforms separate from joint MEPS ceremonies.

Question 27: Read the passage: 'A military bearing refers to the dignified, professional demeanor expected of all service members. It includes proper posture, grooming, and courteous interaction with others. Maintaining military bearing reflects positively on the individual and the branch they represent and is especially important during formal ceremonies and inspections.' The word 'bearing' as used in the passage most nearly means: A) A navigational direction or heading B) The act of carrying a heavy load C) A person's outward manner and conduct D) Tolerance for difficult conditions

A person's outward manner and conduct (Correct answer)
The act of carrying a heavy load
A navigational direction or heading
Tolerance for difficult conditions

Correct answer: A person's outward manner and conduct

In context, 'bearing' means the dignified, professional demeanor and outward conduct of a service member.

Question 28: A recruit has two minor traffic violations and one misdemeanor trespassing charge. How is this situation most likely categorized for waiver purposes?

As a felony-level offense requiring a high-level waiver
As a minor misconduct pattern requiring a standard moral waiver (Correct answer)
As not requiring any waiver since traffic violations are excluded
As automatically disqualifying with no waiver available

Correct answer: As a minor misconduct pattern requiring a standard moral waiver

Multiple minor offenses are typically grouped as a misconduct pattern and processed through standard moral waiver procedures rather than treated as a single serious offense.

Question 29: CBD (cannabidiol) products present a risk at MEPS drug testing primarily because:

MEPS tests specifically for CBD metabolites
CBD is itself a prohibited substance on the MEPS panel
CBD is chemically identical to THC
Some CBD products contain enough THC to produce a positive marijuana test (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Some CBD products contain enough THC to produce a positive marijuana test

Unregulated CBD products may contain more THC than their labels indicate, and regular use can cause THC metabolites to accumulate above the testing cutoff threshold.

Question 30: What is the consequence of providing false information on a DD Form 1966 (Record of Military Processing)?

It is a federal crime and grounds for immediate disqualification and potential prosecution (Correct answer)
It results only in a temporary enlistment delay
It is noted in the file but does not affect eligibility
It requires the applicant to retake the ASVAB

Correct answer: It is a federal crime and grounds for immediate disqualification and potential prosecution

Falsifying federal military enlistment documents is a federal offense under 18 U.S.C. § 1001 and constitutes fraudulent enlistment.

Question 31: At what point in the pre-screening process does the recruiter submit an applicant's records to the MEPS liaison?

After the medical pre-screen form is reviewed and the applicant is tentatively qualified (Correct answer)
After the applicant passes the ASVAB
Before any medical history is gathered
Only after a waiver is approved

Correct answer: After the medical pre-screen form is reviewed and the applicant is tentatively qualified

Once the DD Form 2807-2 is reviewed and the applicant appears tentatively qualified, the recruiter submits records to schedule the MEPS appointment.

Question 32: What is the difference between a security clearance and a security access authorization (SAA)?

SAAs are only used by civilian DoD employees, not military personnel
A clearance is permanent while an SAA expires annually
A clearance certifies eligibility; an SAA grants access to specific classified information based on need-to-know (Correct answer)
They are identical terms used interchangeably in military regulations

Correct answer: A clearance certifies eligibility; an SAA grants access to specific classified information based on need-to-know

Having a clearance establishes eligibility, but access to specific classified material also requires a demonstrated need-to-know, formalized as an access authorization.

Question 33: Read the passage: 'Sleep deprivation is one of the most common performance-degrading factors in military operations. Research shows that going without sleep for 17 to 19 hours produces impairment equivalent to a blood alcohol level of 0.05%, and 24 hours without sleep is equivalent to 0.10%. Military planners account for sleep cycles when designing extended operations.' What does 24 hours without sleep equal in terms of impairment? A) A blood alcohol level of 0.05% B) A blood alcohol level of 0.08% C) A blood alcohol level of 0.10% D) A blood alcohol level of 0.15%

A blood alcohol level of 0.08%
A blood alcohol level of 0.10% (Correct answer)
A blood alcohol level of 0.05%
A blood alcohol level of 0.15%

Correct answer: A blood alcohol level of 0.10%

The passage states 24 hours without sleep is equivalent to a blood alcohol level of 0.10%.

Question 34: What federal agency primarily conducts background investigations for military security clearances?

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) (Correct answer)
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Correct answer: Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA)

DCSA (formerly NBIB) is the primary federal agency responsible for conducting personnel security background investigations for the Department of Defense.

Question 35: Read the passage: 'The ASVAB Paragraph Comprehension subtest measures your ability to obtain information from written material. You will read short passages and answer questions based solely on what is stated or implied in the passage, not on outside knowledge.' What is the primary purpose of the Paragraph Comprehension subtest? A) To test your general knowledge of military topics B) To measure how well you extract information from written passages C) To evaluate your writing and grammar skills D) To assess your vocabulary range

To test your general knowledge of military topics
To measure how well you extract information from written passages (Correct answer)
To assess your vocabulary range
To evaluate your writing and grammar skills

Correct answer: To measure how well you extract information from written passages

The passage explicitly states that the subtest measures your ability to obtain information from written material.

Question 36: How long is an ASVAB score valid for military enlistment purposes?

6 months
2 years (Correct answer)
1 year
5 years

Correct answer: 2 years

ASVAB scores are valid for two years for military enlistment; after that, applicants must retest.

Question 37: What is a 'moral waiver' in the context of MEPS enlistment processing and job contracts?

Permission to skip the ASVAB retest for a low score
A medical exception for a pre-existing physical condition
Authorization to bypass the commissioning officer interview
Official approval allowing a recruit with a minor criminal history to still enlist (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Official approval allowing a recruit with a minor criminal history to still enlist

A moral waiver is a formal authorization permitting a recruit with minor legal issues (such as misdemeanors) to enlist despite otherwise disqualifying conduct.

Question 38: What is the significance of raising your right hand during the Oath of Enlistment?

It is a traditional gesture indicating a solemn, binding commitment (Correct answer)
It allows the officer to identify the enlistee in a group
It signals that the applicant is physically fit
It is required by federal law to make the oath legally valid

Correct answer: It is a traditional gesture indicating a solemn, binding commitment

Raising the right hand is a long-standing tradition symbolizing the gravity and solemnity of the oath being taken.

Question 39: In military background screening, what is the 'whole person concept'?

A physical fitness assessment covering all body systems
A psychological model used to assess combat readiness
An evaluative approach that considers all positive and negative factors in an applicant's background, not just disqualifying events (Correct answer)
A medical review covering mental and physical health simultaneously

Correct answer: An evaluative approach that considers all positive and negative factors in an applicant's background, not just disqualifying events

The whole person concept means adjudicators weigh disqualifying conduct against mitigating factors, personal growth, and positive attributes to make a holistic decision.

Question 40: Which of the following offenses is generally NOT waiverable in any military branch?

Misdemeanor theft under $500
Sex offenses requiring registration on the sex offender registry (Correct answer)
DUI with no injuries
Minor in possession of alcohol

Correct answer: Sex offenses requiring registration on the sex offender registry

Sex offenses requiring sex offender registry placement are permanently disqualifying and cannot be waived by any military branch.

Question 41: Which category in the PULHES profile specifically evaluates hearing and ear health?

H — Hearing and ears (Correct answer)
E — Eyes
P — Physical capacity
U — Upper extremities

Correct answer: H — Hearing and ears

The 'H' in PULHES stands for Hearing and ears, and a numeric rating from 1 to 4 is assigned based on auditory function.

Question 42: What is the significance of the USMEPCOM Form 680-3-A in the MEPS process?

It is the official enlistment contract (DD Form 4)
It is the applicant's ASVAB score report
It is a pre-screen form used to identify medical history before the official MEPS visit (Correct answer)
It is the oath of enlistment certificate

Correct answer: It is a pre-screen form used to identify medical history before the official MEPS visit

USMEPCOM Form 680-3-A is a pre-accession medical history questionnaire that applicants complete before their MEPS physical examination.

Question 43: Which mental health history finding would most likely require additional documentation or a waiver at MEPS?

Attending a grief support group after a family death
A prior inpatient psychiatric hospitalization for self-harm (Correct answer)
Completing a 6-week stress management course
Seeing a school counselor once for academic stress

Correct answer: A prior inpatient psychiatric hospitalization for self-harm

Inpatient psychiatric treatment, especially for self-harm, is a disqualifying history that typically requires extensive documentation and a waiver review.

Question 44: What happens if an applicant tests positive for marijuana at MEPS?

They can immediately retest
They are permanently barred from all military service
They are immediately arrested
They may apply for a waiver, but policies vary by branch and depend on the amount detected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They may apply for a waiver, but policies vary by branch and depend on the amount detected

A positive marijuana test at MEPS typically results in disqualification, but applicants may seek a waiver; policies vary by branch and current regulations.

Question 45: A recruit wants to become a Navy Aviation Rescue Swimmer (AIRR). Which composite score is typically required?

VE+MK+GS+AS ≥ 185 (Rescue Swimmer composite) (Correct answer)
Arithmetic Reasoning (AR) 50 and Mathematics Knowledge (MK) 50
Verbal (VE) 50 and Mechanical (MK) 50
General Science (GS) 55 and Electronics (EL) 60

Correct answer: VE+MK+GS+AS ≥ 185 (Rescue Swimmer composite)

The Navy AIRR rating requires a combined composite of VE+MK+GS+AS totaling at least 185.

Question 46: There are numerous ways in which birds and reptiles differ from one another. One of the most notable distinctions between the two is the structure of their skeletons, as well as the fact that birds have wings. Reptiles are characterized by their brittle, dense bones, and they can move either on land or in water. Birds are able to fly because their bones are hollow or pneumatic and are filled with air. This makes their bones lighter. In addition, birds have a light beak rather than a heavy jaw or teeth to chew their food with. <br> Birds…

may have a heavy jaw.
have a solid bone structure.
do not have teeth (Correct answer)
can travel faster than reptiles.

Correct answer: do not have teeth

Birds do not have teeth. This is a correct statement based on the information provided in the passage. Unlike reptiles or mammals, birds lack teeth in their oral cavity. Instead of chewing their food, birds have a specialized digestive system that involves the use of a muscular organ called the gizzard, which helps break down food mechanically. <br> The absence of teeth in birds is compensated by their beaks, which are adapted for various purposes depending on the bird's diet and feeding behavior. Different bird species have different types of beaks, such as thin and pointed beaks for insectivorous birds or strong, hooked beaks for birds of prey. The beak is used for grasping, manipulating, and consuming food.

Question 47: A DEP member who takes the Oath of Enlistment but then fails to ship to basic training on their scheduled date is considered:

In breach of their enlistment contract and subject to administrative action (Correct answer)
Eligible for an immediate re-oath with no consequences
A civilian with no legal obligations
Automatically dishonorably discharged

Correct answer: In breach of their enlistment contract and subject to administrative action

Failing to ship after taking the oath and signing a DEP contract constitutes a breach, and the recruiter will attempt administrative separation.

Question 48: In the Navy, what is the equivalent of the Army's MOS called?

NEC
Rating (Correct answer)
AFSC
Designator

Correct answer: Rating

The Navy uses 'Rating' as its enlisted job classification system, equivalent to the Army's MOS.

Question 49: How long can a recruit typically remain in the Delayed Entry Program before reporting to basic training?

Up to 24 months
Up to 6 months
Up to 30 days
Up to 12 months (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Up to 12 months

Recruits can remain in the DEP for up to 12 months (365 days) before they must report to basic training.

Question 50: Which city serves as the headquarters location for MEPCOM?

Washington, D.C.
San Antonio, Texas
Chicago, Illinois (Correct answer)
Fort Bragg, North Carolina

Correct answer: Chicago, Illinois

MEPCOM headquarters is located in Chicago, Illinois, where it coordinates all MEPS operations nationwide.

Question 51: What happens at the conclusion of a successful MEPS visit for an active-duty enlistee?

The applicant takes the Oath of Enlistment and is formally inducted into the military (Correct answer)
The applicant receives their military occupational specialty assignment
The applicant returns home and waits for a written acceptance letter
The applicant is immediately sent to basic training the same day

Correct answer: The applicant takes the Oath of Enlistment and is formally inducted into the military

A successful MEPS visit concludes with the Oath of Enlistment, formally making the applicant a member of the U.S. military.

Question 52: What is the primary purpose of the MEPS blood draw during the medical examination?

To establish a DNA profile for future casualty identification
To test for performance-enhancing drugs and steroids
To conduct a complete blood count (CBC), chemistry panel, urinalysis comparison, and STI screening including HIV and syphilis (Correct answer)
To check for genetic disorders and hereditary diseases

Correct answer: To conduct a complete blood count (CBC), chemistry panel, urinalysis comparison, and STI screening including HIV and syphilis

The MEPS blood draw screens for blood disorders, organ function, and infectious diseases including HIV and syphilis as required by DoD regulation.

Question 53: Which skin condition can disqualify an applicant from military service at MEPS?

A healed surgical scar less than 4 inches long
Severe psoriasis or eczema covering large body surface areas and requiring systemic medication (Correct answer)
Mild acne currently treated with topical cream
A single tattoo on the forearm within branch policy

Correct answer: Severe psoriasis or eczema covering large body surface areas and requiring systemic medication

Extensive inflammatory skin conditions requiring systemic (oral or injectable) immunosuppressive therapy are disqualifying due to medication dependency and field-care limitations.

Question 54: Which branch of service uses the term 'EDPT' (Electronics Data Processing Test) as an additional qualification tool beyond the ASVAB?

Army
Air Force (Correct answer)
Marine Corps
Navy

Correct answer: Air Force

The Air Force uses the EDPT as a supplemental test for highly technical computer and electronics career fields.

Question 55: What is a 'ship date' in the context of MEPS job counseling?

The date an enlistee is scheduled to leave for basic training (Correct answer)
The date an enlistee reports to their permanent duty station
The date the enlistment contract expires
The date the physical examination was completed

Correct answer: The date an enlistee is scheduled to leave for basic training

The ship date is the date the enlistee is scheduled to depart for basic military training (boot camp).

Question 56: What is the minimum AFQT score for the Space Force?

31
50
40
36 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 36

The Space Force, which was established in 2019, follows the Air Force's minimum AFQT requirement of 36.

Question 57: A mechanic in the Army needs a high score on which line score to qualify for vehicle maintenance MOS options?

Surveillance and Communications (SC)
General Technical (GT)
Mechanical Maintenance (MM) (Correct answer)
Combat (CO)

Correct answer: Mechanical Maintenance (MM)

The Mechanical Maintenance (MM) line score, derived from subtests including Mechanical Comprehension and Auto and Shop Information, is required for vehicle maintenance MOS.

Question 58: Which of the following ophthalmological conditions is specifically listed in DoDI 6130.03 as a medically disqualifying condition for military enlistment, often without the possibility of a waiver?

Myopia (nearsightedness) correctable to 20/20 with glasses.
A history of strabismus (lazy eye) that has been surgically corrected.
Keratoconus. (Correct answer)
Astigmatism that is correctable with standard prescription lenses.

Correct answer: Keratoconus.

Keratoconus is a progressive eye disease where the cornea thins and bulges, causing distorted vision. Due to its progressive nature and the difficulty in ensuring stable, corrected vision, DoDI 6130.03 lists it as a medically disqualifying condition. [1, 2, 3] The other listed conditions are typically acceptable if they meet specific standards of correctability.

Question 59: What is a standard ASVAB subtest 'standard score'?

A raw count of questions answered correctly
A passing threshold score set by the military
A score normalized to a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10 based on a reference group (Correct answer)
A score standardized across all branches

Correct answer: A score normalized to a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10 based on a reference group

ASVAB subtest standard scores are normalized scores with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, calculated from the 1997 reference group.

Question 60: During the final ceremony at MEPS, an applicant recites the Oath of Enlistment. What is the primary significance of this act?

It is a preliminary pledge that can be rescinded at any time before the start of basic training without consequence.
It serves as a final confirmation of the applicant's chosen job and ship date.
It is a legally binding vow that officially transitions the individual from civilian to military status and obligates them to the terms of their contract. (Correct answer)
It is a traditional formality that primarily serves to welcome the new member's family.

Correct answer: It is a legally binding vow that officially transitions the individual from civilian to military status and obligates them to the terms of their contract.

The Oath of Enlistment is a formal, legally binding act required by U.S. Code. Taking the oath marks the official point of entry into the armed forces, changing the individual's status from civilian to military member and subjecting them to the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Question 61: When a recruit applies for a high-security clearance MOS, how does a prior moral waiver affect the security clearance process?

Security clearance adjudicators are prohibited from viewing waiver history
A prior waiver automatically disqualifies the recruit from any security clearance
The waiver is disclosed to security clearance adjudicators and may be a factor in their decision (Correct answer)
The waiver has no impact because it was already reviewed by the military

Correct answer: The waiver is disclosed to security clearance adjudicators and may be a factor in their decision

Security clearance investigations are separate from enlistment waiver decisions, and investigators independently evaluate all disclosed history including the waivered offense.

Question 62: What is the primary purpose of the 'Moment of Truth' briefing conducted just prior to an applicant taking their final Oath of Enlistment on their ship date?

To provide a final, formal opportunity for the applicant to disclose any previously concealed disqualifying information before making their final commitment. (Correct answer)
To offer the applicant one last chance to renegotiate their military job or enlistment bonus.
To complete the final pay and benefits paperwork for the applicant's family members and dependents.
To administer a final physical fitness test to ensure the applicant meets the standards for basic training.

Correct answer: To provide a final, formal opportunity for the applicant to disclose any previously concealed disqualifying information before making their final commitment.

The 'Moment of Truth' briefing is a critical final step to ensure the integrity of the enlistment process. Applicants are explicitly warned about the legal consequences of fraudulent enlistment and are given a last chance to reveal any disqualifying facts (medical, legal, etc.) they may have previously hidden.

MEPS Exam

The MEPS Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

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