Law School Admission Test (LSAT) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A pharmaceutical researcher argues that a new antibiotic is effective against a drug-resistant bacterial strain. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Drug-resistant bacteria pose a major threat to public health.
The antibiotic was developed using a novel molecular targeting approach.
The research team has published studies on antibiotic resistance.
Previous antibiotics have failed against this bacterial strain.
Laboratory tests show the antibiotic kills the resistant strain at low concentrations, and animal trials show complete infection clearance with no evidence of new resistance developing. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Laboratory tests show the antibiotic kills the resistant strain at low concentrations, and animal trials show complete infection clearance with no evidence of new resistance developing.

Laboratory efficacy data plus animal trial success and absence of new resistance development provides multi-layered evidence directly supporting both effectiveness and durability of the treatment.

Question 2: On the LSAT, a 'resolve the paradox' question presents two seemingly contradictory facts. The correct answer will:

Explain why one of the two facts is actually false
Provide information that makes both facts compatible (Correct answer)
Show that the contradiction is actually a flaw in the argument
Identify which fact is more important for the argument

Correct answer: Provide information that makes both facts compatible

The correct answer to a paradox question reconciles both stated facts by providing a context or explanation that allows both to be true simultaneously.

Question 3: A sequencing game places six variables in a single row. Variable A must be placed before variable B. Variable C must be placed after variable D. Variable E must be placed immediately after variable F. If F is placed in position 2, which of the following must be true?

A is placed in position 1.
D is placed before position 2.
B is placed after position 3.
E is placed in position 3. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: E is placed in position 3.

Since E must be placed immediately after F, and F is in position 2, E must be in position 3.

Question 4: The argument 'You can't trust Dr. Chen's research on sugar; she consumes a lot of soda' is an example of which fallacy?

Ad hominem (tu quoque) (Correct answer)
False equivalence
Straw man
Begging the question

Correct answer: Ad hominem (tu quoque)

Attacking the researcher's personal habits rather than her methodology or data is a tu quoque (you also do it) form of ad hominem.

Question 5: A legal scholar argues that mandatory minimum sentencing laws have failed to deter drug crimes because drug offense rates have not declined in states with such laws. A critic responds that rates might have been even higher without the laws. Which of the following most strengthens the legal scholar's original argument against this criticism? (A) Mandatory minimum laws have been criticized by judges who believe they prevent individualized sentencing. (B) Comparable states without mandatory minimum laws have experienced equal or greater declines in drug offense rates over the same period. (C) The implementation of mandatory minimum laws has led to prison overcrowding in several states. (D) Drug enforcement budgets increased in states that adopted mandatory minimum laws.

Mandatory minimum laws have been criticized by judges who believe they prevent individualized sentencing.
The implementation of mandatory minimum laws has led to prison overcrowding in several states.
Drug enforcement budgets increased in states that adopted mandatory minimum laws.
Comparable states without mandatory minimum laws have experienced equal or greater declines in drug offense rates over the same period. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Comparable states without mandatory minimum laws have experienced equal or greater declines in drug offense rates over the same period.

Option B defeats the critic's counterfactual by showing that states without the laws did just as well or better, undermining the claim that rates would have been higher without mandatory minimums.

Question 6: Historian: To be considered a truly great military leader, one must have demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield. Alexander the Great is widely considered a truly great military leader.

Strategic brilliance is the only quality required to be a great military leader.
Alexander the Great demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield. (Correct answer)
Only military leaders can be considered truly great.
All leaders considered truly great have demonstrated strategic brilliance.

Correct answer: Alexander the Great demonstrated strategic brilliance on the battlefield.

This is a necessary assumption question. The argument presents a rule (Great Leader -> Strategic Brilliance) and then states an example that fits the 'Great Leader' category. For the example to be consistent with the rule, the example must also possess the quality mentioned in the rule. The argument requires the unstated premise that Alexander the Great actually meets the condition set forth for all great military leaders. If Alexander did NOT demonstrate strategic brilliance, the argument would fall apart. Therefore, assuming he did is necessary. The Negation Test works here: if Alexander the Great did *not* demonstrate strategic brilliance, the premise and conclusion would be contradictory.

Question 7: An economist argues that free trade agreements benefit developing countries more than developed ones. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed. (B) Free trade agreements have been controversial in many developed countries due to concerns about job losses. (C) Not all developing countries have benefited equally from past free trade agreements. (D) Developed countries already have access to most global markets even without formal agreements.

Free trade agreements have been controversial in many developed countries due to concerns about job losses.
Developed countries already have access to most global markets even without formal agreements.
Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed. (Correct answer)
Not all developing countries have benefited equally from past free trade agreements.

Correct answer: Developing countries typically have lower labor costs, making their exports more competitive when tariffs are removed.

Option A identifies a structural advantage developing countries have when trade barriers are removed, directly supporting the claim that they benefit more.

Question 8: A climate scientist argues that ocean acidification caused by CO2 absorption is harming coral reef ecosystems. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Oceans absorb approximately 30% of human-produced CO2 emissions.
Some coral species appear more resilient to acidification than others.
Controlled aquarium experiments exposing coral to seawater with elevated CO2 concentrations show measurably reduced calcification rates and skeletal weakening at concentrations already observed in some ocean regions. (Correct answer)
Coral reefs support approximately 25% of marine biodiversity.
Ocean temperatures have been rising alongside acidification.

Correct answer: Controlled aquarium experiments exposing coral to seawater with elevated CO2 concentrations show measurably reduced calcification rates and skeletal weakening at concentrations already observed in some ocean regions.

Controlled experiments demonstrating the specific biological mechanism at CO2 concentrations already present in some ocean regions provides strong causal evidence linking acidification to coral harm.

Question 9: A passage notes that in a blind taste test, 60% of participants preferred the generic brand over the name brand of a soft drink. What can most safely be inferred?

Most consumers cannot distinguish between soft drink brands
The generic brand has superior ingredients
Name brand loyalty among consumers may be influenced by factors other than taste (Correct answer)
The name brand will lose market share to the generic brand

Correct answer: Name brand loyalty among consumers may be influenced by factors other than taste

When taste preferences don't match purchasing behavior, non-taste factors like branding must be influencing consumer choices.

Question 10: On Sufficient Assumption questions, correct answer choices are often characterized as:

Narrow statements limited to a single case
Broader conditional statements that cover the argument's logical gap (Correct answer)
Weakenings of the argument's conclusion
Restatements of a premise already in the argument

Correct answer: Broader conditional statements that cover the argument's logical gap

Sufficient assumption answers tend to be broader 'if-then' statements that, when plugged in, guarantee the conclusion logically follows.

Question 11: A marketing executive argues that the company's new ad campaign increased sales because sales rose 20% in the quarter the campaign launched. Which most weakens this argument?

Ad campaigns are expensive and their ROI should be carefully measured.
A major competitor went bankrupt at the start of the same quarter, likely driving their customers to the company. (Correct answer)
The campaign ran across television, digital, and print media.
The 20% increase exceeded the company's forecast.

Correct answer: A major competitor went bankrupt at the start of the same quarter, likely driving their customers to the company.

A competitor's bankruptcy is an alternative explanation that could independently cause the sales increase.

Question 12: An economist argues that raising the minimum wage will increase unemployment because employers will hire fewer workers when labor costs rise. Which most weakens this argument?

Higher wages increase worker purchasing power, stimulating demand and potentially creating more jobs. (Correct answer)
Some industries rely heavily on part-time workers.
Other countries have higher minimum wages than the US.
Minimum wage increases are politically popular.

Correct answer: Higher wages increase worker purchasing power, stimulating demand and potentially creating more jobs.

Increased consumer spending from higher wages could raise demand for goods and services, leading employers to hire more rather than fewer workers.

Question 13: A physics passage explains that quantum entanglement allows two particles to exhibit correlated states instantaneously regardless of distance. A student reading this passage for LSAT purposes should recognize that the author's claim depends on:

The philosophical position that science cannot prove causation in any domain
Mathematical proofs that have not yet been subjected to experimental verification
Empirical evidence demonstrating correlations that cannot be explained by pre-shared information alone (Correct answer)
The assumption that classical mechanics adequately describes subatomic particles

Correct answer: Empirical evidence demonstrating correlations that cannot be explained by pre-shared information alone

The entanglement claim is grounded in Bell test experiments showing correlations that rule out local hidden variable explanations.

Question 14: How many times may a test-taker sit for the LSAT in a single testing year (August through June)?

7 times
5 times (Correct answer)
2 times
3 times

Correct answer: 5 times

Test-takers are limited to five LSAT attempts in any single testing year (August–June cycle).

Question 15: A toxicologist argues that exposure to a specific industrial chemical at concentrations found near manufacturing plants increases cancer risk in nearby residents. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Environmental regulations limit permissible chemical concentrations.
The chemical is used in the production of plastics and rubber.
Animal studies exposing subjects to the chemical at these concentrations show significantly elevated cancer rates, and epidemiological data on human populations near plants shows a 2.5-fold cancer rate increase that persists after controlling for smoking and occupational exposures. (Correct answer)
Cancer has many known and suspected causes.
Residents near industrial plants often have lower incomes and less access to healthcare.

Correct answer: Animal studies exposing subjects to the chemical at these concentrations show significantly elevated cancer rates, and epidemiological data on human populations near plants shows a 2.5-fold cancer rate increase that persists after controlling for smoking and occupational exposures.

Convergent evidence from both animal studies (establishing mechanism) and human epidemiology (with confound control) provides multi-level support that strengthens the causal cancer risk claim.

Question 16: Sociologist: 'Every member of the research team is an expert in their respective field—we have a leading statistician, a renowned ethnographer, and a developmental psychologist with decades of experience. Therefore, the research team as a whole is guaranteed to be an expert team.' The reasoning is flawed because it...

relies on the ambiguous term 'expert'.
assumes that properties of the individual parts of a group necessarily apply to the group as a whole. (Correct answer)
fails to consider that the members' areas of expertise might not be relevant to the research topic.
appeals to the authority of the researchers without providing evidence for their claims.

Correct answer: assumes that properties of the individual parts of a group necessarily apply to the group as a whole.

This argument commits a fallacy of composition, also known as a part-to-whole flaw. It assumes that because each individual member of the team has a positive quality (being an expert), the team as a collective unit will automatically possess that same quality. However, a team of experts can fail to function as an expert team due to poor communication, conflicting methodologies, or lack of leadership. The quality of the parts does not guarantee the quality of the whole.

Question 17: Passage A Originalism as a theory of constitutional interpretation holds that the Constitution should be interpreted according to the original public meaning of its text at the time it was ratified. Proponents argue that this approach provides an essential check on judicial power, preventing judges from substituting their own policy preferences for the law. By anchoring interpretation in a fixed, historical meaning, originalism aims to ensure stability and predictability in constitutional law. It forces judges to act as neutral arbiters applying established rules, rather than as legislators creating new ones. This fidelity to the text, proponents contend, is the only way to legitimately uphold the rule of law and respect the democratic process that created the Constitution. Passage B The theory of the "living Constitution" posits that the Constitution's meaning must evolve to meet the needs of a changing society. Adherents argue that the framers intentionally used broad, principled language to allow for flexible application by future generations. To treat the Constitution as a static, 'dead' document is to ignore societal progress and risk applying eighteenth-century solutions to twenty-first-century problems. This interpretive approach does not grant judges unlimited discretion; rather, it requires them to balance the text's original principles with contemporary values and realities. It is through this dynamic process, adherents claim, that the Constitution remains a relevant and enduring charter of governance. The authors of both passages would be most likely to agree that:

the Constitution was written with intentionally ambiguous language.
the primary goal of constitutional interpretation is to constrain the power of judges.
a proper interpretive theory is essential for the legitimacy of the legal system. (Correct answer)
the original principles of the Constitution are no longer relevant in modern society.

Correct answer: a proper interpretive theory is essential for the legitimacy of the legal system.

Both passages, despite their opposing views, are fundamentally concerned with establishing a legitimate and proper method for interpreting the Constitution. Passage A argues for the legitimacy of originalism in upholding the rule of law, while Passage B argues for the legitimacy of a 'living Constitution' approach to ensure the document's relevance. Therefore, both authors agree on the importance of having a valid interpretive theory for the legal system's legitimacy. Choice A is a core argument of Passage A, but not Passage B. Choice B is an argument of Passage B, which Passage A implicitly refutes by arguing for a fixed meaning. Choice D is a position that the author of Passage B might be accused of, but it is an extreme view that neither author explicitly endorses.

Question 18: A playhouse director is attempting to choose seven shows for the forthcoming season. The performances include a mix of comedies, tragedies, one-act plays, and musicals. At least one performance from each of these genres is featured in each season. The following guidelines must be followed by the director while selecting and staging shows: 1. Either a comedy or a musical must be performed first. 2. One-act plays cannot be the season's sixth or seventh show. 3. At least two comedies are required. 4. There can't be two of the same genre in a row. 5. If the third performance isn't a one-act, it must be a musical. Which of the following is a possible season sequence if the second show is a musical and the sixth show is a tragedy?

comedy, musical, one-acts, comedy, musical, tragedy, one-acts
comedy, musical, one-acts, tragedy, one-acts, tragedy, comedy (Correct answer)
comedy, musical, comedy, tragedy, comedy, tragedy, musical
comedy, musical, one-acts, tragedy, one-acts, tragedy, musical
comedy, musical, comedy, tragedy, one-acts, tragedy, musical

Correct answer: comedy, musical, one-acts, tragedy, one-acts, tragedy, comedy

Given that the second show is a musical (M) and the sixth is a tragedy (T), the first show must be a comedy (C) to avoid consecutive genres and satisfy Rule 1. Rule 5 states that if the third performance isn't a one-act, it must be a musical; since the second is a musical, the third cannot also be a musical (Rule 4), so the third must be a one-act (O). The correct sequence, C M O T O T C, adheres to all rules: the first show is a comedy, one-act plays are not in the 6th or 7th position, there are at least two comedies, no genres repeat consecutively, the third show is a one-act, and all four genres are present.

Question 19: Passage A uses the metaphor of a 'marketplace of ideas' to defend free speech. Passage B critiques this metaphor as inapt. A question about the function of this metaphor in the paired passages would primarily explore:

How the metaphor anchors Passage A's argument and becomes the focal point of Passage B's critique (Correct answer)
Whether metaphors are appropriate in legal writing
The historical origin of the 'marketplace of ideas' concept
The economic implications of free speech regulation

Correct answer: How the metaphor anchors Passage A's argument and becomes the focal point of Passage B's critique

When one passage introduces a key metaphor and the other critiques it, the metaphor becomes a structural link between the passages that questions will exploit.

Question 20: 1Every schoolboy is familiar with the broad strokes of Macaulay's life and work, to use one of his own favorite adages. We have recited the Lays, presumably read some of the History, and perhaps even heard of his eloquent and unrestrained criticism of writers whose works offended him. Even if his assertions weren't always correct, we know that his recall was incredible. The biographers go on to say that no one could be more uncomplicated or more dedicated to his own family; his nephews and nieces were unaware of his greatness and considered him to be their favorite "Uncle Tom." Of course, criticism is far from unanimity. 'Macaulay, the great prophet of Whiggery which never had or will have a prophet, vehemently judged that a man who could pass over from the celestial Whigs to the infernal Tories must be a traitor false as Judas, an apostate black,' observed Mr. Augustine Birrell wryly. James Thomson epitomized his political bias in a biting sentence: "Macaulay, historiographer in chief to the Whig Always a youngster at heart and utterly unconcerned with his appearance, Macaulay had such incredible success in every field that envy may be to blame for the majority of personal criticism that isn't motivated by obvious rivals. Those who referred to him as a bore were probably being overly sensitive about their own incapacity to counter ideas or viewpoints that they yearned to oppose. When the magnificent piece on the translation of a recently discovered Milton dissertation on Christian Doctrine appeared in the Edinburgh (1825) and unleashed a new force in English prose, he was a student at Lincoln's Inn. Even though Macaulay admitted it was "overloaded with garish and ungraceful argument," it cemented his literary reputation and shaped a significant portion of his career. He gained control over the 21Edinburgh, perhaps slightly altering its overall tone, and started to identify with its reputation. Christopher North claims that "the son of a Saint," who appears to be some sort of reviewer, is "insidious as the serpent, but fangless as the glow worm." The Tory press, of course, was outraged at the champion critic of their favorite prodigies. Read passage A, then decide which statement or statements most accurately describe a claim made in passage A alone.

Claim: Its' apparent that the cosmical cause must be sought for in the relations of our sun and moon.
It was shown, however, by Laplace that the change of obliquity was confined within so narrow limits that it has scarcely ever been appealed to as a cause seriously affecting climate. (Correct answer)
Claim: Before post-glacial periods, in particular, the complexity and velocity of climate changes become more apparent.
Claim: Climatic changes are an independent source of crustal movements seems so implausible that no one seems to have given it any serious thought.

Correct answer: It was shown, however, by Laplace that the change of obliquity was confined within so narrow limits that it has scarcely ever been appealed to as a cause seriously affecting climate.

The correct response option, which can be found in Passage A-end of paragraph, raises the possibility that the assertion of possible impacts of climate change is demonstrable and is supported by citing the statements of Sir John Herschel and a few other astronomers who focused their attention on the consideration. The other answer choices don't explicitly spell out the evidence supporting the assertions in Passage A alone.

Question 21: In a Logical Reasoning stimulus, the author's main point is often distinguished from background information because the main point:

Appears first in the stimulus
Contains statistical data
Is stated in the most complex language
Is the claim that all other statements are meant to support or establish (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Is the claim that all other statements are meant to support or establish

The main point (conclusion) is the claim that the premises are designed to support; background information merely sets context without requiring logical support.

Question 22: In a defined grouping game, the rule 'No more than 2 members of Group A can be selected' functions primarily as:

An ordering constraint for Group A
A biconditional linking Groups A and B
A maximum constraint on Group A (Correct answer)
A minimum constraint on Group A

Correct answer: A maximum constraint on Group A

The phrase 'no more than 2' sets an upper limit (maximum) on the size of Group A.

Question 23: A political scientist argues that mandatory voting laws increase democratic representation by giving voice to typically underrepresented groups. Which of the following most strengthens this argument?

Mandatory voting exists in approximately 30 countries worldwide.
Countries that adopted mandatory voting showed that turnout increases were concentrated among lower-income, younger, and minority voters, and policy outcomes subsequently shifted toward programs benefiting these groups. (Correct answer)
Some mandatory voting countries have significant non-compliance rates.
Compulsory voting may conflict with freedom of political expression.
Voter registration procedures vary widely across countries.

Correct answer: Countries that adopted mandatory voting showed that turnout increases were concentrated among lower-income, younger, and minority voters, and policy outcomes subsequently shifted toward programs benefiting these groups.

Evidence that turnout increases are specifically concentrated in underrepresented groups, combined with policy changes benefiting those groups, directly supports both the representation and the democratic outcomes claimed.

Question 24: A city manager argues that implementing a congestion pricing scheme (charging drivers a fee to enter the downtown core during peak hours) will improve air quality. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Air quality in the downtown core is currently below federal standards for particulate matter. (B) A significant portion of downtown air pollution comes from vehicle exhaust, and congestion pricing in other cities has reduced vehicle traffic by 20% or more during peak hours. (C) Congestion pricing revenues can be used to fund public transit improvements. (D) Some commuters will not have access to alternative transportation even if fees are imposed.

Some commuters will not have access to alternative transportation even if fees are imposed.
Air quality in the downtown core is currently below federal standards for particulate matter.
A significant portion of downtown air pollution comes from vehicle exhaust, and congestion pricing in other cities has reduced vehicle traffic by 20% or more during peak hours. (Correct answer)
Congestion pricing revenues can be used to fund public transit improvements.

Correct answer: A significant portion of downtown air pollution comes from vehicle exhaust, and congestion pricing in other cities has reduced vehicle traffic by 20% or more during peak hours.

Option B establishes both that vehicles are the source of the air quality problem and that congestion pricing demonstrably reduces vehicle traffic, completing the causal chain to improved air quality.

Question 25: Passage: The theory of plate tectonics, now the foundational framework of modern geology, was initially met with ridicule when Alfred Wegener proposed continental drift in 1912. Wegener's hypothesis that the continents had once formed a single landmass—Pangaea—and had since drifted apart was based on the geometric fit of continental coastlines, similar fossil assemblages on separated continents, and matching geological formations across ocean basins. However, Wegener could not explain the mechanism by which continents moved, and the geological establishment rejected his ideas for decades. The discovery of seafloor spreading in the 1960s, which revealed that new oceanic crust is continuously created at mid-ocean ridges and destroyed at subduction zones, provided the missing mechanism. The integration of seafloor spreading with continental drift formed the comprehensive theory of plate tectonics. The passage suggests that Wegener's theory was rejected primarily because:

Fossil evidence contradicted his continental drift hypothesis.
Ocean basin exploration had not yet begun in his era.
His evidence for matching coastlines was inaccurate.
He could not account for the force or mechanism that moved continents. (Correct answer)
The geological community was ideologically opposed to paradigm shifts.

Correct answer: He could not account for the force or mechanism that moved continents.

The passage explicitly states Wegener 'could not explain the mechanism by which continents moved, and the geological establishment rejected his ideas for decades.'

Question 26: Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument that mandatory sentencing laws reduce violent crime?

Mandatory sentencing laws are popular with voters in most regions.
Violent crime rates fell in states with mandatory sentencing but remained flat in comparable states without such laws. (Correct answer)
States that enacted mandatory sentencing also improved their economies during the same period.
Judges in mandatory-sentencing states report feeling constrained in their rulings.

Correct answer: Violent crime rates fell in states with mandatory sentencing but remained flat in comparable states without such laws.

A controlled comparison showing crime fell under mandatory sentencing but not without it provides direct causal evidence for the claim.

Question 27: What is the purpose of 'error logging' or keeping an 'error journal' during LSAT prep?

To count the number of PrepTests completed before your exam date
To track how many questions you complete each day for motivation
To document every question stem verbatim for memorization
To systematically record why you missed questions so you can target recurring weaknesses (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To systematically record why you missed questions so you can target recurring weaknesses

An error journal reveals patterns in your mistakes — for example, consistently missing 'Weaken' questions or misreading conditional logic — so study time targets real weaknesses.

Question 28: A logic game involves grouping four types of fruit — apples (A), bananas (B), cherries (C), and dates (D) — into two baskets. Each basket must contain at least one fruit, and each fruit goes into exactly one basket. If A and C cannot be in the same basket, and B and D cannot be in the same basket, how many valid distributions exist?

4
8
2
6 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6

The constraints force A and C to split baskets and B and D to split baskets; the valid combinations are {A,B}/{C,D}, {A,D}/{C,B}, {C,B}/{A,D}, {C,D}/{A,B} — but since baskets are distinguishable, there are 4 arrangements, and swapping baskets gives 4 more, but since {A,B}/{C,D} and {C,D}/{A,B} are the same partition, there are only 4 distinct labeled distributions.

Question 29: A university switched from letter grades to detailed written evaluations, believing this would reduce student anxiety about grades and improve learning. Student anxiety scores, however, increased after the switch. Which of the following most helps explain this?

The switch signaled to students that the university doubted their ability to handle direct numerical feedback.
Professors wrote harsher critiques in written form than they would have expressed through letter grades.
Graduate school admissions and employers continued to expect letter grades, and the uncertainty about how written evaluations would be interpreted created new sources of anxiety. (Correct answer)
Written evaluations required students to read lengthy feedback, which was more time-consuming and stressful than checking a single letter grade.

Correct answer: Graduate school admissions and employers continued to expect letter grades, and the uncertainty about how written evaluations would be interpreted created new sources of anxiety.

External stakeholders' continued reliance on letter grades meant that written evaluations created uncertainty about future outcomes, generating more anxiety than letter grades had.

Question 30: A passage states that a judge consistently rules in favor of plaintiffs in personal injury cases involving corporations. Which inference is best supported by this information alone?

Corporations should avoid litigation in this judge's court
The judge is biased against corporations
Plaintiffs in such cases tend to have stronger legal arguments before this judge
The judge's rulings reflect a pattern that favors plaintiffs in this case type (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The judge's rulings reflect a pattern that favors plaintiffs in this case type

The passage establishes only a behavioral pattern; inferring bias or legal strength goes beyond what the data supports.

Question 31: An LSAT passage uses an analogy comparing the brain's neural networks to a city's transportation grid. A question asks what the analogy is meant to illustrate. The best answer would identify:

That brains and cities have evolved for similar purposes
How a complex system's efficiency depends on the connectivity and capacity of its pathways (Correct answer)
The historical relationship between urban planning and neuroscience
That neural networks can be physically mapped onto city streets

Correct answer: How a complex system's efficiency depends on the connectivity and capacity of its pathways

The analogy draws on the shared structural principle that both systems depend on well-connected, high-capacity pathways for efficient functioning.

Question 32: A nonprofit distributed free mosquito nets to a region with high malaria rates. After two years, malaria cases in the region had not declined. Which of the following most helps explain this finding?

Residents used the nets during the day but slept outdoors at night without them, because daytime napping was culturally more common than nighttime sleeping under nets. (Correct answer)
The mosquito nets were of inferior quality and provided inadequate protection against the specific mosquito species in the region.
Malaria is caused by a parasite, not a mosquito, so nets would not address the root cause.
The nonprofit distributed fewer nets than needed to cover the population, leaving many residents without protection.

Correct answer: Residents used the nets during the day but slept outdoors at night without them, because daytime napping was culturally more common than nighttime sleeping under nets.

If sleeping patterns mean nets are used at the wrong time, their protective function is negated even though they are physically present in homes.

Question 33: A financial analyst argues that investing in gold protects wealth during recessions because gold prices rose during the last three recessions. Which most weakens this argument?

Gold is traded globally across different currencies.
Gold has been used as a store of value for centuries.
Investors often diversify portfolios across multiple asset classes.
Three recessions is too small a sample to establish a reliable pattern, and gold prices fell sharply during some other significant economic downturns. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Three recessions is too small a sample to establish a reliable pattern, and gold prices fell sharply during some other significant economic downturns.

Citing only three favorable cases while ignoring contrary evidence constitutes cherry-picking and undermines the generalization.

Question 34: Passage: Quantum entanglement—the phenomenon in which two or more particles become correlated such that the quantum state of each particle cannot be described independently of the others—was famously described by Einstein as 'spooky action at a distance.' Einstein's skepticism reflected his commitment to local realism: the principle that physical properties are determined locally and that no information can travel faster than light. Bell's theorem, formulated in 1964, provided a mathematical test to distinguish between local hidden variable theories (which would preserve local realism) and quantum mechanical predictions. Experiments testing Bell's inequalities—notably those of Alain Aspect in the 1980s—have consistently violated the inequalities, supporting quantum mechanical predictions and suggesting that local realism cannot be maintained. However, physicists continue to debate the implications: some argue the results demonstrate nonlocal correlations that do not require information transfer, while others maintain that quantum mechanics is incomplete. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Einstein's position on quantum entanglement?

Einstein was unaware of Bell's theorem and its implications.
Einstein agreed with Bell that quantum mechanics is a complete theory.
Einstein believed that the apparent correlations of entanglement should be explainable without violating local realism. (Correct answer)
Einstein accepted quantum entanglement but believed it required faster-than-light communication.
Einstein rejected quantum mechanics entirely and proposed an alternative theory.

Correct answer: Einstein believed that the apparent correlations of entanglement should be explainable without violating local realism.

Einstein's 'commitment to local realism' and skepticism ('spooky action at a distance') indicate he believed quantum entanglement correlations should have a local, realistic explanation—not violate local realism.

Question 35: A gym teacher wants his six students to form a line from lowest to tallest in height order. Cassy and Kris are two young ladies. The boys are Barry, Jay, Wilson, and Darren. - Wilson is neither the tallest nor the shortest person. - There isn't a girl in the room who is taller than Jay. - Darren is taller than Theresa but shorter than Cassy. - Barry is the tallest of the group. What must be true if Jay is the second tallest?

Cassy is not the shortest or second shortest. (Correct answer)
Willson is 2nd shortest.
Willson is 5th tallest.
Darren is the 2nd tallest.
Willson is 4th tallest.

Correct answer: Cassy is not the shortest or second shortest.

Explanation: lf Jay is 2nd tallest, that means Willson can go anywhere but 6th, 2nd or lst tallest positions. Since Cassy is taller than Darren, and Kris is shorter than Darren, each of their positions can be altered by Willson. Thus, the only certainty, is that Cassy cannot be the first or second in line, because Kris and Darren must precede her.

Question 36: A science passage describes the development of mRNA vaccine technology, noting that it had been researched for decades before COVID-19 created conditions for rapid deployment. This historical context most likely serves to:

Show that mRNA technology should have been deployed in earlier pandemics
Argue that vaccine development was unnecessarily delayed by regulatory red tape
Counter the perception that mRNA vaccines were developed recklessly quickly by showing the underlying science was mature (Correct answer)
Demonstrate that private investment, not government funding, drove vaccine research

Correct answer: Counter the perception that mRNA vaccines were developed recklessly quickly by showing the underlying science was mature

Providing the decades-long research history addresses the concern that speed of development reflected inadequate safety testing.

Question 37: In a logical reasoning question, which of the following most accurately describes the flaw of 'affirming the consequent'?

Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is true, P must be true (Correct answer)
Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is false, P must be false
Concluding that because P and Q are both true, P must imply Q
Concluding that because P implies Q, and P is false, Q must be false

Correct answer: Concluding that because P implies Q, and Q is true, P must be true

Affirming the consequent incorrectly assumes that if the conclusion of a conditional is true, the premise must also be true.

Question 38: A company that increased its quality control standards and rejected more defective products before shipment found that customer complaints about product defects actually increased. Which of the following most helps to explain this paradox?

Higher quality standards required more complex manufacturing processes that were harder to execute.
Some defective products that quality control rejected were later shipped incorrectly.
Customers were disappointed that price increases accompanied the quality improvement.
The quality control process itself introduced new defects through additional handling.
The stricter quality standards communicated to customers that higher quality was expected, making customers more attuned to any remaining imperfections and more likely to report minor issues they previously tolerated. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The stricter quality standards communicated to customers that higher quality was expected, making customers more attuned to any remaining imperfections and more likely to report minor issues they previously tolerated.

Expectation elevation paradox: by marketing improved quality, the company raised customer standards, making customers more attentive to and intolerant of remaining imperfections—complaint rates reflect expectation gaps, not absolute quality.

Question 39: The World Tribune's print circulation has decreased by 40% during the last two years. However, at the same time period, there was a 30% rise in internet visitors for the newspaper. The most popular web pages on the internet are the several news sections and blogs that are not included in the print newspaper. As a result, in order to continue making money, the newspaper has chosen to stop publishing its still-profitable print version and add additional content to its internet that is similar to the exclusive content on its most popular pages. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the decision of The World Tribune depends?

To access the content on the newspaper's website, the readers of the website will be willing to pay a monthly subscription fees that is equal to the revenue that the print edition of the newspaper earned per reader each month.
Introducing more content similar to the exclusive content on the most read pages of the website will increase the newspaper's website traffic further. (Correct answer)
The print circulation of the newspaper declined in the past two years because the newspaper's website offered more interesting content.
The print circulation of the newspaper would not have declined further in the near future.
The revenue earned from increased website traffic will not be less than the revenue lost by discontinuing the print edition.

Correct answer: Introducing more content similar to the exclusive content on the most read pages of the website will increase the newspaper's website traffic further.

The newspaper's decision to discontinue its profitable print edition and add more exclusive web content is driven by the goal to 'continue making money.' This strategy relies on the assumption that increasing the amount of content similar to its already popular exclusive web pages will lead to a further increase in website traffic. If this additional content does not attract more visitors, the newspaper risks losing the revenue from its print edition without sufficiently compensating for it through increased online revenue, thus failing to meet its financial goal. Therefore, the decision assumes that more content will lead to more traffic.

Question 40: Ethicist: 'We are obligated to prevent great harm when we can do so at little cost to ourselves. Donating $50 to famine relief can save a child's life and costs me little. Therefore, I am obligated to donate.' A critic objects that this principle would require constant sacrifice since there is always suffering to prevent. This objection is best described as:

An appeal to popular opinion about the limits of moral obligation.
A reductio ad absurdum showing the principle has unacceptable implications if consistently applied. (Correct answer)
A personal attack on the ethicist's credibility.
A straw man misrepresentation of the ethicist's actual principle.

Correct answer: A reductio ad absurdum showing the principle has unacceptable implications if consistently applied.

The critic extends the principle to its logical extreme to show it demands constant sacrifice, a reductio strategy that challenges the principle's acceptability.

Question 41: An LSAT passage about regulatory science states: 'Risk assessment separates scientific determination of harm from policy judgments about acceptable risk.' Which of the following best illustrates this distinction?

A court overrules an agency's risk assessment on procedural grounds
An agency bans a substance before completing its toxicological review
A senator argues that a chemical is safe based on industry-funded studies
A chemist determines that a compound causes cancer in lab animals; Congress then sets exposure limits based on economic costs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A chemist determines that a compound causes cancer in lab animals; Congress then sets exposure limits based on economic costs

The first option cleanly separates the scientific finding (harm determination) from the policy choice (acceptable exposure level), matching the passage's stated distinction.

Question 42: A politician argues that stricter gun control laws will reduce gun violence because countries with stricter laws have lower rates of gun violence. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Those countries also differ from this country in poverty rates, cultural attitudes, and law enforcement practices. (Correct answer)
Some gun control measures have bipartisan support.
Gun ownership rates vary significantly across different regions.
Gun violence affects both urban and rural communities.
The number of guns in circulation has increased over the past decade.

Correct answer: Those countries also differ from this country in poverty rates, cultural attitudes, and law enforcement practices.

The comparison fails to account for numerous confounding differences between countries, meaning gun laws alone cannot explain the different violence rates.

Question 43: Johnson's gas costs went up after he switched to a new, highly efficient, pilotless gas water heater to replace his old one. Each of the following, if true, contributes to an explanation of the increase mentioned above EXCEPT:

The new water heater uses a smaller percentage of the gas used by Johnson's household than did the old one. (Correct answer)
Shortly after the new water heater was installed, Johnson’s uncle came to live with him, doubling the size of the household.
Unusually cold weather following installation of the new water heater resulted in heavy gas usage.
Johnson’s utility company raised the rates for gas consumption following the installation of the new water heater.
After having done his laundry at a laundromat, Johnson bought and started using a gas dryer when he replaced his water heater.

Correct answer: The new water heater uses a smaller percentage of the gas used by Johnson's household than did the old one.

Every other choice supplies a reason gas costs could rise despite an efficient heater—a new gas dryer, a larger household, cold weather, or a rate hike. Saying the new heater uses a smaller percentage of the household's gas than the old one points toward lower usage, not higher cost, so it fails to explain the increase and is the EXCEPT.

Question 44: Five city inspections are scheduled Monday through Friday. Rules: City A is inspected before City B; City C is inspected on Wednesday; City D is inspected on the day immediately before City E. If City B is inspected on Friday, which day is City A inspected?

Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, or Thursday
Monday, Tuesday, or Thursday (Correct answer)
Monday or Tuesday only
Thursday only

Correct answer: Monday, Tuesday, or Thursday

A must be before B (Friday), so A can be Mon–Thu; but C is fixed on Wednesday, so if A is Wednesday then A=C which is impossible, leaving Mon, Tue, or Thu for A.

Question 45: A study group of 4 is formed from 8 students—1 through 8. Student 1 and student 2 cannot both be in the group. Student 3 must be in the group if student 4 is not. Student 5 and student 6 must both be in or both out. Student 7 is not available. Student 8 is always included. Which of the following is an acceptable study group?

1, 3, 5, 8
3, 5, 6, 8
2, 3, 6, 8
1, 2, 5, 8
4, 5, 6, 8 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 4, 5, 6, 8

Check 4, 5, 6, 8: Students 1 and 2: neither present ✓. Student 4 is present, so condition '3 must be in if 4 is not' is not triggered ✓. Students 5 and 6 both present ✓. Student 7 not present ✓. Student 8 present ✓. Valid group.

Question 46: A nutritionist claims that eliminating refined sugar from one's diet leads to improved mental clarity. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this claim? (A) Many people find it difficult to completely eliminate refined sugar from their diets. (B) Studies show that blood glucose spikes from refined sugar are followed by energy crashes that impair cognitive function. (C) Mental clarity is difficult to measure objectively in clinical settings. (D) Some refined sugar substitutes have been linked to digestive issues.

Mental clarity is difficult to measure objectively in clinical settings.
Some refined sugar substitutes have been linked to digestive issues.
Studies show that blood glucose spikes from refined sugar are followed by energy crashes that impair cognitive function. (Correct answer)
Many people find it difficult to completely eliminate refined sugar from their diets.

Correct answer: Studies show that blood glucose spikes from refined sugar are followed by energy crashes that impair cognitive function.

Option B provides a causal mechanism explaining why eliminating refined sugar would improve mental clarity, directly strengthening the nutritionist's claim.

Question 47: An attorney is to a client what a _ is to a .

seller : buyer
talent agent : actor (Correct answer)
plaintiff : defendant
member of Congress : voter

Correct answer: talent agent : actor

The relationship 'attorney is to a client' signifies a professional who represents and advocates for another individual's interests. A talent agent similarly represents and advocates for an actor's professional interests, such as securing roles and negotiating contracts. This parallel relationship of professional representation makes 'talent agent : actor' the correct answer.

Question 48: A study found that neighborhoods with more police patrols have higher crime rates than neighborhoods with fewer police patrols. Which of the following most helps to explain this finding without concluding that police patrols cause crime?

Some police officers engage in misconduct that alienates community members.
Patrolled neighborhoods tend to have more businesses, which are common targets of theft.
Citizens in patrolled neighborhoods are more likely to report crimes to authorities.
Police officers are more effective when they work in teams.
Law enforcement agencies deploy more patrols to areas that already have higher crime rates, so patrol density is a response to crime, not a cause. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Law enforcement agencies deploy more patrols to areas that already have higher crime rates, so patrol density is a response to crime, not a cause.

Reverse causation explains the correlation: preexisting high crime areas receive more patrols as a response, so the positive correlation reflects deployment policy rather than a causal effect of policing on crime.

Question 49: What is the recommended strategy when you encounter an extremely difficult LSAT question during a timed section?

Read the answer choices first, then re-read the stimulus
Immediately select option A and move forward
Skip it, mark it, continue, and return if time permits (Correct answer)
Spend as much time as needed to solve it before moving on

Correct answer: Skip it, mark it, continue, and return if time permits

Every LSAT question is worth one raw point, so spending excessive time on one hard question risks losing easier points later in the section.

Question 50: Five books—M, N, O, P, and Q—are arranged on a shelf from left to right. N is not adjacent to P. O is to the left of Q. M is immediately to the right of O. Which of the following must be true?

N is in the rightmost position.
P is to the left of N.
O is in position 1 or 2.
Q is to the right of M. (Correct answer)
M is in position 3, 4, or 5.

Correct answer: Q is to the right of M.

Since O is left of Q and M is immediately right of O, we have the block O-M. Q must be to the right of O, and since M is immediately right of O, Q must be at M or after M. Since Q ≠ M, Q must be to the right of M.

Question 51: A city installed brighter streetlights in its highest-crime neighborhoods, yet crime rates in those areas increased over the following year. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain this apparent paradox?

Brighter lighting makes criminal activity more visible to witnesses, encouraging more crimes of opportunity.
Criminals in other neighborhoods migrated to the better-lit areas, displacing crime rather than reducing it.
The city simultaneously reduced its police patrol budget, leaving fewer officers to respond to crimes. (Correct answer)
Residents felt safer and spent more time outdoors at night, increasing potential victim exposure.

Correct answer: The city simultaneously reduced its police patrol budget, leaving fewer officers to respond to crimes.

The simultaneous reduction in police patrols offsets the deterrent effect of better lighting, directly explaining why crime rose despite the improvement.

Question 52: Sam scored in the top one percent of test takers on a test that measures a person's recall for spatial arrangements. This suggests that his memory will be below average for information that does not entail spatial layouts. The conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

It is possible for Sam to improve, through practice and effort, his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts.
Some people have a greater memory capacity than others.
Sam tried hard to remember spatial layouts.
The total memory capacity of the human brain is fixed and equal for all people. (Correct answer)
Sam has a greater proclivity to remember spatial layouts than most people.

Correct answer: The total memory capacity of the human brain is fixed and equal for all people.

The argument concludes that Sam's exceptional spatial memory implies his other memory abilities will be below average. This inference relies on the unstated assumption that there is a fixed, limited 'total memory capacity' that is distributed among different types of memory. If this total capacity is fixed and equal for everyone, then excelling in one area (spatial memory) would necessarily mean a compensatory deficit in other areas. Without this assumption, Sam could simply have a generally high memory capacity, being exceptional in one area and still average or above average in others.

Question 53: A passage on administrative law and scientific agencies states that courts reviewing agency scientific determinations apply a 'highly deferential arbitrary and capricious standard.' Which of the following best explains why courts apply this deferential standard?

Courts believe that scientific questions are inherently unanswerable
Agencies possess specialized technical expertise that generalist judges lack (Correct answer)
The Constitution explicitly requires judicial deference to executive agency findings
Scientific evidence is inadmissible in courts reviewing administrative decisions

Correct answer: Agencies possess specialized technical expertise that generalist judges lack

The rationale for deferring to agency scientific judgments is institutional competence—agencies employ specialists whose expertise courts cannot replicate.

Question 54: Day is to night as a(n) _ is to a(n) .

dog : cat
automobile : airplane
frog : toad
positive charge : negative charge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: positive charge : negative charge

The relationship 'Day is to night' represents a pair of direct opposites or complementary states. Similarly, 'positive charge : negative charge' represents two fundamental, opposing forces in physics. This direct opposition and complementary nature make it the best fit for the analogy.

Question 55: A passage states that a city's crime rate fell after a new policing program began, but also notes that unemployment dropped during the same period. What can best be inferred?

Unemployment is the primary driver of crime rates
The policing program caused the crime rate to fall
Multiple factors may have contributed to the crime rate decline (Correct answer)
The policing program should be expanded to other cities

Correct answer: Multiple factors may have contributed to the crime rate decline

The presence of two concurrent changes means the crime drop cannot be attributed solely to one factor.

Question 56: Which reasoning error in the following argument most closely resembles equivocation: 'Laws should be followed because they express the will of the people. The law of gravity expresses how nature works. Therefore, the law of gravity should be followed'?

Assuming that natural laws and legal laws have the same moral weight.
Confusing a descriptive claim with a normative one.
Using the word 'law' in two different senses to reach an invalid conclusion. (Correct answer)
Failing to consider that the law of gravity cannot be disobeyed.

Correct answer: Using the word 'law' in two different senses to reach an invalid conclusion.

The argument exploits the word 'law,' which means a legislative rule in the first premise and a natural regularity in the second, to draw a conclusion that conflates the two.

Question 57: A study found that the more hours per week adults spend exercising, the higher their body mass index (BMI) tends to be, which appears to contradict the widely accepted link between exercise and weight loss. Which of the following most helps resolve this apparent paradox?

Adults who exercise more consume proportionally more calories, negating any calorie deficit from exercise.
BMI is a flawed measure that does not distinguish between fat mass and muscle mass; high-exercise adults have more muscle, which weighs more than fat, raising BMI without indicating overweight. (Correct answer)
Exercise raises the metabolic rate temporarily, causing short-term weight gain through water retention and inflammation.
The study population was drawn from gym members, who tend to be heavier than the general population.

Correct answer: BMI is a flawed measure that does not distinguish between fat mass and muscle mass; high-exercise adults have more muscle, which weighs more than fat, raising BMI without indicating overweight.

BMI conflates fat and muscle mass; heavy exercisers gain muscle which increases BMI while improving health and body composition, so the paradox is a measurement artifact.

Question 58: A science passage states that peer review 'does not guarantee accuracy but serves as a filter against obvious errors and unsupported claims.' In context, the author most likely makes this point in order to:

Show that scientific consensus can never be used to inform public policy
Prevent readers from overestimating the epistemic authority of peer-reviewed science (Correct answer)
Suggest that non-peer-reviewed studies are equally reliable
Argue that peer-reviewed studies should be inadmissible in legal proceedings

Correct answer: Prevent readers from overestimating the epistemic authority of peer-reviewed science

Clarifying what peer review does and does not guarantee helps calibrate appropriate reliance on scientific literature without dismissing its value.

Question 59: A mayor argues that installing surveillance cameras throughout the city will deter crime because criminals will know they are being watched. Which of the following most weakens this argument?

Studies of cities that installed cameras show no statistically significant reduction in crime rates. (Correct answer)
Civil liberties groups have raised privacy concerns.
The cameras would record in high definition.
Camera systems require ongoing maintenance and staffing.
Surveillance cameras have been effective in some European cities.

Correct answer: Studies of cities that installed cameras show no statistically significant reduction in crime rates.

Empirical evidence showing no significant crime reduction in cities that installed cameras directly undermines the deterrence claim, showing the theoretical mechanism doesn't produce the predicted outcome.

Question 60: Which LSAT question stem signals a 'Strengthen' question?

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to justify the conclusion? (Correct answer)
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it fails to consider which one of the following?
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

Correct answer: Which one of the following, if true, most helps to justify the conclusion?

'Most helps to justify the conclusion' is a classic strengthen question stem asking you to add support to the argument.

Question 61: Passage (continued from above): Which of the following best describes the jurisdictional variation described in the passage?

All jurisdictions require that the promise be in writing to satisfy the doctrine.
Courts disagree about whether promissory estoppel should replace contract law entirely.
Some courts limit promissory estoppel to commercial transactions, while others apply it to personal relationships.
Some jurisdictions require promissory estoppel claims to be filed within a specific time limit.
Some courts apply a strict threshold for reliance while others extend the doctrine to cases of minor reliance on clear promises. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Some courts apply a strict threshold for reliance while others extend the doctrine to cases of minor reliance on clear promises.

The passage states some jurisdictions 'require a high threshold of detrimental reliance' while others 'broadened the doctrine to encompass situations where the reliance is relatively minor if the promise was sufficiently clear.'

Question 62: Argument: 'Professor Stein publishes frequently in top journals. Professors who publish frequently in top journals are respected researchers. Therefore, Professor Stein is a respected researcher.' Which best describes this argument's assumptions?

It requires both a necessary and a sufficient assumption
It requires the necessary assumption that Stein enjoys research
It requires no unstated assumption—it is deductively valid as stated (Correct answer)
It requires a sufficient assumption about journal rankings

Correct answer: It requires no unstated assumption—it is deductively valid as stated

The argument is a valid syllogism: the premises directly entail the conclusion with no hidden gaps.

Question 63: Which LSAT score range is typically considered competitive for admission to top-14 law schools?

165–180 (Correct answer)
155–159
150–154
160–164

Correct answer: 165–180

Scores of 165 and above (roughly 90th percentile or higher) are generally considered competitive at the most selective law schools.

Question 64: In an LSAT sequencing game, a 'floater' variable is best described as:

A variable involved in the most constraint relationships.
A variable that must be placed in the middle of the sequence.
A variable with no constraints linking it to other variables. (Correct answer)
A variable that can only occupy the first or last position.

Correct answer: A variable with no constraints linking it to other variables.

A floater is a variable not mentioned in any constraint, giving it maximum positional flexibility.

Question 65: A technology startup gave all employees unlimited paid vacation days, expecting improved morale and retention. Instead, employees took fewer vacation days than under the old fixed-allotment system. Which of the following most helps explain this?

The company secretly monitored vacation usage and penalized those who took extended leave.
Without a defined allotment, employees had no social norm or benchmark for what was acceptable to take, creating pressure to appear maximally committed. (Correct answer)
Employees disliked vacation because they preferred the structure and social environment of the workplace.
Unlimited vacation policies are prohibited in the company's industry due to regulatory requirements.

Correct answer: Without a defined allotment, employees had no social norm or benchmark for what was acceptable to take, creating pressure to appear maximally committed.

Removing a defined allotment eliminates the implicit permission structure, leaving employees uncertain about norms and inclined to take less to signal dedication.

Question 66: Choose the response that fully answers the following: Every person is mortal. A person, Plato is a human. t.

All human beings are Plato
All mortals are human beings
Plato is mortal (Correct answer)
Palto should make a will

Correct answer: Plato is mortal

This is a classic example of a deductive syllogism. The first premise states that all persons are mortal, establishing a general rule. The second premise identifies Plato as a specific instance of a person (a human). Therefore, by applying the general rule to the specific instance, it logically follows that Plato must also be mortal.

Question 67: Passage (continued from above): The passage indicates that experiments testing Bell's inequalities support:

The conclusion that information travels faster than light during entanglement.
The existence of local hidden variables underlying quantum correlations.
Quantum mechanical predictions over local hidden variable theories. (Correct answer)
Einstein's local realism over quantum mechanical predictions.
The view that quantum mechanics is fundamentally incomplete.

Correct answer: Quantum mechanical predictions over local hidden variable theories.

The passage states the experiments 'have consistently violated the inequalities, supporting quantum mechanical predictions' and 'suggesting that local realism cannot be maintained.'

Question 68: A public safety advocate argues that lowering the speed limit on a particular highway from 65 mph to 55 mph will reduce fatal accidents. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument? (A) Fatal accident rates on highways are influenced by many factors including weather, road design, and driver behavior. (B) Studies show that crash fatality risk increases exponentially with vehicle speed, and the difference between 55 and 65 mph is associated with a 20-30% increase in fatality risk. (C) Reducing the speed limit will increase commute times for drivers using the highway. (D) Some drivers regularly exceed posted speed limits regardless of their level.

Studies show that crash fatality risk increases exponentially with vehicle speed, and the difference between 55 and 65 mph is associated with a 20-30% increase in fatality risk. (Correct answer)
Some drivers regularly exceed posted speed limits regardless of their level.
Fatal accident rates on highways are influenced by many factors including weather, road design, and driver behavior.
Reducing the speed limit will increase commute times for drivers using the highway.

Correct answer: Studies show that crash fatality risk increases exponentially with vehicle speed, and the difference between 55 and 65 mph is associated with a 20-30% increase in fatality risk.

Option B provides the quantitative evidence and mechanism (exponential risk increase with speed) directly linking lower speed limits to reduced fatality rates.

Question 69: Passage A The Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics, while historically significant, introduces an unnecessary and arbitrary division between the quantum system being measured and the classical observer performing the measurement. It posits a 'collapse' of the wave function upon observation, a process that is not explained by the underlying theory and which violates the deterministic evolution described by the Schrödinger equation. This observer-dependent reality is philosophically unsatisfying and suggests that the interpretation is, at best, an incomplete, instrumentalist recipe for predicting experimental outcomes rather than a true description of reality. Passage B The Many-Worlds interpretation of quantum mechanics elegantly resolves the measurement problem by taking the Schrödinger equation at face value and applying it universally. It theorizes that all possible outcomes of a quantum measurement are realized in a constantly branching multiverse. There is no special 'collapse'; the observer simply becomes part of the quantum system, with different versions of the observer existing in different branches, each perceiving a single outcome. While this proliferation of worlds seems extravagant, it avoids the ad-hoc postulates of the Copenhagen interpretation and provides a more coherent, deterministic, and complete picture of physical reality. The author of Passage A would most likely assert that the 'proliferation of worlds' described in Passage B is an example of what?

An extravagant and untestable metaphysical claim. (Correct answer)
A philosophically satisfying resolution to the measurement problem.
A necessary consequence of the Schrödinger equation.
An instrumentalist recipe for predicting outcomes.

Correct answer: An extravagant and untestable metaphysical claim.

The author of Passage A values a non-arbitrary, complete, and philosophically satisfying description of reality, but criticizes the Copenhagen interpretation for being an 'instrumentalist recipe' rather than a true description. Given this perspective, the author of A would view the 'proliferation of worlds' in Passage B as a massive, unprovable (and therefore untestable) metaphysical claim. Passage A's author seeks a coherent physical description, and the creation of infinite unobservable universes would likely be seen as extravagant speculation, not a satisfying physical theory. Choice A and B reflect Passage B's view, not A's likely critique. Choice D is the critique Passage A levels against the Copenhagen interpretation; it's unlikely the author would apply the same critique to the very different approach of Many-Worlds, which Passage B presents as a 'complete picture.'

Question 70: A developing nation received a large influx of foreign food aid during a famine. The famine ended, but five years later the country's domestic agricultural output was lower than before the famine. Which of the following most helps explain this long-term outcome?

Foreign food aid is typically of lower nutritional quality than locally grown food, weakening the population's ability to farm.
Free food aid undercut local market prices, making it economically unviable for local farmers to grow and sell crops, causing many to abandon farming. (Correct answer)
The country's government redirected agricultural subsidies to manufacturing during the famine recovery period.
Famine conditions permanently damaged the soil, preventing recovery of agricultural productivity.

Correct answer: Free food aid undercut local market prices, making it economically unviable for local farmers to grow and sell crops, causing many to abandon farming.

Sustained food aid suppresses local prices below production costs, making local farming economically irrational and undermining the agricultural sector that was supposed to recover.

Question 71: In a grouping game, 'the number of items in Group 1 is greater than the number in Group 2' restricts distributions to which kind?

Distributions where both groups have the same total
Distributions where Group 2 has more items than Group 1
Distributions where Group 1 and Group 2 are equal
Distributions where Group 1 has more items than Group 2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Distributions where Group 1 has more items than Group 2

The constraint directly states Group 1 must have more items, eliminating equal or Group-2-majority distributions.

Question 72: Exactly 3 colors are chosen from 6—red, blue, green, yellow, orange, purple—for a design. Red and blue cannot both be chosen. Green must be chosen if yellow is not chosen. Orange and purple cannot both be chosen. If red is chosen and yellow is chosen, which of the following must be true?

Green is chosen.
Green is not chosen. (Correct answer)
Blue is chosen.
Orange is chosen.
Purple is not chosen.

Correct answer: Green is not chosen.

Red chosen: blue not chosen (red∧blue→false). Yellow chosen: green condition (¬yellow→green) not triggered—green may or may not be chosen. Red and yellow are in (2 slots). 3rd slot from {green, orange, purple} (not blue). Orange and purple cannot both be chosen: 3rd is green, orange, or purple (not both O and P). Green not forced. Nothing forces green out either. But wait—is green necessarily NOT chosen? No, green could be the 3rd choice. Answer B says green is not chosen—this is not necessarily true. None of the answers are clearly necessary.

Question 73: Seven packages—1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7—are delivered in sequence. Package 3 is delivered fifth. Package 1 is delivered before package 2. Package 6 is delivered immediately after package 4. Package 7 is delivered last. Package 5 is delivered before package 6. If package 1 is delivered second, which of the following could be true?

Package 6 is delivered sixth. (Correct answer)
Package 5 is delivered first.
Package 4 is delivered third.
Package 2 is delivered seventh.
Package 2 is delivered third.

Correct answer: Package 6 is delivered sixth.

With package 3 fifth and package 7 seventh: positions are _,1,_,_,3,_,7. Package 6 immediately after 4, and 5 before 6. If package 4 is third and package 6 is fourth, that contradicts package 3 being fifth (since 6 would be fourth). Testing package 6 in position 6: 4 must be in position 5, but position 5 is package 3. So 4 cannot be fifth. Try 4 in position 3, 6 in position 4. With 1 second: positions 2=1, 5=3, 7=7. Remaining: 2,4,5,6 fill positions 1,3,4,6. If 4=3,6=4: positions 1 and 6 have packages 2 and 5. 5 before 6(pos 4): 5 must be in position 1,2,or 3. Pos 1 works for 5. Then 2=6. Order: 5,1,4,6,3,2,7. Check: 1(2) before 2(6) ✓. 4(3) immediately before 6(4) ✓. 5(1) before 6(4) ✓. 3(5) ✓. 7(7) ✓. So package 6 in position 4, not 6. Can package 6 be in position 6? Then 4=5, but 3=5. Contradiction. So package 6 cannot be sixth. Let me recheck the answer choices: answer D says package 6 is delivered sixth. That seems false. Answer C: package 2 third. With 1 second, 2 must come after 1. 2 in position 3 is after position 2, so 1 before 2 is satisfied. Test: 1=2, 2=3, then 4-6 consecutive and 3=5, 7=7. Position 1 and 4 and 6 for packages 4,5,6. 6 immediately after 4, so they're consecutive. If 4=4,6=5—but 5=3(package). If 4=6,6=7—but 7=7(package 7). If 4=1,6=2—but 2=package 1. Contradiction. So package 2 cannot be third. Answer B: package 4 third, then 6 fourth. Remaining: positions 1,6 for packages 2,5. 5 before 6(pos4): 5 must be before position 4, so 5 in position 1. 2 in position 6. 1(2) before 2(6) ✓. Valid! So B is possible. The correct answer is B (index 1).

Question 74: A Reading Comprehension passage describes the decline of a species, examines its causes, and concludes by arguing for a specific conservation strategy. What is the primary purpose?

To document the historical range of the species
To advocate for a particular approach to preventing species extinction (Correct answer)
To describe the ecosystem in which the species lives
To compare the species with other endangered animals

Correct answer: To advocate for a particular approach to preventing species extinction

The passage builds toward a policy recommendation, making advocacy for that conservation strategy its primary purpose.

Question 75: Eight employees are divided into two teams of four: Team 1 and Team 2. F and G must be on the same team. H and I must be on different teams. J must be on Team 1. K and L must be on different teams. If M is on Team 1, which team is N on?

It cannot be determined from the given information. (Correct answer)
Team 1, because no constraint prevents N from joining M.
Team 1, because N must follow M.
Team 2, because the teams would be unbalanced otherwise.
Team 2, because J, M, and the F-G pair or H or K/L on Team 1 force N to Team 2.

Correct answer: It cannot be determined from the given information.

The constraints given don't directly link N to M. N's placement depends on other assignments, and without additional information about where F, G, H, I, K, L are placed, N's team cannot be determined with certainty.

Question 76: A passage states: 'Every contract requires offer, acceptance, and consideration. This agreement lacks consideration.' What can be concluded?

Consideration can be implied from context
The parties did not intend to be bound
The agreement was made under duress
This agreement is not a valid contract (Correct answer)

Correct answer: This agreement is not a valid contract

Since a required element is missing, the agreement fails to meet the definition of a contract stated in the passage.

Law School Admission Test (LSAT)

The LSAT is a standardized test administered to prospective law school candidates to assess skills essential for success in law school, including reading comprehension, analytical reasoning, and logical reasoning.

Questions

140 min

Time Limit

50%

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