A criminal statute states: 'Whoever steals money or property of another shall be guilty.' A defendant obtains money by deception but without physically taking it. Is this 'stealing' under the statute?
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A
Yes, because the purpose is to protect property rights from dishonest acquisition
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B
No, because 'steals' in its plain sense requires a physical taking without consent
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C
Yes, because fraud and theft are treated identically in all legal systems
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D
No, because the ejusdem generis rule limits 'property' to physical items