LLM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield LLM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A grand jury in federal court operates under which evidentiary standard to return an indictment? → Probable cause
2. Brady v. Maryland requires the prosecution to disclose evidence that is favorable to the accused and: → Material to either guilt or punishment
3. A person who is being detained must complete all but one of the following: → Make a statement
4. The US Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) primarily prohibits: → Bribery of foreign government officials to obtain or retain business
5. Which doctrine holds that a court will not adjudicate a constitutional question when the outcome of the case can be resolved on other grounds? → Constitutional Avoidance Doctrine
6. Which legal philosopher is most closely associated with the 'internal point of view' as central to understanding law? → H.L.A. Hart
7. In patent law, the written description requirement ensures that: → The inventor actually possessed the claimed invention at the time of filing
8. In US tax law, a 'check-the-box' regulation allows eligible entities to: → Choose their federal tax classification as corporation or pass-through entity
9. Under the Model Penal Code, what mental state is required when the statute is silent on mens rea? → Recklessness
10. The Sixth Amendment right to a speedy trial is assessed using which multi-factor balancing test? → Barker v. Wingo four-factor test
11. Under US equal protection doctrine, which classification triggers strict scrutiny? → Race
12. The 'eggshell skull' (or 'thin skull') rule in tort law provides that: → A defendant takes the plaintiff as they find them, including pre-existing vulnerabilities
13. In Canada, less serious transgressions are recognized as: → Summary conviction
14. The principle of 'stare decisis' obligates courts to: → Adhere to prior precedents when deciding similar cases
15. Which doctrine allows federal courts to abstain from ruling on a constitutional question if the case can be resolved on narrower statutory grounds? → Constitutional avoidance canon
16. Under the MPC's definition of recklessness, what mental state must a defendant have? → Conscious disregard of a substantial and unjustifiable risk
17. When an accused signs a commitment to appear, also known as: → Peace bond
18. Under WTO law, the Most-Favored-Nation (MFN) obligation in GATT Article I requires a member to: → Extend any trade advantage granted to one country to all WTO members immediately
19. Which doctrine allows a defendant's voluntary intoxication to negate specific intent but not general intent crimes? → Voluntary intoxication defense
20. The 'nationality of claims' rule in diplomatic protection provides that: → A state may only bring an international claim on behalf of its nationals
21. Intentional infliction of emotional distress (IIED) requires that the defendant's conduct be: → Extreme and outrageous
22. What is 'anticipatory repudiation' in contract law? → A party's clear statement before the performance date that it will not perform
23. Under the 'coming and going' rule in vicarious liability, an employer is generally NOT liable for torts committed by employees: → While commuting to and from work
24. Under Batson v. Kentucky, if a defendant makes a prima facie showing of racially discriminatory use of peremptory challenges, the burden shifts to whom? → The prosecution to provide a race-neutral explanation
25. Which test does the Supreme Court apply to laws that burden fundamental rights or involve suspect classifications? → Strict Scrutiny
26. The 'incorporation doctrine' refers to which constitutional development? → Applying Bill of Rights protections to states via the Fourteenth Amendment
27. Which amendment to the US Constitution abolished slavery? → Thirteenth Amendment
28. Under the doctrine of forum non conveniens, a US court may dismiss a case when: → An alternative forum is substantially more convenient and adequate
29. Under common law, the 'mirror image rule' provides that an acceptance must: → Match the terms of the offer exactly without alteration
30. The rationale for a criminal act's commission. → Motive