Legal - Attorneys Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Legal - Attorneys facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Under Model Rule 7.3, live person-to-person solicitation for pecuniary gain is permitted when the target is: → A person with whom the lawyer has a prior professional relationship
2. A buyer rightly rejects nonconforming goods delivered before the contract deadline. What right does the seller have? → To notify the buyer and cure with a conforming delivery before the deadline
3. What is the legal term for the person who creates a trust and transfers property into it? → Grantor
4. In Seila Law LLC v. CFPB (2020), the Supreme Court held that: → For-cause removal protection for the CFPB's single director violates separation of powers
5. A seller breaches a contract to sell a specific parcel of land. The buyer's best equitable remedy is: → Specific performance, because land is considered unique
6. Under FRE 611(c), leading questions are ordinarily permitted on direct examination when the witness is: → A hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party
7. An attorney files a brief containing case citations generated by an AI tool that turn out to be nonexistent. What is the most likely consequence? → Sanctions under Rule 11 for failing to make a reasonable inquiry
8. A Delaware charter provision under DGCL §102(b)(7) may eliminate a director's monetary liability for: → Breach of the duty of care
9. Under Hadley v. Baxendale, consequential damages are recoverable only if they: → Were reasonably foreseeable to the breaching party when the contract was made
10. B, a bona fide purchaser protected by the recording act, sells to C, who knows about an earlier unrecorded deed. C most likely: → Prevails under the shelter rule
11. A federal statute requires local sheriffs to conduct background checks on handgun purchasers. Under Printz v. United States, the requirement: → Unconstitutionally commandeers state executive officers
12. Under Rule 26(b)(1), the scope of discovery covers nonprivileged matter that is relevant to any party's claim or defense and: → Proportional to the needs of the case
13. What is the recommended approach to staying current in Property Law & Real Estate? → Regular professional development, industry publications, and peer collaboration
14. A security interest in a deposit account as original collateral can be perfected only by: → Control
15. Which element is generally NOT required to get a prescriptive easement? → Exclusive possession of the servient land
16. How often should compliance procedures be reviewed and updated? → Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified
17. What is the consequence of non-compliance with mandatory regulations? → Penalties including fines, license revocation, and potential legal action
18. Under the nondelegation doctrine, Congress may delegate legislative power to an agency if it provides: → An intelligible principle to guide the agency
19. Which marriage is generally VOID rather than voidable? → A bigamous marriage
20. O conveys Blackacre "to A for life, then to B if B survives A." What interest does B hold? → Contingent remainder
21. Under FRE 615, which person may NOT be excluded from the courtroom upon a party's request to sequester witnesses? → A party who is a natural person
22. What is the primary purpose of industry regulations in this field? → To protect the public and ensure consistent professional standards
23. Which of the following is NOT required in Rule 26(a)(1) initial disclosures? → A list of all documents the opposing party should request
24. At common law, a conveyance "to A for life, then to A's heirs" gives A: → A fee simple absolute
25. Under Motor Vehicle Manufacturers Ass'n v. State Farm, an agency's rescission of a rule is arbitrary and capricious if the agency: → Entirely failed to consider an important aspect of the problem
26. Corporation A sells substantially all of its assets, outside the ordinary course of business, to Corporation B for cash. Which approvals are generally required? → A's board and A's shareholders
27. In Troxel v. Granville, the Supreme Court struck down a broad grandparent visitation order primarily because: → It failed to give special weight to a fit parent's decision regarding visitation
28. Under 28 U.S.C. § 1391(b), venue is proper in a district where: → Any defendant resides, if all defendants reside in the same state
29. Under modern corporate statutes such as the MBCA, the ultra vires doctrine may still be raised by: → A shareholder seeking to enjoin the corporation's act
30. Under FRCP 50(b), a renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law must be filed: → No later than 28 days after entry of judgment