LAPD Multiple Choice Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which word is spelled correctly?
- harrasment
- harasment
- harassment (Correct answer)
- harrassment
Correct answer: harassment
Harassment has one 'r' and two 's' letters: h-a-r-a-s-s-m-e-n-t.
Question 2: What does 'perimeter' mean in an active police operation?
- The area inside a police station
- A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard (Correct answer)
- The paperwork filed after an incident
- A list of witnesses at a crime scene
Correct answer: A boundary established to contain a scene, suspect, or hazard
A perimeter is a controlled boundary set up around an incident to secure the area and prevent a suspect from escaping.
Question 3: The PEACE model of investigative interviewing is best described as:
- A rapid method designed for time-sensitive field investigations
- A technique that relies on polygraph results to direct questioning
- A high-pressure confrontational method for obtaining confessions
- A non-coercive, structured framework focused on information gathering (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A non-coercive, structured framework focused on information gathering
PEACE (Preparation, Engage/Explain, Account, Closure, Evaluation) is a non-confrontational, information-gathering approach that avoids coercive tactics.
Question 4: What is an 'APB' in law enforcement?
- Active Patrol Beat
- Annual Police Budget
- Arrest Probable Basis
- All Points Bulletin — a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle (Correct answer)
Correct answer: All Points Bulletin — a broadcast alert to all officers about a suspect or vehicle
An All Points Bulletin is a broadcast to all law enforcement units describing a wanted suspect or vehicle.
Question 5: What does 'plain view doctrine' allow an officer to do?
- Detain any person visible on a public street
- Seize evidence or contraband that is clearly visible without a warrant (Correct answer)
- Conduct a search of a vehicle without a warrant
- Search a residence when the door is open
Correct answer: Seize evidence or contraband that is clearly visible without a warrant
The plain view doctrine allows officers to seize evidence they can clearly see without conducting a search, as long as they are lawfully present.
Question 6: Department Policy 420.1 states: 'Officers shall activate their Body Worn Video (BWV) camera prior to initiating any investigative or enforcement action involving a member of the public. If the camera is not activated, the officer must document the reason in their official report.' An officer conducts a traffic stop but only activates their BWV after they have already asked the driver for their license and registration. According to Policy 420.1, what must the officer do?
- Obtain a written apology from the driver.
- Delete the recording as it is incomplete.
- Document the reason for the delayed activation in their report. (Correct answer)
- Inform their supervisor immediately via radio.
Correct answer: Document the reason for the delayed activation in their report.
The policy explicitly states that if the camera is not activated according to procedure, the officer 'must document the reason in their official report.' The other options are not mentioned in the provided text.
Question 7: Which set of physiological responses does a standard pre-employment polygraph record?
- Muscle tension, blood sugar, and reaction time
- Brain wave activity, body temperature, and pupil dilation
- Voice pitch, eye movement, and posture
- Respiration, blood pressure or heart rate, and skin conductivity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Respiration, blood pressure or heart rate, and skin conductivity
A traditional polygraph records breathing (respiration), cardiovascular activity (blood pressure and heart rate), and electrodermal activity (skin conductivity or sweat response). The other options list measures that are not part of the standard instrument.
Question 8: Read the following passage and answer the question. 'LAPD officers are required to complete a Use of Force Report (UFR) whenever they use any level of force greater than un-resisted handcuffing. This report must be completed before the end of the officer's tour of duty, unless exigent circumstances prevent it. The UFR is a critical document for administrative review, training purposes, and legal proceedings. It must articulate the circumstances that required the use of force, the specific type of force used, and the justification for its application. A supervisor must review and sign off on every UFR to ensure it is complete and clearly explains the rationale for the officer's actions.' Based on the passage, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of the Use of Force Report?
- To be used exclusively for officer training simulations.
- To provide a comprehensive record for review and justification of an officer's actions. (Correct answer)
- To inform the public about incidents involving use of force.
- To discipline officers who use force excessively.
Correct answer: To provide a comprehensive record for review and justification of an officer's actions.
The passage states the UFR is a 'critical document for administrative review, training purposes, and legal proceedings' and that it must 'articulate the circumstances...and the justification.' This demonstrates its primary purpose is to serve as a comprehensive record for various forms of review and legal justification.
Question 9: Which of the following words is defined as 'a crime, typically one involving violence, regarded as more serious than a misdemeanor, and usually punishable by imprisonment for more than one year or by death'?
- Affidavit
- Infraction
- Arraignment
- Felony (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Felony
A 'Felony' is a serious crime that carries a significant penalty. An 'Arraignment' is a court proceeding, an 'Affidavit' is a written statement under oath, and an 'Infraction' is a minor violation.
Question 10: What does 'PC' stand for in LAPD police reports and daily communications?
- Primary Contact
- Penal Code (Correct answer)
- Police Commander
- Patrol Car
Correct answer: Penal Code
PC stands for Penal Code, the California statute under which a crime or violation is charged.
Question 11: An incident report states: 'The victim indicated she did not wish to pursue charges at this time.' What does the phrase 'at this time' imply?
- The suspect cannot be charged under any circumstances
- The case is permanently closed
- The victim may reconsider her decision in the future (Correct answer)
- Officers are prohibited from gathering further evidence
Correct answer: The victim may reconsider her decision in the future
'At this time' implies the victim's decision is current but may change, so the case should not be permanently closed.
Question 12: An active wage garnishment on an applicant's paycheck for unpaid child support would be viewed in an LAPD background investigation primarily as:
- Irrelevant because the court has already imposed a legal remedy
- Grounds for immediate disqualification under family law conflicts
- Evidence of financial irresponsibility and possible dishonesty on prior application forms (Correct answer)
- A mitigating factor that shows the court system is working
Correct answer: Evidence of financial irresponsibility and possible dishonesty on prior application forms
Active wage garnishments, particularly for child support, may signal both financial instability and a failure to meet legal obligations voluntarily, both of which raise character concerns.
Question 13: Which word is spelled correctly for the legal term meaning a crime less serious than a felony?
- misdemaner
- misdemeanor (Correct answer)
- misdemeanour
- misdemener
Correct answer: misdemeanor
Misdemeanor is the American English spelling (British: misdemeanour) for a lesser criminal offense.
Question 14: You are completing a use-of-force report and need to describe a subject's behavior. The most accurate approach is to:
- Include your interpretation of the subject's mental state
- Use general terms like 'aggressive' and 'threatening' to capture the overall tone
- Describe specific observable actions — e.g., 'subject raised right fist to shoulder height and stepped forward' — rather than interpretive labels (Correct answer)
- Summarize the interaction without quoting or referencing physical movements
Correct answer: Describe specific observable actions — e.g., 'subject raised right fist to shoulder height and stepped forward' — rather than interpretive labels
Specific observable behaviors provide an objective, court-defensible record, whereas interpretive labels can be challenged as subjective and misleading.
Question 15: An officer's report describes a vehicle as 'stationary.' What does this mean?
- traveling in the wrong direction
- not moving; at a standstill (Correct answer)
- illegally parked in a no-stop zone
- moving slowly through traffic
Correct answer: not moving; at a standstill
Stationary (with an 'a') means not moving or fixed in one place; do not confuse with 'stationery' (writing paper).
Question 16: Officer Kim must either write the incident report or conduct the follow-up interview, but her supervisor says she did NOT conduct the follow-up interview. What follows?
- Officer Kim wrote the incident report (Correct answer)
- Officer Kim conducted both tasks
- Officer Kim did neither task
- The supervisor is incorrect
Correct answer: Officer Kim wrote the incident report
With an inclusive or and one option eliminated, the other must be true.
Question 17: What is the primary purpose of an LAPD officer completing a Field Interview (FI) card or report?
- To immediately process an individual for arrest.
- To document contacts and gather intelligence for future investigations. (Correct answer)
- To issue a formal citation for a traffic violation.
- To serve an active arrest warrant on a known suspect.
Correct answer: To document contacts and gather intelligence for future investigations.
Field Interview (FI) cards or reports are used to document information about individuals, vehicles, and circumstances that an officer observes during patrol. This information, which may not be related to a specific crime at that moment, serves as an intelligence-gathering tool that can be crucial for solving future cases.
Question 18: The following is from a police manual: 'Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation of the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence.' Why is chain of custody important?
- It limits which officers can be assigned to a case
- It ensures evidence integrity and admissibility in court (Correct answer)
- It sets deadlines for evidence disposal
- It allows officers to handle evidence without logging it
Correct answer: It ensures evidence integrity and admissibility in court
Maintaining chain of custody protects evidence integrity and ensures it can be admitted in court without challenge.
Question 19: What does the term 'exculpatory' mean in the context of evidence?
- evidence obtained through illegal search
- evidence tending to clear a person of blame or fault (Correct answer)
- evidence submitted after the trial deadline
- evidence that proves guilt beyond doubt
Correct answer: evidence tending to clear a person of blame or fault
Exculpatory evidence tends to exonerate the defendant by clearing them of guilt or blame.
Question 20: In police reports, what does 'R/O' typically stand for?
- Responding Officer
- Release Order
- Record of Operations
- Reporting Officer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reporting Officer
R/O stands for Reporting Officer, the officer who documents and writes the official incident or crime report.
Question 21: Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?
- Misdemeanor
- Prevalent
- Recurrance (Correct answer)
- Surveillance
Correct answer: Recurrance
The correct spelling is 'Recurrence'. The other words, 'Misdemeanor', 'Prevalent', and 'Surveillance', are all spelled correctly and are common in law enforcement vocabulary.
Question 22: After responding to a multi-vehicle collision, you need to recall the sequence of events described by four different witnesses. The BEST practice is:
- Average the four accounts into one unified narrative
- Accept only the account of the first witness on scene as most accurate
- Interview each witness separately and document their accounts individually before comparing (Correct answer)
- Have the witnesses discuss among themselves to reach a consensus
Correct answer: Interview each witness separately and document their accounts individually before comparing
Separate documentation prevents witness contamination and preserves the independent value of each account for investigative and legal purposes.
Question 23: Choose the correctly spelled word: the legal concept of taking someone's property without compensation.
- confiskation
- confiscation (Correct answer)
- confiscasion
- confescation
Correct answer: confiscation
Confiscation is spelled c-o-n-f-i-s-c-a-t-i-o-n, from Latin 'fiscus' meaning public treasury.
Question 24: Which spelling is correct for a person who gives false testimony under oath?
- perjuror
- purjurer
- perjurer (Correct answer)
- perjerer
Correct answer: perjurer
Perjurer is spelled p-e-r-j-u-r-e-r, derived from 'perjury,' the crime of lying under oath.
Question 25: The term 'chain of custody' refers to which of the following?
- The assignment of officers to patrol zones
- The hierarchy of command within a police department
- The process of arresting multiple suspects
- The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The documented record tracking evidence from collection to court
Chain of custody is the chronological documentation showing how evidence was collected, handled, and preserved.
Question 26: A memorandum reads: 'All officers assigned to Foot Beat 12 are reminded that vendor permit compliance is within their enforcement authority. Officers should issue warnings for first-time violations before citing, unless the violation poses an immediate public safety hazard.' An officer encounters a vendor without a permit who is blocking a fire hydrant. What should the officer do?
- Issue a warning because it is the vendor's first violation
- Take no action as it is a first-time violation
- Refer the matter to a supervisor only
- Issue a citation because the violation poses a public safety hazard (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Issue a citation because the violation poses a public safety hazard
Blocking a fire hydrant is an immediate public safety hazard, which is the exception that allows the officer to skip the warning and issue a citation.
Question 27: The phrase 'Miranda admonishment' refers to:
- a formal apology by law enforcement
- a court order restricting police conduct
- the warning of rights given to a suspect before questioning (Correct answer)
- a written summons to appear in court
Correct answer: the warning of rights given to a suspect before questioning
The Miranda admonishment (or warning) informs suspects of their rights, including the right to remain silent and to an attorney.
Question 28: All officers assigned to the night shift must complete a safety briefing. Officer Torres is on the night shift. Which conclusion is valid?
- Officer Torres completes briefings only on weekdays
- Officer Torres may or may not complete the briefing
- Officer Torres must complete the safety briefing (Correct answer)
- Officer Torres is exempt if she has prior training
Correct answer: Officer Torres must complete the safety briefing
Since all night-shift officers must complete the briefing and Torres is on the night shift, she must complete it.
Question 29: A suspect was seen leaving the building at 9:00 PM. The crime occurred between 8:45 PM and 9:15 PM. What can be concluded?
- The suspect has an alibi for the entire window
- The suspect must be arrested immediately
- The suspect definitely committed the crime
- The suspect cannot be ruled out based on timing alone (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The suspect cannot be ruled out based on timing alone
The suspect's departure falls within the crime window, so timing alone does not exonerate or convict them.
Question 30: Read the following paragraph from a witness statement: 'The suspect fled the scene on foot, heading westbound on Elm Street. He was a male, approximately 6 feet tall, wearing a dark blue hooded sweatshirt and black pants. He was carrying a red backpack. I lost sight of him when he turned south onto Oak Avenue. The incident occurred at approximately 10:15 PM.' Which of the following details is NOT explicitly mentioned in the statement?
- A description of the suspect's clothing.
- The suspect's approximate age. (Correct answer)
- The time of the incident.
- The suspect's direction of travel.
Correct answer: The suspect's approximate age.
The witness statement provides the suspect's height, clothing, and accessories, as well as the direction of travel and time of the incident. However, it makes no mention of the suspect's approximate age.
Question 31: At a crime scene, footprints A and B are found. Print A belongs to the victim. Print B is size 11. The suspect wears size 9. What is the most logical inference?
- The suspect left Print B
- The victim wore size 11 shoes
- Print B does not match the suspect's shoe size (Correct answer)
- The suspect was not at the scene
Correct answer: Print B does not match the suspect's shoe size
Print B is size 11 and the suspect wears size 9, so Print B does not match the suspect.
Question 32: What is 'reasonable suspicion' and how does it differ from probable cause?
- It is a standard only applicable to vehicle searches
- It refers to a jury's determination of guilt
- It is a lower standard based on specific articulable facts justifying a brief investigative stop (Correct answer)
- It is equal to probable cause and can justify an arrest
Correct answer: It is a lower standard based on specific articulable facts justifying a brief investigative stop
Reasonable suspicion is a lower threshold than probable cause, allowing officers to briefly detain someone for investigation.
Question 33: What does 'Miranda rights' require an officer to inform a suspect?
- Their right to a speedy trial before arraignment
- Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney present during questioning (Correct answer)
- Their right to refuse a field sobriety test
- Their right to review the police report before booking
Correct answer: Their right to remain silent and to have an attorney present during questioning
Miranda warnings, required before custodial interrogation, inform suspects of their Fifth and Sixth Amendment rights.
Question 34: What is the primary purpose of the psychological evaluation in police hiring?
- To test knowledge of the penal code
- To assess emotional stability and suitability for the stress and responsibility of police work (Correct answer)
- To measure physical endurance
- To verify driving history
Correct answer: To assess emotional stability and suitability for the stress and responsibility of police work
The psychological screening, which usually includes a written personality inventory and an interview with a licensed psychologist, assesses emotional stability, judgment, and suitability for policing.
Question 35: Choose the correctly spelled word for the process of questioning a witness already examined by the opposing side:
- cross-examinasion
- cross-examintion
- cross-examanation
- cross-examination (Correct answer)
Correct answer: cross-examination
Cross-examination is spelled c-r-o-s-s-e-x-a-m-i-n-a-t-i-o-n, with 'a' before 't-i-o-n.'
Question 36: An officer describes a witness as 'corroborating' a statement. This means the witness is:
- refusing to testify
- confirming or supporting the account (Correct answer)
- contradicting the account
- disputing the evidence
Correct answer: confirming or supporting the account
To corroborate means to confirm or give support to a statement, theory, or finding.
Question 37: During a high-speed pursuit, your ability to accurately recall environmental details such as street names is reduced primarily because:
- Attentional resources are dominated by the immediate driving task and threat assessment, leaving little capacity for encoding peripheral environmental details (Correct answer)
- Officers are trained to ignore surroundings during pursuits
- Adrenaline improves reaction time but erases street name memory
- High-speed driving activates the amygdala, which blocks spatial memory
Correct answer: Attentional resources are dominated by the immediate driving task and threat assessment, leaving little capacity for encoding peripheral environmental details
Limited attentional capacity means that demanding tasks like high-speed driving consume cognitive resources that would otherwise encode environmental details.
Question 38: Select the correctly spelled word for unlawfully entering a building with intent to commit a crime:
- burglary (Correct answer)
- burglary
- burglery
- burglury
Correct answer: burglary
Burglary is spelled b-u-r-g-l-a-r-y, and it is a felony under California Penal Code 459.
Question 39: What does 'exigent circumstances' mean in law enforcement?
- Emergency conditions that justify warrantless entry or search (Correct answer)
- A warrant obtained after a search
- A citation issued at the scene
- A formal request for backup
Correct answer: Emergency conditions that justify warrantless entry or search
Exigent circumstances are urgent situations, such as imminent danger or evidence destruction, that allow officers to act without a warrant.
Question 40: A report describes a witness as 'recanting' their earlier statement. Recant means:
- withdrawing or taking back a previous statement (Correct answer)
- translating a statement for the record
- repeating a statement for emphasis
- confirming a statement in writing
Correct answer: withdrawing or taking back a previous statement
To recant means to formally withdraw or renounce a previous statement or belief.
Question 41: A use-of-force policy states: 'Officers shall use only the force that is objectively reasonable, necessary, and proportional to the threat or resistance presented.' An officer applies a firm grip to guide a cooperative, non-resistant individual. Which term from the policy BEST justifies this action?
- Necessary — the officer had no choice
- Objectively reasonable — any officer would do the same
- Proportional — the level of force matches the level of compliance (Correct answer)
- All of the above, as all three criteria are met
Correct answer: Proportional — the level of force matches the level of compliance
Proportionality is most directly addressed — a minimal amount of force was used for a cooperative subject, matching the level of compliance.
Question 42: Which word best completes this sentence? 'The officer exercised ___ when deciding not to arrest the juvenile.'
- descretion
- discrition
- discretion (Correct answer)
- discression
Correct answer: discretion
Discretion (d-i-s-c-r-e-t-i-o-n) means the freedom to decide what should be done in a particular situation.
Question 43: In law enforcement, what is the solemn meaning of the term "End of Watch" (EOW)?
- The death of an officer in the line of duty. (Correct answer)
- The conclusion of an officer's final shift before retirement.
- A mandatory period of leave following a critical incident.
- The official time a patrol shift concludes for the day.
Correct answer: The death of an officer in the line of duty.
"End of Watch" (EOW) is a revered term used to signify that an officer has died in the line of duty, marking the final end to their service. It is a declaration of honor and remembrance for their ultimate sacrifice.
Question 44: What is a 'misdemeanor' as opposed to a 'felony' in California law?
- A crime that results in no jail time
- A crime punishable by more than one year in state prison
- A less serious crime typically punishable by up to one year in county jail (Correct answer)
- Any crime committed by a juvenile
Correct answer: A less serious crime typically punishable by up to one year in county jail
A misdemeanor is a less serious offense with a maximum sentence of up to one year in county jail.
Question 45: Which of the following physical abilities is directly assessed as a distinct, scored event in the LAPD Physical Fitness Qualifier?
- Lower body explosive power (e.g., vertical jump)
- Upper body pulling strength (e.g., pull-ups)
- Core muscular endurance (Correct answer)
- Agility and change of direction (e.g., shuttle run)
Correct answer: Core muscular endurance
The LAPD PFQ consists of four specific events: maximum sit-ups in one minute, 300-meter sprint, maximum push-ups, and a 1.5-mile run. The sit-up event is a direct measure of core muscular endurance. The other options, while important physical abilities for police work, are not measured as separate, scored events in this specific test battery.
Question 46: An LAPD directive states: 'Officers responding to a silent alarm at a commercial establishment shall, upon arrival, establish a perimeter and await the arrival of a backup unit before making entry. The primary responding unit should position their vehicle to provide optimal observation of the main entrance while maintaining a safe distance. Any observed activity should be immediately communicated to dispatch.' An officer arrives at a silent alarm, sees no signs of forced entry, and decides to enter the building alone to investigate more quickly. Which part of the directive did the officer disregard?
- Awaiting backup and establishing a perimeter before entry. (Correct answer)
- Positioning the vehicle for optimal observation.
- Immediately communicating observed activity to dispatch.
- Maintaining a safe distance from the establishment.
Correct answer: Awaiting backup and establishing a perimeter before entry.
The directive explicitly states that officers shall 'await the arrival of a backup unit before making entry.' By entering the building alone, the officer directly violated this key safety protocol.
Question 47: Who typically performs the medical examination for a police officer candidate?
- A licensed physician or other designated medical professional using job-related standards (Correct answer)
- The background investigator
- A polygraph examiner
- The academy drill instructor
Correct answer: A licensed physician or other designated medical professional using job-related standards
Medical screening is done by licensed medical professionals to confirm the candidate can safely perform essential duties. It typically includes vision, hearing, general health, and a drug screen.
Question 48: Which word correctly fills the blank? 'The officer ___ the suspect of his rights before the interview.'
- apprized
- appraised
- apprised (Correct answer)
- aprised
Correct answer: apprised
Apprised (a-p-p-r-i-s-e-d) means informed or notified; 'appraised' means assessed for value, which is a different word.
Question 49: An off-duty LAPD officer, while shopping in plain clothes at a grocery store, witnesses an individual shoplift a low-value item and walk towards the exit. The officer is armed. What is the most prudent initial action for the officer to take?
- Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and immediately notify on-duty police and store security. (Correct answer)
- Ignore the incident, as they are off-duty and the crime is minor.
- Immediately draw their weapon and command the suspect to stop.
- Attempt to physically detain the suspect themselves before they can leave the store.
Correct answer: Act as a good witness: observe the suspect's appearance and direction of travel, and immediately notify on-duty police and store security.
While peace officers have authority off-duty, departmental guidance and best practices emphasize that appropriate action depends on the circumstances and may simply require being an effective witness. For a minor property crime with no immediate threat to life, intervening physically while off-duty creates unnecessary risks for the officer, the suspect, and the public. The safest and most effective action is to observe and report to on-duty units who are equipped to handle the situation.
Question 50: The sheriff had little trouble _________ house.
- Finding there
- To find there
- Finding their (Correct answer)
- To find their
Correct answer: Finding their
The correct phrase is 'finding their house.' 'Finding' is a gerund, acting as a noun, and correctly follows 'trouble.' 'Their' is the possessive pronoun needed to indicate that the house belongs to them, making the sentence grammatically sound and conveying the intended meaning.
Question 51: What is 'arraignment' in the criminal justice process?
- The final review before a case is dismissed
- The sentencing phase after a guilty verdict
- A hearing to determine bail eligibility
- The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The initial court appearance where a defendant is formally charged and enters a plea
Arraignment is the court proceeding where a defendant is formally read their charges and asked to enter a plea of guilty, not guilty, or no contest.
Question 52: A report notes the suspect had a 'clandestine' meeting. What does clandestine mean?
- done secretly, especially for illicit reasons (Correct answer)
- court-ordered and documented
- scheduled in advance
- public and announced
Correct answer: done secretly, especially for illicit reasons
Clandestine describes something done secretly or covertly, typically for unlawful or unauthorized purposes.
Question 53: Read this passage: 'Probable cause exists when the facts and circumstances within the officer's knowledge are sufficient to warrant a reasonable person to believe that an offense has been or is being committed.' Which situation BEST meets this standard?
- An officer has a hunch a person is suspicious
- An officer observes a person matching a robbery suspect description near the crime scene moments after the robbery (Correct answer)
- An officer receives an anonymous tip with no corroborating evidence
- An officer dislikes the look of someone's car
Correct answer: An officer observes a person matching a robbery suspect description near the crime scene moments after the robbery
Matching the suspect description near the crime scene shortly after the crime provides articulable facts sufficient for probable cause.
Question 54: A police report states the suspect was 'belligerent.' What does this mean?
- aggressively hostile or combative (Correct answer)
- intoxicated beyond control
- cooperative and calm
- silent and unresponsive
Correct answer: aggressively hostile or combative
Belligerent describes someone who is aggressively hostile, quarrelsome, or inclined to start fights.
Question 55: Which of the following belongs to the LAPD hiring process?
- Public-speaking competition
- Typing-speed certification
- Background investigation (Correct answer)
- Cooking assessment
Correct answer: Background investigation
The LAPD process includes a written exam, a physical fitness qualifier, an interview, a background investigation, polygraph, and psychological and medical evaluations before academy entry.
Question 56: An incident report describes injuries as 'superficial.' In this context, superficial means:
- deep and penetrating
- life-threatening
- affecting only the surface, not serious (Correct answer)
- requiring immediate surgery
Correct answer: affecting only the surface, not serious
Superficial injuries are shallow and affect only the surface of the skin, not penetrating deeply.
Question 57: A neighborhood watch bulletin reads: 'Residents have reported a dark-colored pickup truck driving slowly through the 4500 block of Elm Drive late at night for the past three evenings. The truck has no front license plate.' What is the MOST useful piece of information for follow-up?
- The truck appears late at night
- The truck is dark-colored
- The truck has no front license plate (Correct answer)
- The truck drives slowly
Correct answer: The truck has no front license plate
Missing a front license plate is a citable violation in California and a specific, actionable detail for officers to act on.
Question 58: All robbery suspects in this case were wearing dark clothing. Witness B says the person they saw wore bright orange. What can be deduced?
- The witness is lying
- More suspects were involved
- The person in orange is not one of the robbery suspects in this case (Correct answer)
- The person in orange is the primary suspect
Correct answer: The person in orange is not one of the robbery suspects in this case
If all suspects wore dark clothing and this person wore orange, they do not fit the suspect profile established in this case.
Question 59: An officer joins a neighborhood watch meeting to hear residents' concerns and work out solutions with them. Which core value fits BEST?
- Quality Through Continuous Improvement
- Reverence for the Law
- Service to Our Communities (Correct answer)
- Integrity in All We Say and Do
Correct answer: Service to Our Communities
Partnering with residents to address their concerns reflects Service to Our Communities.
Question 60: Evidence collected at a scene weighs 3 pounds 8 ounces. A second item weighs 1 pound 12 ounces. What is the combined weight?
- 4 lbs 12 oz
- 4 lbs 4 oz
- 5 lbs 4 oz (Correct answer)
- 5 lbs 8 oz
Correct answer: 5 lbs 4 oz
8 oz + 12 oz = 20 oz = 1 lb 4 oz; 3 + 1 + 1 = 5 lbs and 4 oz remaining.
Question 61: How far back does the LAPD background investigation typically verify an applicant's employment history?
- The past ten years or back to age 18, whichever is longer (Correct answer)
- The past two years only
- Only the most recent employer is contacted
- The past five years
Correct answer: The past ten years or back to age 18, whichever is longer
LAPD investigators typically contact all employers for the past ten years or back to age 18 to establish a comprehensive picture of the applicant's work history and character.
Question 62: Which spelling is correct for a false statement that damages someone's reputation?
- deffamation
- defamation (Correct answer)
- defimation
- defamtion
Correct answer: defamation
Defamation is spelled d-e-f-a-m-a-t-i-o-n, meaning the act of damaging someone's good reputation.
Question 63: A general order states: 'Officers who are involved in any traffic collision while on duty, regardless of fault, must notify their supervisor immediately and complete a Department Vehicle Collision Report prior to the end of their shift.' An officer is rear-ended at a red light while on patrol. What must the officer do?
- File a report only if injuries occurred
- Notify their supervisor and complete a collision report before shift ends (Correct answer)
- Notify dispatch and wait for further instructions from the Watch Commander
- File a report only if the officer was at fault
Correct answer: Notify their supervisor and complete a collision report before shift ends
The order requires notification to the supervisor and a report regardless of fault or injury.
Question 64: What is a 'coroner's case' in LAPD terminology?
- An incident involving a public official
- A death that must be investigated and reported to the Medical Examiner-Coroner (Correct answer)
- Any arrest involving a violent felony
- A case transferred to a federal agency
Correct answer: A death that must be investigated and reported to the Medical Examiner-Coroner
A coroner's case involves a death under circumstances requiring investigation by the Medical Examiner-Coroner, such as unattended, suspicious, or violent deaths.
Question 65: Which of the following statements is written in the preferred active voice for a police report?
- Officer Chen apprehended the suspect at 1430 hours. (Correct answer)
- The firearm was found under the driver's seat of the vehicle.
- The Miranda rights were read to the suspect.
- The suspect was apprehended by Officer Chen at 1430 hours.
Correct answer: Officer Chen apprehended the suspect at 1430 hours.
This sentence is in the active voice, where the subject ('Officer Chen') performs the action ('apprehended'). This is the preferred style for police reports as it clearly identifies who performed the action. The other options are in the passive voice, which can be less clear.
Question 66: An applicant voluntarily resigned from a prior law enforcement agency while under internal affairs investigation. This is most likely to:
- Be treated the same as any other voluntary resignation
- Trigger deeper scrutiny and inquiry into the nature of the investigation (Correct answer)
- Have no effect if the investigation was never formally concluded
- Result in automatic disqualification without further review
Correct answer: Trigger deeper scrutiny and inquiry into the nature of the investigation
Resignation under investigation at a prior law enforcement agency is a major red flag that LAPD investigators will examine closely, including requesting records from the previous agency.
Question 67: The term 'perpetrator' in a police report refers to:
- the person who committed the crime (Correct answer)
- a witness to the crime
- the officer filing the report
- the victim of the crime
Correct answer: the person who committed the crime
A perpetrator is the person who carries out or commits a harmful, illegal, or immoral act.
Question 68: Officers are ranked: Sergeant > Corporal > Officer. Detective ranks are separate. A Corporal gives an order to a Detective. Which statement is most logically sound?
- The Detective must comply because Corporals outrank everyone
- The chain of command between patrol and detective ranks cannot be determined from the given information (Correct answer)
- The Detective outranks the Corporal automatically
- Detectives always defer to uniformed officers
Correct answer: The chain of command between patrol and detective ranks cannot be determined from the given information
The ranking given covers patrol ranks only; the relationship between patrol and detective ranks is not established in the premises.
Question 69: What does 'NCIC' stand for and what is its purpose?
- National Communications Integration Center — manages radio frequencies
- National Crime Information Center — a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records (Correct answer)
- National Criminal Intelligence Center — stores arrest records only
- National Command and Incident Center — coordinates SWAT responses
Correct answer: National Crime Information Center — a nationwide database for wanted persons, stolen property, and criminal records
NCIC is the FBI's National Crime Information Center, a nationwide database officers use to check for warrants, stolen vehicles, and criminal histories.
Question 70: You respond to a domestic disturbance call. Upon arrival, you hear a woman yelling inside and observe a broken window. Under stress, which memory technique helps you retain scene details accurately?
- Suppress anxiety and focus solely on de-escalation before noting any details
- Wait until the scene is secure before making any mental notes
- Mentally narrate key observations aloud or subvocally as you approach — e.g., 'broken window, left side, ground floor' (Correct answer)
- Rely on your body camera footage instead of forming independent memories
Correct answer: Mentally narrate key observations aloud or subvocally as you approach — e.g., 'broken window, left side, ground floor'
Verbal encoding — narrating observations in real time — reinforces memory formation under stress and creates a foundation consistent with later body camera review.
Question 71: A community bulletin reads: 'The LAPD's Neighborhood Watch program is a partnership between the police and the community to reduce crime. Residents are encouraged to be vigilant and report suspicious activities to their block captain or directly to the police. The program's effectiveness relies on active participation and open communication.' What is the main idea of this passage?
- Crime reduction is a collaborative effort between the police and residents. (Correct answer)
- Police officers are solely responsible for reducing crime.
- Block captains have the authority to make arrests.
- The Neighborhood Watch program is a mandatory activity for all residents.
Correct answer: Crime reduction is a collaborative effort between the police and residents.
The passage defines the program as a 'partnership' and emphasizes that its effectiveness 'relies on active participation' from residents, highlighting the collaborative nature of the effort.
Question 72: What is 'modus operandi' (MO) in criminal investigation?
- The legal motive behind a crime
- The official classification code for a crime
- A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes (Correct answer)
- The timeline of events during an incident
Correct answer: A suspect's particular method or pattern of committing crimes
Modus operandi refers to a criminal's distinctive pattern or method of operation, used to link crimes or identify suspects.
Question 73: What does 'detain' mean as opposed to 'arrest' in police contacts?
- Detain requires a warrant while arrest does not
- Detain is a brief investigative hold without full custody; arrest is taking someone into formal custody (Correct answer)
- Detain and arrest are legally identical terms
- Detain is used only for juveniles while arrest applies to adults
Correct answer: Detain is a brief investigative hold without full custody; arrest is taking someone into formal custody
A detention is a temporary, investigative hold based on reasonable suspicion, while an arrest is a formal custodial action requiring probable cause.
Question 74: Read the following excerpt from an incident report: 'Upon arrival at the scene of the traffic collision, I observed two vehicles: a blue sedan with major front-end damage and a white SUV with significant rear-end damage. The driver of the sedan, John Doe, stated that the SUV stopped abruptly in front of him. The driver of the SUV, Jane Smith, claimed Mr. Doe was following too closely. Both parties declined medical attention.' Based on the report, which of the following can be concluded as a fact?
- The driver of the sedan was following too closely.
- The driver of the SUV caused the collision.
- Both drivers will be issued citations for the accident.
- The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The collision involved a blue sedan and a white SUV.
The report factually describes the officer's observation of a 'blue sedan' and a 'white SUV' at the scene. The statements from the drivers are presented as claims, not established facts, and there is no mention of citations being issued.
Question 75: A candidate for the LAPD takes the Physical Fitness Qualifier (PFQ). Their scores are: 40 points on the sit-ups, 30 points on the push-ups, and 35 points on the 1.5-mile run. However, they only score 15 points on the 300-meter run. What is the result of their PFQ?
- Fail, because they did not achieve the minimum required score in every event. (Correct answer)
- Incomplete, they must retake the 300-meter run on the same day.
- Pass, because their total score is 120, which is over 100.
- Pass, because they scored exceptionally well in three of the four events.
Correct answer: Fail, because they did not achieve the minimum required score in every event.
While some agencies may have different standards, to pass the LAPD PFQ, a candidate must achieve a minimum score in *each* event, in addition to a minimum cumulative score. Scoring below the minimum threshold in even one event, such as the 300-meter run in this scenario, results in an overall failure of the entire test, regardless of a high total score.
Question 76: Under the federal Lautenberg Amendment, an LAPD applicant is disqualified if they have been convicted of:
- Public intoxication within the past five years
- Any traffic-related offense involving alcohol
- A misdemeanor crime of domestic violence (Correct answer)
- Failure to appear in court on a civil matter
Correct answer: A misdemeanor crime of domestic violence
The Lautenberg Amendment (18 U.S.C. § 922(g)(9)) prohibits anyone convicted of a misdemeanor domestic violence offense from possessing firearms, making such applicants ineligible to serve as law enforcement officers.
Question 77: What does 'EDP' stand for in LAPD communications?
- Evidence Documentation Procedure
- Emotionally Disturbed Person (Correct answer)
- Enhanced Deployment Position
- Emergency Dispatch Protocol
Correct answer: Emotionally Disturbed Person
EDP stands for Emotionally Disturbed Person, referring to individuals experiencing a mental health crisis encountered by officers.
Question 78: The primary purpose of documenting a police interview in an official report is to:
- Give the investigating officer a personal reference for future investigations
- Provide case count data for departmental performance statistics
- Discourage the suspect from changing their account in the future
- Create an admissible, accurate record for prosecution and accountability (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Create an admissible, accurate record for prosecution and accountability
Official documentation creates a legally admissible record that supports prosecution, enables defense review, and ensures departmental accountability.
Question 79: In law enforcement, what is a 'BOLO'?
- Bureau of Legal Operations
- Basic Officer Level Order
- Booking of Listed Offenders
- Be On the LookOut — an alert issued to officers to watch for a specific person, vehicle, or item (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Be On the LookOut — an alert issued to officers to watch for a specific person, vehicle, or item
BOLO stands for 'Be On the LookOut' and alerts officers to watch for a specific suspect, vehicle, or stolen item.
Question 80: In LAPD radio communications, what does the term "Code 4" signify?
- A vehicle has been reported stolen.
- A supervisor is requested to respond to the location.
- An officer requires immediate, urgent assistance.
- No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: No further assistance is needed; the scene is secure.
"Code 4" is a standard and crucial radio code used by LAPD officers to indicate that a situation is under control and no more responding units are necessary. This prevents unnecessary responses and frees up resources for other calls.
LAPD Multiple Choice Test
The LAPD written entrance exam evaluates reading comprehension and English usage through four equally weighted sections: spelling, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing clarity.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
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