ISPN & CGFNS Qualifying Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Cultural competence in nursing practice primarily means:
- Avoiding patients from other countries
- Requiring patients to adopt the nurse's customs
- Providing care that respects patients' cultural beliefs, values, and language needs (Correct answer)
- Treating all patients identically regardless of background
Correct answer: Providing care that respects patients' cultural beliefs, values, and language needs
Cultural competence means delivering care that respects and responds to patients' cultural beliefs, values, and language needs.
Question 2: Which credential is most directly comparable in purpose to CGFNS for foreign-educated nurses entering the U.S.?
- A CPR card
- A state board credentials evaluation service (Correct answer)
- A pharmacy technician license
- A teaching certificate
Correct answer: A state board credentials evaluation service
A state board's credentials evaluation serves a comparable purpose, assessing foreign education against U.S. licensure standards.
Question 3: Which continuing education requirement applies to PMHN-BC recertification?
- A new full-length examination must be passed each time
- 200 clinical hours only, no CE needed
- No continuing education is required for recertification
- 30 hours of continuing education in psychiatric-mental health nursing during the certification period (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 30 hours of continuing education in psychiatric-mental health nursing during the certification period
PMHN-BC recertification requires 30 hours of continuing education relevant to psychiatric-mental health nursing over the 5-year certification period.
Question 4: A nurse whose home country uses a nursing licensure system different from the US should expect CGFNS to do what?
- Issue a temporary permit without evaluation
- Evaluate equivalency of the foreign license to US RN licensure standards (Correct answer)
- Require the nurse to repeat nursing school in the US
- Automatically reject the application
Correct answer: Evaluate equivalency of the foreign license to US RN licensure standards
CGFNS evaluates whether the foreign licensure is equivalent to US RN standards rather than requiring the nurse to repeat education.
Question 5: Which tool is used in psychiatric nursing to assess the risk of violence toward others?
- Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale
- CAGE questionnaire
- Brøset Violence Checklist (BVC) (Correct answer)
- CIWA-Ar
Correct answer: Brøset Violence Checklist (BVC)
The Brøset Violence Checklist (BVC) is a validated tool used in inpatient psychiatric settings to assess short-term risk of patient violence.
Question 6: A psychiatric nurse administers haloperidol (Haldol) and the patient develops acute muscle spasms of the neck and jaw. Which condition has occurred?
- Acute dystonia (Correct answer)
- Akathisia
- Tardive dyskinesia
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct answer: Acute dystonia
Acute dystonia — sudden, sustained involuntary muscle contractions, commonly affecting the neck (torticollis) and jaw — is an acute extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics.
Question 7: What type of questions dominate the CGFNS-QE format?
- True/false questions
- Essay questions
- Oral examination responses
- Multiple-choice questions with one best answer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Multiple-choice questions with one best answer
Like the NCLEX-RN, the CGFNS-QE primarily uses multiple-choice questions requiring the selection of the single best answer among four options.
Question 8: Which of the following is an example of a basic-level intervention within psychiatric-mental health nursing according to ISPN standards?
- Prescribing psychotropic medications
- Milieu therapy (Correct answer)
- Interpreting neuroimaging studies
- Performing electroconvulsive therapy
Correct answer: Milieu therapy
Milieu therapy, which involves managing the therapeutic environment, is a basic-level psychiatric nursing intervention available to all registered nurses in the specialty.
Question 9: A temperature of 101 degrees has been recorded in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and pneumocystis jiroveci infection. Pentamidine is administered to the patient (pentam 300). Which of the following symptoms does a fever indicate?
- The drug is causing side effects in the patient.
- The patient's thermoregulation has become insufficient.
- Another infection developed as a result of the medication's leukopenic side effects. (Correct answer)
- The medication's dose is too low.
Correct answer: Another infection developed as a result of the medication's leukopenic side effects.
Pentamidine, used to treat Pneumocystis jiroveci infection in AIDS patients, can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to leukopenia (low white blood cell count). In an immunocompromised patient with leukopenia, a fever is a critical indicator of a new or worsening infection. Their compromised immune system makes them highly susceptible to opportunistic infections, and fever signals the body's struggle against pathogens.
Question 10: Which document type does CGFNS require to be sent directly from the issuing institution?
- A notarized self-statement
- A personal photocopy of the diploma
- Official transcripts and verification of licensure from the source (Correct answer)
- An employer reference letter
Correct answer: Official transcripts and verification of licensure from the source
CGFNS requires official transcripts and license verification sent directly from the educational institution and licensing authority to ensure authenticity.
Question 11: Which of the following best describes the CGFNS Qualifying Exam (CGFNS-QE)?
- The final licensing exam required to practice in the US
- An exam exclusively for psychiatric nurses
- A continuing education assessment for experienced RNs
- A predictor exam that assesses readiness for the NCLEX-RN for internationally educated nurses (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A predictor exam that assesses readiness for the NCLEX-RN for internationally educated nurses
The CGFNS-QE is a predictor examination designed to assess whether internationally educated nurses are likely to pass the NCLEX-RN.
Question 12: Which U.S. agency requires the VisaScreen certificate under immigration law?
- The FDA
- U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) (Correct answer)
- The CDC
- The Department of Education
Correct answer: U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services requires the VisaScreen certificate for foreign healthcare worker visas.
Question 13: Under the NGN NCLEX-RN, which new item type presents a patient scenario in 6 sequential 'tabs' of information for the candidate to analyze?
- Bow-tie item
- Unfolding case study (Correct answer)
- Extended drag-and-drop
- Matrix/grid question
Correct answer: Unfolding case study
The unfolding case study presents evolving patient information across 6 connected tabs, testing how nurses analyze and respond to changing clinical situations.
Question 14: A nurse's professional license submitted to CGFNS must generally be:
- From any healthcare field
- Issued only by the United States
- Current, valid, and unencumbered (Correct answer)
- Expired but recently held
Correct answer: Current, valid, and unencumbered
CGFNS requires a current, valid, and unencumbered license for its evaluation and VisaScreen services.
Question 15: Which principle guides the NCLEX-RN in determining the minimum passing standard?
- The passing standard is set at the 50th percentile of all test-takers
- The 'passing standard' represents the minimum level of competency needed for safe and effective entry-level nursing practice (Correct answer)
- The passing standard requires answering 75% of questions correctly
- The passing standard is based on academic GPA from nursing school
Correct answer: The 'passing standard' represents the minimum level of competency needed for safe and effective entry-level nursing practice
The NCLEX-RN passing standard represents the minimum competency threshold for safe, effective entry-level nursing practice, as determined by NCSBN practice analysis surveys.
Question 16: During a softball game, the client was hit by a wild pitch and incurred an eye injury. What is the nurse's initial response?
- Perform visual acuity tests
- Put on an eye patch. (Correct answer)
- Notify the doctor
- Immediately apply ice to the affected area.
Correct answer: Put on an eye patch.
The immediate priority for an eye injury is to protect the eye from further damage and prevent the client from inadvertently touching or rubbing it. Applying an eye patch immobilizes the eye, shields it from external irritants, and helps reduce pain. While other actions like visual acuity tests and notifying the doctor are important, immediate protection is the initial critical step.
Question 17: Which step must an internationally educated nurse complete BEFORE taking the NCLEX-RN in most US states?
- Obtain a Social Security number
- Pass the CGFNS-QE
- Complete 500 US clinical hours
- Submit a CGFNS CES report to the state board of nursing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Submit a CGFNS CES report to the state board of nursing
Most state boards of nursing require a CGFNS CES report verifying that an internationally educated nurse's credentials meet US standards before NCLEX eligibility is granted.
Question 18: Which mood stabilizer requires monitoring of serum levels and is associated with teratogenic risk including neural tube defects?
- Lithium
- Valproate (Depakote) (Correct answer)
- Carbamazepine
- Lamotrigine
Correct answer: Valproate (Depakote)
Valproate is associated with neural tube defects and requires serum level monitoring; it is contraindicated in pregnancy due to high teratogenic risk.
Question 19: Which one of the following is not a source of acquired immunity?
- Antibodies received in response to disease
- Animal serum
- Prescribed multivitamins (Correct answer)
- Antibodies received from the mother
Correct answer: Prescribed multivitamins
Acquired immunity refers to the immunity developed during an individual's lifetime, either actively (e.g., through exposure to disease or vaccination) or passively (e.g., through antibodies received from the mother or animal serum). Prescribed multivitamins provide essential nutrients that support overall health, but they do not directly confer or contribute to acquired immunity itself.
Question 20: Which study resource is most aligned with CGFNS-QE preparation because it covers the same client needs framework?
- Medical school entrance exam guides
- NCLEX-RN review books and practice questions (Correct answer)
- Pharmacology textbooks from the applicant's home country only
- Hospital-specific policy manuals
Correct answer: NCLEX-RN review books and practice questions
NCLEX-RN review books are the most relevant resources because the CGFNS-QE mirrors the NCLEX-RN client needs framework and content areas.
Question 21: The CGFNS Certification Program is primarily designed for which group?
- Nursing assistants in the United States
- U.S.-educated registered nurses only
- Foreign-educated first-level general nurses seeking U.S. licensure (Correct answer)
- Physicians trained abroad
Correct answer: Foreign-educated first-level general nurses seeking U.S. licensure
The CGFNS Certification Program evaluates foreign-educated first-level general nurses planning to practice in the United States.
Question 22: Which infection control concept is commonly tested on the CGFNS-QE under the Safe Care Environment category?
- Advanced pharmacogenomics
- Surgical suture techniques
- Standard and transmission-based precautions (Correct answer)
- Radiation oncology protocols
Correct answer: Standard and transmission-based precautions
Standard and transmission-based precautions are fundamental infection control measures heavily tested under the Safe and Effective Care Environment category.
Question 23: Which benzodiazepine property is most important for psychiatric nurses to teach patients regarding long-term use?
- Physical dependence and the risk of withdrawal seizures if stopped abruptly (Correct answer)
- Improved cognitive function over time
- No risk of interaction with other CNS depressants
- Permanent cure of anxiety disorders after 6 months of use
Correct answer: Physical dependence and the risk of withdrawal seizures if stopped abruptly
Benzodiazepines cause physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation after prolonged use can trigger life-threatening withdrawal seizures, requiring gradual tapering.
Question 24: For the PMHN-BC exam, which content area addresses the nurse's role in managing psychiatric emergencies?
- Crisis intervention and de-escalation (Correct answer)
- Pharmacology and prescribing protocols
- Research methodology
- Health informatics
Correct answer: Crisis intervention and de-escalation
Crisis intervention and de-escalation is a core content area for the PMHN-BC, covering the RN's role in managing acute psychiatric emergencies safely.
Question 25: When prescribing Allopurinol (Zyloprim) to a patient, the nurse should include the following instructions:
- That swelling of the lips is a normal and expected reaction.
- The medication's effect will be felt right away.
- a daily fluid intake of 3000 mL (Correct answer)
- The medicine should be taken on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: a daily fluid intake of 3000 mL
Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed to reduce uric acid levels, which helps prevent gout attacks and kidney stones. Maintaining a high fluid intake, typically around 3000 mL daily, is crucial when taking allopurinol. This increased hydration helps to promote the excretion of uric acid and its metabolites through the kidneys, thereby preventing the formation of uric acid kidney stones.
Question 26: When a client has been sexually abused, the nurse is in the preinteraction phase of the nurse-client relationship. During this time, the nurse should do:
- Actively listen to the client as he expresses his feelings and thoughts.
- Identify themes in patient behavior patterns and potential coping methods.
- Determine how people react to termination and separation.
- Examine the personal beliefs, preconceptions, and biases as they relate to the nurse-client interaction. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Examine the personal beliefs, preconceptions, and biases as they relate to the nurse-client interaction.
The preinteraction phase of the nurse-client relationship occurs before the nurse physically meets the client. During this crucial phase, the nurse's primary task is self-reflection and self-assessment. This involves examining personal beliefs, preconceptions, and potential biases related to the client's situation to ensure the provision of non-judgmental, empathetic, and professional care.
Question 27: A patient has voluntarily checked herself into the hospital's mental health unit. The nurse anticipates the following from the client:
- The client will be angry and confrontational
- The client refuses to be treated.
- The patient will be participating in the treatment and care planning. (Correct answer)
- The client's family is not going to cooperate.
Correct answer: The patient will be participating in the treatment and care planning.
A client who has voluntarily checked into a mental health unit has chosen to seek treatment and engage in their care. This implies a willingness to participate actively in their treatment and care planning. Voluntary admission grants the client more autonomy and rights regarding their treatment decisions compared to involuntary commitment.
Question 28: Which psychiatric nursing assessment strategy is most effective when a patient is acutely psychotic and paranoid?
- Using a calm, non-threatening tone and avoiding sudden movements (Correct answer)
- Leaving the patient alone in the room to self-calm
- Restraining the patient immediately as a precaution
- Confronting the patient's delusions directly with factual evidence
Correct answer: Using a calm, non-threatening tone and avoiding sudden movements
A calm, non-threatening approach de-escalates paranoid patients by reducing perceived threat, which is safer and more therapeutic than confrontation or physical intervention.
Question 29: The primary goal of therapeutic communication in psychiatric nursing is to:
- Advise patients on how to solve their problems
- Establish a trusting relationship that promotes patient healing (Correct answer)
- Gather data for the medical record
- Minimize patient anxiety during procedures
Correct answer: Establish a trusting relationship that promotes patient healing
Therapeutic communication focuses on building a trusting nurse-patient relationship that supports mental health recovery and patient wellbeing.
Question 30: A patient on an SSRI develops agitation, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, and muscle rigidity. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
- Serotonin syndrome (Correct answer)
- Lithium toxicity
- Alcohol withdrawal delirium
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct answer: Serotonin syndrome
The combination of agitation, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, and rigidity is the classic triad of serotonin syndrome, a dangerous reaction to serotonergic drugs.
Question 31: How does passing the CGFNS-QE benefit an internationally educated nurse applying for US licensure?
- It qualifies the nurse for prescriptive authority in all states
- It replaces the CGFNS CES credentials evaluation
- It automatically grants the nurse a US RN license without taking NCLEX
- It demonstrates readiness for NCLEX-RN and may satisfy some state board pre-licensure requirements (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It demonstrates readiness for NCLEX-RN and may satisfy some state board pre-licensure requirements
A passing CGFNS-QE score demonstrates readiness for NCLEX-RN and may satisfy certain state board requirements as part of the endorsement process for international nurses.
Question 32: How long is the PMHN-BC certification valid before renewal is required?
- 5 years (Correct answer)
- 1 year
- 2 years
- 10 years
Correct answer: 5 years
ANCC certifications including PMHN-BC are valid for 5 years, after which recertification through CE or re-examination is required.
Question 33: What is the minimum number of questions an NCLEX-RN candidate can answer before the exam ends under the current NGN format?
- 25 questions
- 50 questions
- 265 questions
- 85 questions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 85 questions
Under the current NGN format, the NCLEX-RN has a minimum of 85 questions, which includes both scoreable and pretest items before CAT can determine competency.
Question 34: Which organization provides the Authorization to Test (ATT) letter that internationally educated nurses need to schedule the NCLEX-RN?
- CGFNS International
- The National Nurses Association
- Pearson VUE, after the state board approves the candidate's eligibility (Correct answer)
- The candidate's employer
Correct answer: Pearson VUE, after the state board approves the candidate's eligibility
Once a state board approves an international nurse's eligibility, Pearson VUE (NCLEX's test delivery vendor) issues the Authorization to Test (ATT) letter required to schedule the exam.
Question 35: Which organization administers the ISPN psychiatric-mental health nursing certification examinations?
- American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) (Correct answer)
- American Psychiatric Nurses Association
- National Board of Nursing Specialists
- Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools (CGFNS)
Correct answer: American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC)
The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) administers psychiatric-mental health nursing certification examinations endorsed by ISPN.
Question 36: 'Voicing doubt' as a therapeutic technique involves:
- Directly telling the patient their beliefs are irrational
- Remaining silent to avoid reinforcing false beliefs
- Expressing uncertainty about the patient's interpretation without direct confrontation (Correct answer)
- Asking the patient for evidence to support their stated beliefs
Correct answer: Expressing uncertainty about the patient's interpretation without direct confrontation
Voicing doubt gently expresses the nurse's uncertainty about the patient's perception of reality without direct argument, preserving rapport while introducing gentle reality testing.
Question 37: A patient reports a pain level of 8 out of 10 after surgery; the nurse's priority action is to:
- Assess the pain and administer prescribed analgesia (Correct answer)
- Tell the patient pain is expected
- Document and reassess in 4 hours
- Discharge the patient
Correct answer: Assess the pain and administer prescribed analgesia
Severe reported pain warrants assessment and prompt administration of prescribed pain relief.
Question 38: Which best describes the overall goal of standardized credentialing like CGFNS and related programs?
- To protect the public by ensuring foreign-educated nurses meet U.S. competency standards (Correct answer)
- To replace national licensing boards
- To eliminate the NCLEX requirement
- To restrict all nurse migration
Correct answer: To protect the public by ensuring foreign-educated nurses meet U.S. competency standards
These programs protect the public by verifying that foreign-educated nurses meet U.S. education, licensure, and language standards.
Question 39: The CGFNS Qualifying Exam content is most closely organized around which framework?
- Medical billing codes
- The nursing process and client need categories (Correct answer)
- Pharmaceutical chemistry only
- Hospital administration policy
Correct answer: The nursing process and client need categories
The Qualifying Exam is built around the nursing process and client-need categories similar to the NCLEX-RN test plan.
Question 40: Which laboratory value must be monitored regularly in patients taking clozapine (Clozaril)?
- Blood glucose
- Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) (Correct answer)
- Serum potassium
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Correct answer: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; regular ANC monitoring is mandatory and patients must be enrolled in a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program.
Question 41: Which nursing concept is central to questions on the CGFNS-QE related to patient safety?
- Hospital administration finance
- Research grant writing
- Prioritization and delegation (Correct answer)
- Advanced surgical techniques
Correct answer: Prioritization and delegation
Prioritization and delegation are central patient safety concepts heavily tested on the CGFNS-QE, reflecting NCLEX-RN's focus on safe nursing practice.
Question 42: Which English language test is commonly accepted within the CGFNS Certification Program?
- SAT
- GMAT
- TOEFL iBT or IELTS Academic (Correct answer)
- GRE
Correct answer: TOEFL iBT or IELTS Academic
CGFNS accepts approved English proficiency tests such as the TOEFL iBT and IELTS Academic.
Question 43: Maslow's hierarchy suggests a nurse should address which need before psychosocial concerns?
- Self-esteem
- Career goals
- Spiritual fulfillment
- Physiological needs such as oxygen and nutrition (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Physiological needs such as oxygen and nutrition
Physiological needs are the foundation of Maslow's hierarchy and must be met before higher-level needs.
Question 44: What does CGFNS verify when reviewing a foreign nursing license for CES?
- That the nurse holds a BSN degree
- That the license was valid and in good standing at the time of graduation (Correct answer)
- That the nurse has at least five years of experience
- That the nurse passed the NCLEX-RN
Correct answer: That the license was valid and in good standing at the time of graduation
CGFNS confirms the foreign nursing license was valid and in good standing when the nurse graduated and practiced.
Question 45: What happens if CGFNS cannot verify a foreign nursing school's accreditation status?
- The application is escalated to ANCC
- CGFNS issues a conditional approval
- The credentials evaluation cannot be completed and the report may be withheld (Correct answer)
- The applicant automatically fails the NCLEX
Correct answer: The credentials evaluation cannot be completed and the report may be withheld
If CGFNS cannot verify a school's accreditation, the credentials evaluation cannot be completed and the report will not be issued.
Question 46: Which type of nurse is the CGFNS VisaScreen certificate primarily designed for?
- US-born nurses applying for travel nursing
- Nurses seeking ISPN board certification
- Nurses applying for state-level endorsements
- Internationally educated nurses seeking US occupational visas (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Internationally educated nurses seeking US occupational visas
The CGFNS VisaScreen certificate is required for internationally educated healthcare workers applying for US occupational visas under certain visa categories.
Question 47: Which patient teaching point is most important for a patient starting bupropion (Wellbutrin)?
- Report any seizures immediately, as bupropion lowers the seizure threshold (Correct answer)
- Avoid sunlight completely while taking this medication
- It is safe to combine with MAOIs without risk
- Take it only at bedtime due to sedation
Correct answer: Report any seizures immediately, as bupropion lowers the seizure threshold
Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, making seizure risk a critical safety teaching point; dose-related seizure risk increases at higher doses.
Question 48: Which English proficiency exam is accepted by CGFNS for VisaScreen purposes?
- MCAT
- USMLE
- GRE
- TOEFL iBT (Correct answer)
Correct answer: TOEFL iBT
CGFNS accepts the TOEFL iBT (among other approved tests) as evidence of English language proficiency for VisaScreen certification.
Question 49: Which resource does CGFNS recommend candidates review to understand what topics appear on the CGFNS-QE?
- The official CGFNS-QE Candidate Handbook and content outline (Correct answer)
- The Joint Commission hospital accreditation manual
- Any foreign nursing textbook published before 1990
- US state-specific nursing practice acts only
Correct answer: The official CGFNS-QE Candidate Handbook and content outline
The official CGFNS-QE Candidate Handbook contains the content outline describing exactly what topics and client needs categories are tested on the exam.
Question 50: Which NCLEX-RN content area covers the nurse's responsibility for safe medication administration?
- Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies (Correct answer)
- Management of Care
- Psychosocial Integrity
- Basic Care and Comfort
Correct answer: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies covers medication administration, IV therapy, and related nursing responsibilities within the NCLEX-RN test plan.
Question 51: Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) has been prescribed for an 10-year-old child who has been acting out in class. The nurse will tell the parents to do the:
- Unless otherwise directed, ensure that dosages are given consistently.
- Ensure that the child consumes 6-8 glasses of water per day.
- Make sure to take the prescription after a full meal.
- Give the last dose at least 6 hours before going to bed. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Give the last dose at least 6 hours before going to bed.
Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) is a central nervous system stimulant used to treat ADHD. A common side effect of stimulants is insomnia or difficulty sleeping. To minimize sleep disturbances, parents are typically instructed to administer the last dose of the medication at least 6 hours before the child's bedtime, allowing the stimulating effects to wear off.
Question 52: When a nurse says 'You mentioned feeling overwhelmed — tell me more about that,' which technique is being used?
- Giving information
- Exploring (Correct answer)
- Summarizing
- Restating
Correct answer: Exploring
Exploring encourages the patient to elaborate on a topic by inviting them to delve deeper into their thoughts, feelings, or experiences.
Question 53: Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of opioid use disorder by blocking opioid receptors?
- Quetiapine (Seroquel)
- Naltrexone (Vivitrol) (Correct answer)
- Valproate (Depakote)
- Clonazepam (Klonopin)
Correct answer: Naltrexone (Vivitrol)
Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist FDA-approved for treating opioid use disorder and alcohol use disorder by blocking the euphoric effects of opioids.
Question 54: Which medication is used to treat extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) caused by antipsychotics?
- Flumazenil (Romazicon)
- Lithium carbonate
- Benztropine (Cogentin) (Correct answer)
- Naloxone (Narcan)
Correct answer: Benztropine (Cogentin)
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat EPS including acute dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia caused by antipsychotic drugs.
Question 55: An internationally educated nurse who fails NCLEX-RN must wait how long before retaking the examination?
- 24 hours
- 6 months
- 45 days, as required by NCSBN policy (Correct answer)
- 1 year
Correct answer: 45 days, as required by NCSBN policy
NCSBN policy requires a minimum 45-day waiting period between NCLEX-RN attempts to allow candidates time for additional preparation.
Question 56: For the CGFNS VisaScreen, which minimum English language score on TOEFL iBT is generally required?
- Scores are not used; only oral interviews count
- A total score of 83 with specific minimum scores in each section (Correct answer)
- A perfect score of 120
- Any passing score above 60
Correct answer: A total score of 83 with specific minimum scores in each section
CGFNS generally requires a TOEFL iBT total score of at least 83 with specified minimums in speaking, listening, reading, and writing sections.
Question 57: An internationally educated nurse taking NCLEX-RN encounters a question about 'standard precautions.' Which practice does this refer to?
- Treating all patient blood and body fluids as potentially infectious regardless of diagnosis (Correct answer)
- Handwashing only when visible soil is present
- Isolating only patients with confirmed infections
- Using full PPE only when a patient has HIV
Correct answer: Treating all patient blood and body fluids as potentially infectious regardless of diagnosis
Standard precautions require treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious for every patient, regardless of their known diagnosis or infection status.
Question 58: A assistance group has been talking with a depressed hospital patient. Which behaviors suggest that the patient is on the verge of committing suicide?
- The patient expresses his dissatisfaction with the other members of the group to the nurse.
- The patient has outbursts of anger
- The patient begins to give away his or her stuff. (Correct answer)
- Because he dislikes the group leader, the patient requests to be placed in another group.
Correct answer: The patient begins to give away his or her stuff.
A critical warning sign of impending suicide, especially in a depressed individual, is the act of giving away cherished possessions or making final arrangements. This behavior often indicates that the person has made a decision to end their life and is 'tying up loose ends.' It suggests a shift from suicidal ideation to concrete planning and intent, requiring immediate and urgent intervention.
Question 59: Which nursing action reflects the CGFNS-QE principle of management of care?
- A nurse diagnoses a psychiatric disorder
- A nurse administers IV chemotherapy independently
- A nurse correctly delegates a blood glucose check to a certified nursing assistant (Correct answer)
- A nurse performs an appendectomy under supervision
Correct answer: A nurse correctly delegates a blood glucose check to a certified nursing assistant
Correctly delegating appropriate tasks to assistive personnel is a management of care competency tested on both the CGFNS-QE and NCLEX-RN.
Question 60: Which framework guides the ANCC PMHN-BC exam content outline?
- The Joint Commission behavioral health standards
- The NIH mental health research agenda
- ISPN's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice (Correct answer)
- DSM-5 diagnostic criteria exclusively
Correct answer: ISPN's Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice
The ANCC PMHN-BC exam content outline is derived from ISPN's Scope and Standards of Practice, which defines the competencies of psychiatric-mental health nurses.
Question 61: What document does a state board of nursing issue to an internationally educated nurse who has passed NCLEX-RN and met all licensure requirements?
- Registered Nurse (RN) license for that state (Correct answer)
- VisaScreen certificate
- ANCC board certification
- CGFNS CES report
Correct answer: Registered Nurse (RN) license for that state
Upon passing NCLEX-RN and meeting all requirements, the state board issues the nurse an RN license for that state, authorizing legal practice as a registered nurse.
Question 62: On the CGFNS-QE, a question about teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient about insulin self-injection falls under which category?
- Psychosocial Integrity
- Management of Care
- Physiological Adaptation
- Health Promotion and Maintenance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Patient teaching about self-management of a chronic condition such as diabetes falls under Health Promotion and Maintenance on both the CGFNS-QE and NCLEX-RN.
Question 63: The treatment of which symptom is the expected effect of omeprazole (Prilosec).
- Flatulence
- Constipation
- Heartburn (Correct answer)
- Diarrhea
Correct answer: Heartburn
Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that works by irreversibly blocking the enzyme responsible for producing stomach acid. Heartburn is a primary symptom caused by stomach acid refluxing into the esophagus. By significantly reducing acid production, omeprazole effectively alleviates and prevents heartburn associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
Question 64: What dietary restriction must a patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) follow?
- Avoid tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and red wine (Correct answer)
- Limit water intake to 1 liter per day
- Avoid vitamin C-containing foods
- Avoid all dairy products
Correct answer: Avoid tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and red wine
MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine; consuming tyramine-rich foods can trigger a hypertensive crisis, making dietary restriction essential for patient safety.
Question 65: Which antipsychotic side effect requires the psychiatric nurse to regularly monitor for abnormal involuntary movements?
- Tardive dyskinesia (Correct answer)
- Serotonin syndrome
- Agranulocytosis
- Hypertensive crisis
Correct answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Tardive dyskinesia — repetitive, involuntary movements — is a serious long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications requiring regular monitoring with tools like the AIMS.
Question 66: When prioritizing care for multiple patients, which principle should a nurse apply first?
- Order of admission
- Alphabetical order of patient names
- Room number sequence
- Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)
Life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation problems take priority in patient care decisions.
Question 67: What is the primary eligibility requirement related to licensure for the PMHN-BC certification?
- An LPN license with 10 years of psychiatric experience
- A foreign nursing credential verified by CGFNS
- A DNP degree from an accredited program
- A current, active RN license in the US or its territories (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A current, active RN license in the US or its territories
Applicants must hold a current, active RN license in the US or its territories to be eligible for the PMHN-BC certification.
Question 68: The therapy in which a client's feelings, attitudes, and behaviors are modified by focusing on the therapist-client relationship is called:
- Interpersonal psychotherapy (Correct answer)
- Behavior therapy
- Family therapy
- Cognitive therapy
Correct answer: Interpersonal psychotherapy
Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) is a focused, time-limited form of therapy that emphasizes the role of interpersonal relationships and social functioning in mental health. It aims to help clients improve their communication patterns and the way they relate to others, thereby modifying maladaptive feelings, attitudes, and behaviors that contribute to their psychological distress.
Question 69: Methamphetamine (Desoxyn) was prescribed to a 8-year-old girl who was overly energetic at home. The nurse instructs the parents to do:
- Ensure that the child sleeps for at least 8 hours.
- Make sure to take the prescription after a full meal.
- Give the last dose at least 6 hours before going to bed. (Correct answer)
- Establish that the child eats a low-sodium diet
Correct answer: Give the last dose at least 6 hours before going to bed.
Methamphetamine (Desoxyn) is a central nervous system stimulant used for ADHD, similar to other amphetamines. Like other stimulants, it can cause insomnia and interfere with sleep. To prevent sleep disturbances, the last dose of the medication should be given at least 6 hours before bedtime, allowing its stimulating effects to diminish before the child attempts to sleep.
Question 70: A client with hypokalemia is receiving instruction from the nurse. What kind of diet will the nurse be introducing?
- High-potassium diet (Correct answer)
- Sodium-restricted diet
- Cardiac diet
- Fat-restricted diet
Correct answer: High-potassium diet
Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by lower-than-normal potassium levels in the blood, which can impair nerve and muscle function, including cardiac activity. To correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would recommend a high-potassium diet. This involves incorporating foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, leafy green vegetables, and potatoes, to help restore normal potassium levels.
Question 71: What is one reason a CGFNS CES application might be returned as incomplete?
- Missing official transcripts sent directly from the nursing school (Correct answer)
- The applicant requested expedited processing
- The nurse graduated from a BSN program rather than a diploma program
- The nurse has more than 10 years of experience
Correct answer: Missing official transcripts sent directly from the nursing school
Applications are returned as incomplete when required documents such as official transcripts sent directly from the institution are missing.
Question 72: A patient on lithium is also prescribed ibuprofen for pain. What interaction should the psychiatric nurse anticipate?
- There is no known interaction between lithium and NSAIDs
- Ibuprofen accelerates lithium excretion, lowering its level
- Ibuprofen can increase serum lithium levels, raising toxicity risk (Correct answer)
- Ibuprofen decreases lithium effectiveness with no safety concern
Correct answer: Ibuprofen can increase serum lithium levels, raising toxicity risk
NSAIDs like ibuprofen reduce renal lithium clearance, causing serum lithium levels to rise and increasing the risk of lithium toxicity.
Question 73: Which of the following is the most important assessment for a client receiving bumetanide (Bumex) intravenously for acute congestive heart failure?
- Monitoring potassium level
- Monitoring weight loss
- Monitoring blood pressure (Correct answer)
- Monitoring urine output
Correct answer: Monitoring blood pressure
Bumetanide (Bumex) is a potent loop diuretic used to treat fluid overload in conditions like acute congestive heart failure. Diuretics promote significant fluid excretion, which can lead to volume depletion and a dangerous drop in blood pressure (hypotension). Therefore, closely monitoring blood pressure is the most important assessment to ensure patient safety and prevent adverse cardiovascular events.
Question 74: Before administering a medication, the nurse should verify the rights of medication administration, which include:
- Right insurance and billing code
- Right visiting hours
- Right room temperature
- Right patient, drug, dose, route, and time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Right patient, drug, dose, route, and time
The classic rights of medication administration include the right patient, drug, dose, route, and time.
Question 75: If a client is experiencing dizziness after receiving procainamide (Procanbid) intravenously, the first nursing action is to:
- Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram as soon as possible.
- Using a rhythm strip, record the heart rate.
- Administer the nitroglycerin pills as directed.
- Obtain a blood pressure reading by auscultating the client's apical pulse. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Obtain a blood pressure reading by auscultating the client's apical pulse.
Procainamide is an antiarrhythmic medication that can cause hypotension as a significant side effect, especially with intravenous administration. Dizziness is a common symptom of hypotension. Therefore, the nurse's first and most crucial action is to assess the client's blood pressure to confirm hypotension and guide appropriate interventions to ensure patient safety.
Question 76: In a psychiatric assessment, 'flight of ideas' is best described as which of the following?
- A fixed false belief held despite evidence to the contrary
- Slow, deliberate thought processing
- Rapid, loosely connected thoughts that jump from topic to topic (Correct answer)
- Hearing voices that others cannot hear
Correct answer: Rapid, loosely connected thoughts that jump from topic to topic
Flight of ideas refers to a rapid succession of thoughts that are loosely connected, shifting quickly from one idea to another, commonly seen in manic episodes.
Question 77: Which of the following reports would be useful to a nurse caring for a pyrazinamide-addicted client?
- Complete blood count
- Lead test
- Sputum culture (Correct answer)
- Blood culture
Correct answer: Sputum culture
Pyrazinamide is an antitubercular drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB). A sputum culture is a diagnostic test that identifies the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in respiratory secretions. Monitoring sputum cultures during treatment is essential to assess the effectiveness of the medication in eradicating the bacteria and to determine when the client is no longer infectious.
Question 78: The PMHN-BC credential stands for what?
- Professional Mental Health Nurse-Behavior Certified
- Psychiatric-Medical Health Nurse-Broadly Certified
- Primary Mental Health Nurse-Basic Certified
- Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse-Board Certified (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse-Board Certified
PMHN-BC stands for Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse-Board Certified, the credential awarded to RNs who pass the ANCC psychiatric nursing exam.
Question 79: What is the typical processing time applicants should expect for a standard CGFNS CES report?
- Exactly 30 days by law
- 24–48 hours after submission
- One business week
- Several months depending on response times from foreign institutions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Several months depending on response times from foreign institutions
CES processing can take several months because CGFNS must contact foreign institutions and verify documents, which varies by country.
Question 80: Which scenario would most likely delay a CGFNS credentials evaluation?
- Documents sent directly by the school
- An accepted English test score
- An unencumbered current license
- Transcripts that arrive incomplete or not from the source institution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Transcripts that arrive incomplete or not from the source institution
Incomplete documents or those not sent directly from the source institution commonly delay the evaluation.
Question 81: A nurse who identifies a medication error they made should first:
- Conceal it to avoid blame
- Blame the pharmacy
- Wait until the end of the shift
- Report it promptly and assess the patient for harm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Report it promptly and assess the patient for harm
Ethical and safe practice requires promptly reporting the error and assessing the patient for any harm.
Question 82: Which US nursing endorsement process allows an RN licensed in one state to obtain licensure in another state?
- Endorsement by reciprocity through the new state's board of nursing (Correct answer)
- Retaking NCLEX-RN in every new state
- Obtaining a new CGFNS CES report for each state
- Passing a state-specific practical examination
Correct answer: Endorsement by reciprocity through the new state's board of nursing
Endorsement allows a nurse licensed in one US state to apply for licensure in another state without retaking NCLEX-RN, provided they meet the new state's requirements.
Question 83: On Coumadin, the client had a prothrombin time of 20 seconds and a control time of 11 seconds. According to the nurse, this means:
- The results are above the therapeutic range.
- Test needs to be repeated
- Results are lower than the needed therapeutic level
- Within the therapeutic range (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Within the therapeutic range
Coumadin (warfarin) is an anticoagulant, and its therapeutic effect is monitored by the prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). A common therapeutic range for PT when a client is on warfarin is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. With a client's PT of 20 seconds and a control of 11 seconds, the ratio is approximately 1.82 (20/11), which falls within this established therapeutic range.
Question 84: Which document is required as part of the CGFNS Credentials Evaluation Service (CES) application?
- Three professional references
- A criminal background check
- A personal statement essay
- Official nursing school transcripts (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Official nursing school transcripts
Official nursing school transcripts are a core document required for CGFNS CES to verify educational credentials.
Question 85: A CGFNS-QE candidate who fails the exam may do which of the following?
- Appeal to have the score waived by a state board
- Transfer their score to a different country's nursing board
- Automatically receive their nursing license anyway
- Reapply and retake the exam after satisfying waiting period requirements (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reapply and retake the exam after satisfying waiting period requirements
Candidates who fail the CGFNS-QE may reapply and retake the exam, but they must satisfy applicable waiting period and reapplication requirements.
Question 86: Which of the following BEST describes 'suggesting collaboration' in therapeutic communication?
- The team has already determined the best approach for your recovery.
- Let's think together about strategies that might help you manage stress. (Correct answer)
- I'll refer you to occupational therapy for coping skills training.
- I will coordinate your care plan with the full treatment team.
Correct answer: Let's think together about strategies that might help you manage stress.
Suggesting collaboration invites the patient to participate as an active partner in their own care, promoting autonomy, engagement, and therapeutic rapport.
Question 87: Which professional behavior best demonstrates ethical nursing practice valued across these standards?
- Maintaining patient confidentiality and obtaining informed consent (Correct answer)
- Skipping documentation to save time
- Sharing patient information freely with visitors
- Making decisions for competent patients without input
Correct answer: Maintaining patient confidentiality and obtaining informed consent
Protecting confidentiality and ensuring informed consent are core ethical obligations in professional nursing.
Question 88: Which rating scale is commonly used by psychiatric nurses to assess depression severity?
- Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) (Correct answer)
- Morse Fall Scale
- Braden Scale for Pressure Sores
- Glasgow Coma Scale
Correct answer: Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
The PHQ-9 is a validated 9-item self-report tool used to screen for and assess the severity of depression in clinical settings.
Question 89: What is the first step an internationally educated nurse must complete to begin the NCLEX-RN licensure process in the US?
- Register directly with Pearson VUE test centers
- Obtain a Social Security number before anything else
- Apply to a state board of nursing for eligibility determination (Correct answer)
- Submit NCLEX scores from their home country
Correct answer: Apply to a state board of nursing for eligibility determination
The first step is applying to a specific state board of nursing, which determines whether the international nurse's credentials meet eligibility requirements for NCLEX-RN testing.
Question 90: Which assessment tool is specifically used to identify symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in a psychiatric nursing evaluation?
- Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
- PTSD Checklist for DSM-5 (PCL-5) (Correct answer)
- Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
- Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
Correct answer: PTSD Checklist for DSM-5 (PCL-5)
The PCL-5 is a validated 20-item self-report measure that assesses the presence and severity of DSM-5 PTSD symptoms.
Question 91: Which of the following best describes the 'advanced practice' tier of psychiatric nursing recognized by ISPN?
- Nurses with 2 years of psychiatric experience only
- Nurses who have completed a CE course in mental health
- Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioners who diagnose and prescribe (Correct answer)
- Staff nurses who work on inpatient psychiatric units
Correct answer: Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioners who diagnose and prescribe
Advanced practice psychiatric nursing is represented by PMHNPs who have graduate education and are authorized to diagnose mental health conditions and prescribe medications.
Question 92: Which nursing assessment finding would most concern a psychiatric nurse evaluating a patient for command hallucinations?
- The patient reports hearing a voice telling them to hurt themselves or others (Correct answer)
- The patient sleeps more than 10 hours per night
- The patient refuses to eat breakfast
- The patient reports mild anxiety about hospitalization
Correct answer: The patient reports hearing a voice telling them to hurt themselves or others
Command hallucinations — voices instructing the patient to harm themselves or others — represent an acute safety risk requiring immediate intervention.
Question 93: Which second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic is FDA-approved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
- Clozapine (Clozaril) (Correct answer)
- Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- Haloperidol (Haldol)
Correct answer: Clozapine (Clozaril)
Clozapine is the only FDA-approved antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, though its use requires strict monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk.
Question 94: Which of the following correctly describes how the NCLEX-RN uses computerized adaptive testing (CAT)?
- Questions are randomly selected with no adaptation
- Every candidate receives the same 265 questions in the same order
- Candidates choose their own question difficulty level
- The exam adapts question difficulty based on the candidate's previous answers to determine competency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The exam adapts question difficulty based on the candidate's previous answers to determine competency
CAT adjusts the difficulty of each subsequent question based on whether the candidate answered the previous question correctly, efficiently determining competency level.
Question 95: CGFNS International is headquartered in which U.S. city?
- New York, New York
- Chicago, Illinois
- Philadelphia, Pennsylvania (Correct answer)
- Washington, D.C.
Correct answer: Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
CGFNS International is headquartered in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania.
Question 96: On the CGFNS-QE, which client needs category addresses physiological integrity?
- Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Physiological Adaptation and Reduction of Risk Potential (Correct answer)
- Safe and Effective Care Environment
- Psychosocial Integrity
Correct answer: Physiological Adaptation and Reduction of Risk Potential
Physiological Adaptation and Reduction of Risk Potential are subcategories of Physiological Integrity, a major client needs category on both the CGFNS-QE and NCLEX-RN.
Question 97: A psychiatric nurse who documents a patient's delusions, hallucinations, and flat affect is performing which part of the nursing process?
- Evaluation
- Implementation
- Assessment (Correct answer)
- Planning
Correct answer: Assessment
Documenting symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, and affect is part of the assessment phase of the nursing process in psychiatric care.
Question 98: An order for Bupropion (Wellbutrin) has been placed with a client. When is it appropriate for the nurse to give the order?
- Immediately before bed
- Early in the day (Correct answer)
- When the patient requests it
- On an empty stomach
Correct answer: Early in the day
Bupropion (Wellbutrin) is an antidepressant that can have stimulating effects on the central nervous system. To minimize the risk of insomnia and other sleep disturbances, it is typically advised to administer bupropion early in the day, often in the morning. Taking it later in the day could interfere with the patient's ability to fall asleep.
Question 99: ISPN's standards of practice for psychiatric-mental health nurses are published in collaboration with which organization?
- American Psychiatric Nurses Association (APNA) (Correct answer)
- Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
- National Alliance on Mental Illness (NAMI)
- American Medical Association (AMA)
Correct answer: American Psychiatric Nurses Association (APNA)
ISPN collaborates with the American Psychiatric Nurses Association (APNA) to develop and publish the scope and standards of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice.
Question 100: When a nurse seeks clarification during a therapeutic interaction, the primary purpose is to:
- Challenge the patient's interpretation of events
- Ensure the nurse accurately understands the patient's experience (Correct answer)
- Redirect the patient's focus to more productive topics
- Guide the patient toward healthier thought patterns
Correct answer: Ensure the nurse accurately understands the patient's experience
Seeking clarification ensures the nurse accurately understands what the patient is communicating, preventing misinterpretation and strengthening therapeutic rapport.
Question 101: A psychiatric patient becomes agitated and says 'You never listen to me!' The MOST therapeutic response is:
- I'm sorry you feel that way, but that isn't fair to me.
- I have been listening carefully to everything you've said.
- I can see you're feeling frustrated — I want to hear what you're experiencing. (Correct answer)
- You shouldn't speak to me that way; I'm here to help you.
Correct answer: I can see you're feeling frustrated — I want to hear what you're experiencing.
Acknowledging the patient's frustration and expressing genuine interest in their experience de-escalates tension and maintains the therapeutic relationship without defensiveness.
Question 102: In a psychiatric assessment, 'loosening of associations' refers to which thought process abnormality?
- Abrupt stopping of speech mid-sentence
- Repeating the same word or phrase involuntarily
- Disorganized thinking where connections between ideas are unclear or absent (Correct answer)
- Inability to start new topics of conversation
Correct answer: Disorganized thinking where connections between ideas are unclear or absent
Loosening of associations describes disorganized thinking where the logical connection between sequential ideas is unclear, a common feature of psychotic disorders.
Question 103: A client suffering from ulcerative colitis is receiving instruction from the nurse. What kind of diet is the nurse going to recommend?
- Low-residue, low-fiber diet (Correct answer)
- High-calorie, high-protein diet
- Carbohydrate-consistent diet
- High-calcium diet
Correct answer: Low-residue, low-fiber diet
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by inflammation and ulcers in the colon. A low-residue, low-fiber diet is often recommended during acute flares or to manage symptoms. This type of diet reduces the amount of undigested material passing through the colon, minimizing irritation to the inflamed bowel and potentially reducing abdominal pain, cramping, and diarrhea.
Question 104: Which content area is the largest percentage of the NCLEX-RN test plan for the Safe and Effective Care Environment category?
- Basic Care and Comfort
- Pharmacological Therapies
- Safety and Infection Control
- Management of Care (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Management of Care
Management of Care is the largest subcategory in Safe and Effective Care Environment, reflecting the priority placed on care coordination, delegation, and legal/ethical practice.
Question 105: A nurse maintains appropriate eye contact, leans slightly toward the patient, and nods during the conversation. These behaviors are examples of:
- Therapeutic nonverbal communication (Correct answer)
- Non-therapeutic social mannerisms
- Boundary violations in psychiatric nursing
- Verbal therapeutic techniques
Correct answer: Therapeutic nonverbal communication
Therapeutic nonverbal communication — including appropriate eye contact, open body posture, and nodding — conveys attentiveness, respect, and genuine interest.
Question 106: Which scale is used in psychiatric nursing to monitor alcohol withdrawal severity?
- Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA-Ar) (Correct answer)
- GAD-7
- Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS)
- Columbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS)
Correct answer: Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA-Ar)
The CIWA-Ar is the standard clinical tool for monitoring alcohol withdrawal symptoms and guiding pharmacological management in detoxification settings.
Question 107: A patient taking an atypical antipsychotic gains 15 pounds and develops hyperglycemia. These findings are characteristic of which side effect syndrome?
- Tardive dyskinesia
- Metabolic syndrome (Correct answer)
- Serotonin syndrome
- Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Correct answer: Metabolic syndrome
Atypical antipsychotics are associated with metabolic syndrome, which includes weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and increased cardiovascular risk.
Question 108: What is the purpose of the Columbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SSRS) in psychiatric nursing?
- To assess cognitive impairment in elderly patients
- To measure depression medication adherence
- To diagnose borderline personality disorder
- To systematically assess and document the severity of suicidal ideation and behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To systematically assess and document the severity of suicidal ideation and behavior
The C-SSRS provides a structured, validated framework to assess the intensity and nature of suicidal ideation and behavior, supporting clinical decision-making and safety planning.
Question 109: Which three components make up the CGFNS Certification Program?
- Background check, fingerprinting, and oath
- Credentials review, the qualifying exam, and an English language test (Correct answer)
- Clinical rotation, thesis, and viva
- Interview, essay, and practicum
Correct answer: Credentials review, the qualifying exam, and an English language test
The CGFNS Certification Program consists of a credentials review, the CGFNS Qualifying Exam, and an English language proficiency test.
Question 110: How many hours of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice are required to sit for the PMHN-BC exam?
- 500 hours total in any setting
- 10,000 hours over a 10-year career
- 2,000 hours within the past 3 years (Correct answer)
- No practice hours are required
Correct answer: 2,000 hours within the past 3 years
Applicants must have a minimum of 2,000 hours of clinical practice in psychiatric-mental health nursing within the past 3 years to qualify for PMHN-BC.
Question 111: What language must all documents submitted to CGFNS be translated into if originally in a foreign language?
- French
- The official language of the applicant's home country
- English (Correct answer)
- Spanish
Correct answer: English
All documents submitted to CGFNS must be accompanied by certified English translations if they are originally written in another language.
Question 112: Which NCLEX-RN format change adopted in 2023 affects test-taking strategy for international nurses?
- Replacement of multiple-choice with all essay questions
- Addition of a hands-on clinical simulation component
- Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) with new item types including case studies and extended multiple response (Correct answer)
- Reduction of the exam to 50 questions maximum
Correct answer: Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) with new item types including case studies and extended multiple response
The NGN introduced new item types such as extended multiple response, matrix questions, and case studies to better measure clinical judgment, which internationally educated nurses must prepare for.
Question 113: Which compact agreement allows nurses to practice in multiple US states with one license?
- Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC) (Correct answer)
- NAFTA Healthcare Agreement
- Interstate Medical Compact
- Federal Nurse Practice Act
Correct answer: Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC)
The Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC) allows nurses holding a multistate license in their primary state of residence to practice in other NLC member states without obtaining additional licenses.
Question 114: The nurse will utilize an administration kit specifically intended for flood when preparing for a blood transfusion. The blood administration set with straight tubing will help with the following:
- It makes acetaminophen premedication simple.
- It's made to fit an 18- or 19-gauge IV needle.
- It has a filter that collects fibrin clots. (Correct answer)
- It maintains blood temperature to guarantee patient compatibility.
Correct answer: It has a filter that collects fibrin clots.
Blood administration sets are specifically designed with an in-line filter as a critical safety feature. This filter's purpose is to trap any small clots, cellular debris, or fibrin strands that may have formed in the blood product during collection or storage. This prevents these particles from entering the client's circulation and potentially causing adverse reactions or complications like pulmonary emboli.
Question 115: In a psychiatric nursing assessment, which finding suggests a patient may have a thought insertion delusion?
- The patient believes external forces are placing thoughts into their mind (Correct answer)
- The patient cannot recall recent events
- The patient hears music that others cannot hear
- The patient feels detached from their own body
Correct answer: The patient believes external forces are placing thoughts into their mind
Thought insertion is a delusion in which the patient believes that external entities or forces are implanting thoughts into their mind, a symptom of psychosis.
Question 116: An internationally educated nurse who has passed NCLEX-RN wishes to practice in a different US state. Which is true?
- They must obtain a new CGFNS-QE score for the new state
- They must complete a new nursing degree program in the US
- They can apply for licensure by endorsement in the new state without retaking NCLEX (Correct answer)
- They must retake NCLEX-RN for each new state
Correct answer: They can apply for licensure by endorsement in the new state without retaking NCLEX
Licensure by endorsement allows nurses who have already passed NCLEX-RN to obtain a license in additional states without repeating the examination.
Question 117: A 35-year-old male who has used cocaine is being assessed by an emergency room nurse. What are the signs that the client has overdosed?
- Blank stare and tremors
- Constricted pupils and hypotension
- Myocardial infarction and ataxia (Correct answer)
- Vomiting and disorientation
Correct answer: Myocardial infarction and ataxia
Cocaine is a powerful stimulant that causes severe vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. These effects significantly increase the risk of myocardial infarction (heart attack) due to coronary artery spasm and increased cardiac oxygen demand. Ataxia, or impaired coordination, is also a common neurological sign of severe cocaine intoxication or overdose, reflecting its impact on the central nervous system.
Question 118: For a client using codeine sulfate, the nurse would specifically include the following in the treatment plan:
- Monitor for hypertension
- Monitor bowel activity (Correct answer)
- Monitor fluid balance
- Monitor peripheral pulses
Correct answer: Monitor bowel activity
Codeine sulfate is an opioid analgesic, and a very common and significant side effect of opioids is constipation. Opioids slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to decreased peristalsis and hardened stools. Therefore, monitoring the client's bowel activity and implementing preventative measures for constipation are essential components of the nursing care plan.
Question 119: The VisaScreen certificate issued by CGFNS is required for what purpose?
- U.S. state licensure
- Hospital employment in the home country
- Enrolling in a nursing program
- Obtaining an occupational visa to work as a healthcare professional in the U.S. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Obtaining an occupational visa to work as a healthcare professional in the U.S.
The VisaScreen certificate is required by U.S. immigration law for foreign healthcare workers seeking an occupational visa.
Question 120: Which acronym is used to systematically assess the features of a patient's hallucinations in psychiatric nursing?
- SOAP: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
- STAMP: Severity, Triggers, Affect, Meaning, Pattern (Correct answer)
- CIWA: Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment
- NEWS: National Early Warning Score
Correct answer: STAMP: Severity, Triggers, Affect, Meaning, Pattern
Structured acronyms like STAMP help psychiatric nurses assess the features of hallucinations systematically, including triggers, meaning, and frequency.
Question 121: Which infection-control practice is the single most effective at preventing transmission?
- Using antibiotics broadly
- Isolating every patient
- Hand hygiene (Correct answer)
- Wearing gloves at all times
Correct answer: Hand hygiene
Hand hygiene is the most effective and fundamental measure to prevent the spread of infection.
Question 122: Which domain is emphasized in ISPN's scope and standards of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice?
- Radiological interpretation
- Pharmacokinetics of chemotherapy agents
- Surgical technique and wound care
- Therapeutic relationship and communication (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Therapeutic relationship and communication
Therapeutic relationship and communication is a foundational domain in psychiatric-mental health nursing, central to ISPN's scope and standards.
Question 123: Which component of the CGFNS VisaScreen involves a review of the applicant's professional healthcare education?
- State board endorsement
- Academic credentials evaluation (Correct answer)
- Occupational health screening
- English language proficiency test
Correct answer: Academic credentials evaluation
Academic credentials evaluation is one component of VisaScreen that reviews whether the applicant's healthcare education meets US equivalency standards.
Question 124: Under the Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), which cognitive skill is most emphasized through the new item types?
- Clinical judgment (Correct answer)
- Surgical technique
- Advanced research methodology
- Memorization of drug names
Correct answer: Clinical judgment
NGN's new item types are specifically designed to measure clinical judgment — the nurse's ability to recognize cues, analyze findings, and take appropriate action.
Question 125: An internationally educated nurse's CGFNS CES report is typically submitted to whom?
- State boards of nursing or employers requesting the report (Correct answer)
- Directly to NCLEX testing centers
- The nurse's home country government
- The US Bureau of Labor Statistics
Correct answer: State boards of nursing or employers requesting the report
CES reports are delivered to state boards of nursing or employers who require credential verification as part of the licensure or hiring process.
Question 126: What does the acronym CGFNS stand for?
- Certification Group for Foreign Nursing Specialists
- Center for Global Foreign Nurse Services
- Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools (Correct answer)
- Council for General Foreign Nursing Standards
Correct answer: Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools
CGFNS International stands for the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools.
Question 127: Which medication is used as a 'prn' (as-needed) oral intervention for acute agitation in psychiatric inpatient settings?
- Sertraline (Zoloft)
- Lithium carbonate
- Lorazepam (Ativan) (Correct answer)
- Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: Lorazepam (Ativan)
Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly administered on a PRN basis for acute agitation in inpatient psychiatric settings due to its rapid onset.
Question 128: Cultural competence in therapeutic communication requires the psychiatric nurse to recognize that:
- Nonverbal communication norms vary significantly across cultures (Correct answer)
- Direct questioning is universally acceptable in mental health care
- Direct eye contact always signals respect in every cultural context
- Therapeutic techniques should be applied uniformly to all patients
Correct answer: Nonverbal communication norms vary significantly across cultures
Nonverbal communication norms — such as appropriate eye contact, personal space, and physical touch — vary across cultures and must be adapted for culturally competent care.
Question 129: When conducting a psychiatric nursing assessment, asking 'What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope on the sidewalk?' tests which cognitive function?
- Language fluency
- Abstract thinking and judgment (Correct answer)
- Spatial orientation
- Long-term memory
Correct answer: Abstract thinking and judgment
This classic question assesses abstract thinking and judgment by evaluating whether the patient can reason beyond a literal level and make a socially appropriate decision.
Question 130: Which client needs category on the CGFNS-QE addresses mental health and coping mechanisms?
- Reduction of Risk Potential
- Psychosocial Integrity (Correct answer)
- Physiological Integrity
- Health Promotion and Maintenance
Correct answer: Psychosocial Integrity
Psychosocial Integrity covers mental health, coping, crisis intervention, and psychosocial support — all key content areas within the CGFNS-QE.
Question 131: Which step of the nursing process involves collecting subjective and objective data?
- Evaluation
- Assessment (Correct answer)
- Planning
- Implementation
Correct answer: Assessment
Assessment is the first step of the nursing process, focused on gathering subjective and objective data.
Question 132: How long is a VisaScreen certificate typically valid?
- 5 years (Correct answer)
- 10 years
- It never expires
- 6 months
Correct answer: 5 years
A VisaScreen certificate is generally valid for five years from its issuance date.
Question 133: What does the CGFNS-QE result report indicate to a state board of nursing?
- A guarantee of employment in the state
- The likelihood that the nurse will pass the NCLEX-RN (Correct answer)
- The nurse's final US licensure status
- The nurse's immigration visa approval
Correct answer: The likelihood that the nurse will pass the NCLEX-RN
The CGFNS-QE result indicates the probability of the nurse passing the NCLEX-RN; a passing score signals readiness, but licensure itself is granted by the state board.
Question 134: The CGFNS Qualifying Exam (CGFNS-QE) is modeled after which US nursing licensure examination?
- NCLEX-RN (Correct answer)
- USMLE Step 1
- NAPLEX
- MCAT
Correct answer: NCLEX-RN
The CGFNS-QE is modeled after the NCLEX-RN and is used to predict whether an internationally educated nurse will pass the US nursing licensure exam.
Question 135: Which area of the CGFNS-QE covers nursing interventions related to pain management?
- Physiological Integrity — Basic Care and Comfort (Correct answer)
- Health Promotion and Maintenance
- Psychosocial Integrity
- Safe and Effective Care Environment — Management of Care
Correct answer: Physiological Integrity — Basic Care and Comfort
Pain management falls under Physiological Integrity, specifically the Basic Care and Comfort subcategory, which addresses comfort and rest interventions.
Question 136: Which organization officially authorizes CGFNS to issue VisaScreen certificates?
- The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
- The American Nurses Association
- The US Department of Health and Human Services (Correct answer)
- The World Health Organization
Correct answer: The US Department of Health and Human Services
The US Department of Health and Human Services designated CGFNS as an approved credentialing organization authorized to issue VisaScreen certificates.
Question 137: A patient with paranoid delusions states 'The government is monitoring all my phone calls.' The MOST therapeutic nurse response is:
- That must feel frightening. What has been happening for you recently? (Correct answer)
- I find that hard to believe. What makes you think that?
- Let me call the doctor to reassess your medications right away.
- That's impossible — the government doesn't do that to private citizens.
Correct answer: That must feel frightening. What has been happening for you recently?
Acknowledging the patient's emotional experience without reinforcing or arguing against the delusion preserves the therapeutic relationship and gathers useful clinical information.
Question 138: A patient states 'I don't know if I can go on.' The MOST therapeutic nurse response is:
- Are you thinking about harming yourself? (Correct answer)
- Everyone feels that way sometimes.
- I'm sure you'll feel better soon.
- Let's focus on the positive things in your life.
Correct answer: Are you thinking about harming yourself?
When a patient's statement may indicate suicidal ideation, the nurse must directly assess safety by asking about thoughts of self-harm.
Question 139: When preparing for the CGFNS-QE, why is understanding US nursing scope of practice important?
- Because exam questions are based on US standards of nursing practice, which may differ from the nurse's home country (Correct answer)
- Because US scope of practice is tested as trivia about American history
- Because passing requires knowledge of US immigration law
- Because CGFNS only accepts candidates from countries that mirror US nursing laws
Correct answer: Because exam questions are based on US standards of nursing practice, which may differ from the nurse's home country
Questions are written according to US nursing scope of practice standards, so candidates from other countries must understand how US nursing roles and responsibilities are defined.
Question 140: What is the primary purpose of the CGFNS Credentials Evaluation Service (CES)?
- To provide continuing education credits
- To verify and evaluate the educational and licensure credentials of internationally educated nurses (Correct answer)
- To issue work visas for nurses
- To administer the NCLEX-RN examination
Correct answer: To verify and evaluate the educational and licensure credentials of internationally educated nurses
CGFNS CES verifies and evaluates educational and licensure credentials of internationally educated health professionals seeking to work in the US.
Question 141: Which advanced practice certification in psychiatric nursing requires a graduate-level nursing degree?
- PMHNP-BC (Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner-Board Certified) (Correct answer)
- CEN (Certified Emergency Nurse)
- CMSRN (Certified Medical-Surgical Registered Nurse)
- PMHN-BC (Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse-Board Certified)
Correct answer: PMHNP-BC (Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner-Board Certified)
The PMHNP-BC requires a graduate degree (MSN or DNP) with a psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner focus, unlike the RN-level PMHN-BC.
Question 142: VisaScreen verifies all of the following EXCEPT:
- English language proficiency
- Education comparable to a U.S. counterpart
- Valid, unencumbered licensure
- A guaranteed job offer from a U.S. hospital (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A guaranteed job offer from a U.S. hospital
VisaScreen confirms education, English proficiency, and licensure, but it does not require or verify a guaranteed job offer.
Question 143: Under ISPN standards, which assessment tool aligns with psychiatric nursing's emphasis on biopsychosocial evaluation?
- APGAR score
- Mental Status Examination (MSE) (Correct answer)
- Glasgow Coma Scale
- Braden Scale
Correct answer: Mental Status Examination (MSE)
The Mental Status Examination (MSE) is a structured psychiatric assessment tool that evaluates cognition, affect, and behavior, consistent with biopsychosocial psychiatric nursing practice.
Question 144: Which CGFNS product specifically helps US employers verify an internationally educated nurse's credentials?
- CES Professional Report (Correct answer)
- VisaScreen certificate
- CGFNS-QE score report
- CGFNS Qualifying Exam admission ticket
Correct answer: CES Professional Report
The CES Professional Report provides US employers with a verified summary of an internationally educated nurse's academic and licensure credentials.
Question 145: Which nursing intervention is most important when a patient taking clozapine develops a sore throat and fever?
- Obtain a CBC with differential and notify the provider immediately (Correct answer)
- Encourage increased oral fluid intake only
- Document the finding and reassess in 24 hours
- Administer acetaminophen and reassure the patient
Correct answer: Obtain a CBC with differential and notify the provider immediately
Sore throat and fever in a patient on clozapine may indicate agranulocytosis; an immediate CBC with differential is required to assess the white blood cell count.
Question 146: What is the purpose of the CGFNS credentials evaluation (CES) report?
- To schedule the NCLEX exam
- To compare foreign education and licensure to U.S. standards for boards of nursing (Correct answer)
- To grant a U.S. nursing license directly
- To issue a U.S. visa
Correct answer: To compare foreign education and licensure to U.S. standards for boards of nursing
The Credentials Evaluation Service report compares a nurse's foreign education and licensure against U.S. standards for state boards of nursing.
Question 147: A CGFNS-QE question asks about the correct action when a patient's oxygen saturation drops to 88%. What category does this fall under?
- Physiological Adaptation (Correct answer)
- Health Promotion
- Psychosocial Integrity
- Safe Environment — Safety and Infection Control
Correct answer: Physiological Adaptation
Responding to a declining oxygen saturation is a physiological adaptation scenario involving recognition and management of acute physiological changes.
Question 148: How does CGFNS obtain official transcripts from a foreign nursing school?
- The applicant uploads scanned copies online
- The applicant hand-delivers them to a US embassy
- The school emails them to the applicant to forward
- The school sends transcripts directly to CGFNS in a sealed official envelope (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The school sends transcripts directly to CGFNS in a sealed official envelope
Official transcripts must be sent directly from the educational institution to CGFNS in a sealed, official envelope to maintain authenticity.
Question 149: What does the acronym ISPN refer to in the context of nurse credentialing programs?
- Internal Service for Patient Notification
- International Society of Public Nursing
- Institute for Surgical and Pediatric Nursing
- International Standards for Professional Nurses (Correct answer)
Correct answer: International Standards for Professional Nurses
In this credentialing context ISPN refers to International Standards for Professional Nurses.
Question 150: What format of clinical scenario is most commonly used in CGFNS-QE questions?
- A series of calculations with no patient context
- A brief patient situation followed by a question about the nurse's best action (Correct answer)
- A lengthy case study requiring a written essay response
- A fill-in-the-blank drug dosage problem
Correct answer: A brief patient situation followed by a question about the nurse's best action
CGFNS-QE questions typically present a brief clinical scenario and ask which nursing action is most appropriate, mirroring the NCLEX-RN question format.
Question 151: The technique of 'focusing' in therapeutic communication is BEST described as:
- Pausing to allow the patient to think in silence
- Repeating the main points the patient has made
- Asking multiple questions to explore all aspects of a problem simultaneously
- Directing the conversation to a specific theme or concern (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Directing the conversation to a specific theme or concern
Focusing helps the patient concentrate on a specific topic that is particularly relevant to their care, preventing the conversation from becoming too diffuse.
Question 152: Which pharmacological treatment is used in psychiatric nursing to manage acute alcohol withdrawal with risk of seizures?
- Lithium carbonate
- Haloperidol alone
- Benzodiazepine protocol guided by CIWA-Ar scores (Correct answer)
- SSRI antidepressants
Correct answer: Benzodiazepine protocol guided by CIWA-Ar scores
Benzodiazepines titrated to CIWA-Ar scores are the standard pharmacological treatment for acute alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and delirium tremens.
Question 153: During a psychiatric nursing assessment, which question best screens for suicidal ideation?
- 'Have you had any thoughts of harming yourself or ending your life?' (Correct answer)
- 'Do you take any prescription medications?'
- 'Are you feeling happy today?'
- 'How long have you been in the hospital?'
Correct answer: 'Have you had any thoughts of harming yourself or ending your life?'
Directly asking about thoughts of self-harm or suicide is the most effective and evidence-based screen for suicidal ideation in psychiatric nursing assessment.
Question 154: Which organization is responsible for developing and administering the NCLEX-RN examination?
- National Institutes of Health (NIH)
- National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) (Correct answer)
- American Nurses Association (ANA)
- CGFNS International
Correct answer: National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
The NCSBN develops and owns the NCLEX-RN, which is used by US state boards of nursing to determine minimum competency for RN licensure.
Question 155: A foreign-educated nurse completes CGFNS Certification; what must they still typically obtain to practice as an RN in a U.S. state?
- A state nursing license, usually by passing the NCLEX-RN (Correct answer)
- Nothing further
- A medical degree
- A second bachelor's degree
Correct answer: A state nursing license, usually by passing the NCLEX-RN
CGFNS Certification does not grant a license; the nurse must still obtain state licensure, typically by passing the NCLEX-RN.
Question 156: Which component of the Mental Status Examination (MSE) evaluates whether a patient knows the current date, location, and their own identity?
- Insight
- Thought content
- Orientation (Correct answer)
- Affect
Correct answer: Orientation
Orientation assesses whether the patient is oriented to person, place, and time — a foundational component of the Mental Status Examination.
Question 157: Under which visa category do most internationally educated nurses immigrate to the US for permanent employment?
- F-1 student visa
- H-1B specialty occupation visa
- EB-3 (Employment-Based Third Preference) visa (Correct answer)
- B-2 tourist visa
Correct answer: EB-3 (Employment-Based Third Preference) visa
Most internationally educated nurses immigrate to the US for permanent employment under the EB-3 employment-based immigration visa, which requires CGFNS VisaScreen certification.
Question 158: Passing the CGFNS Qualifying Exam predicts likelihood of success on which U.S. exam?
- The TOEFL
- The MCAT
- The USMLE
- The NCLEX-RN (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The NCLEX-RN
The CGFNS Qualifying Exam is designed to predict a candidate's likelihood of passing the NCLEX-RN.
Question 159: Which class of medications is considered first-line treatment for major depressive disorder in US psychiatric practice?
- Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- Typical antipsychotics
- Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) (Correct answer)
- Benzodiazepines
Correct answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological treatment for major depressive disorder due to their efficacy and favorable side effect profile compared to older antidepressants.
Question 160: A patient taking lithium for bipolar disorder reports nausea, tremor, and polyuria. Which nursing action is the priority?
- Administer an antiemetic and reassure the patient
- Check the serum lithium level immediately (Correct answer)
- Increase fluid restriction to reduce polyuria
- Withhold the next dose without notifying the provider
Correct answer: Check the serum lithium level immediately
These symptoms suggest possible lithium toxicity; checking the serum lithium level immediately is the priority to determine if toxicity is occurring.
Question 161: A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted in a manic state. Which MSE finding is most expected?
- Mutism and poverty of speech
- Flat affect and social withdrawal
- Disorientation to time and place
- Pressured speech and grandiosity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pressured speech and grandiosity
Pressured speech (fast, difficult to interrupt) and grandiosity (inflated self-esteem) are hallmark MSE findings during a manic episode of bipolar disorder.
Question 162: What is the significance of 'therapeutic communication' questions on the CGFNS-QE?
- They test foreign language translation skills
- They assess nursing research methodology
- They test the nurse's ability to select appropriate verbal and nonverbal responses to patients in various clinical scenarios (Correct answer)
- They evaluate advanced diagnostic reasoning
Correct answer: They test the nurse's ability to select appropriate verbal and nonverbal responses to patients in various clinical scenarios
Therapeutic communication questions assess whether nurses can identify the most helpful responses to patients, a core skill across medical, surgical, and psychiatric settings.
Question 163: Which of the following is a NON-THERAPEUTIC communication technique?
- Reflecting the patient's feelings
- Giving false reassurance (Correct answer)
- Seeking clarification
- Using therapeutic silence
Correct answer: Giving false reassurance
Giving false reassurance dismisses the patient's real concerns and closes off genuine communication by minimizing problems with empty comfort.
Question 164: Which ethical principle is most directly tested in psychiatric nursing when a patient refuses recommended medication?
- Justice
- Autonomy (Correct answer)
- Fidelity
- Beneficence
Correct answer: Autonomy
Autonomy is the ethical principle at stake when a competent patient refuses treatment; psychiatric nurses must respect informed refusal while ensuring safety.
Question 165: According to ISPN, the psychiatric-mental health nurse's role in health promotion includes which activity?
- Prescribing antipsychotic medications
- Performing psychiatric diagnostic interviews only
- Providing psychoeducation to patients and families about mental illness and treatment (Correct answer)
- Conducting brain MRI interpretations
Correct answer: Providing psychoeducation to patients and families about mental illness and treatment
Psychoeducation — teaching patients and families about mental illness, symptoms, and treatment — is a key health promotion activity for psychiatric-mental health nurses.
ISPN & CGFNS Qualifying Exam
The CGFNS Qualifying Exam evaluates foreign-educated nurses for U.S. licensure eligibility across NCLEX-style client needs domains, while the ISPN PMH-BC certification validates psychiatric-mental health nursing competencies for registered nurses.
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- trumerit.org — Eligibility, exam dates, fees, exam information · verified Oct 2026
- trumerit.cn — Test delivery, exam format, passing score, time limit, score validity, score release · verified Oct 2026