ISAT International Student Admissions Test â Questions and Answers
Question 1: A researcher finds a strong negative correlation (r = â0.89) between hours of sleep and number of errors on a cognitive task. What does this correlation value indicate?
- As sleep hours increase, errors tend to decrease strongly (Correct answer)
- Sleep and errors are unrelated
- The relationship is weak and positive
- More sleep causes fewer errors
Correct answer: As sleep hours increase, errors tend to decrease strongly
r = â0.89 indicates a strong negative correlation: as one variable increases, the other tends to decrease, though correlation does not imply causation.
Question 2: If the system of equations 2x + y = 7 and x â y = 2 is solved, what is the value of x + y?
- 3
- 7
- 4
- 5 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5
Adding the equations: 3x = 9 â x = 3; then y = 1; so x + y = 4... wait: 2(3)+1=7 â, 3â1=2 â, x+y=4.
Question 3: A newspaper headline reads: 'Nine out of ten dentists recommend BrightSmile toothpaste.' Which question is most important for evaluating this claim?
- What were the dentists asked, and was the survey sample representative? (Correct answer)
- How long has BrightSmile been on the market?
- Do dentists use BrightSmile themselves?
- Is BrightSmile available in all countries?
Correct answer: What were the dentists asked, and was the survey sample representative?
The phrasing of the question and the representativeness of the surveyed dentists are critical to assessing whether the statistic is meaningful.
Question 4: A passage argues that urbanization leads to loss of biodiversity. If this argument were extended to its logical conclusion, which outcome would be most likely?
- Rural areas would become more biodiverse as people leave
- Biodiversity loss would stop once urbanization is complete
- Governments would ban all new construction
- Eventually only species adapted to urban environments would thrive in developed regions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Eventually only species adapted to urban environments would thrive in developed regions
Extending the urbanization-biodiversity argument logically suggests continued urbanization would favor urban-adapted species while eliminating those that cannot survive in developed environments.
Question 5: A city council member argues, 'To reduce traffic congestion during peak hours, we must invest in expanding our subway system. A larger, more efficient subway will persuade thousands of commuters to abandon their cars for public transit.' Which of the following is a necessary assumption in the council member's argument?
- Traffic congestion is the single most pressing issue for the city's residents.
- The current subway system is overcrowded and poorly maintained.
- A significant number of commuters who currently drive would be willing and able to use the expanded subway system. (Correct answer)
- Building a new subway line is less expensive than constructing new highways.
Correct answer: A significant number of commuters who currently drive would be willing and able to use the expanded subway system.
The argument's conclusion that expanding the subway will reduce traffic rests on the unstated premise that drivers will actually switch to using it. Without this assumption, the premise (expanding the subway) does not logically lead to the conclusion (reduced traffic). The other options are not necessary for the argument's logic; cost comparison (A), the current state of the subway (C), and the relative importance of the issue (D) are all secondary to the core assumption about commuter behavior.
Question 6: A clinical trial: treatment group (250) shows 15% recovery, control group (250) shows 12% recovery. P-value is 0.23. What should researchers conclude?
- The drug is ineffective and should be abandoned
- The difference is not statistically significant (p > 0.05), so the difference may be due to chance (Correct answer)
- The drug is effective
- Sample size was too small
Correct answer: The difference is not statistically significant (p > 0.05), so the difference may be due to chance
P=0.23 means 23% probability of seeing this difference by chance. This exceeds the 0.05 threshold.
Question 7: A researcher concludes that exercise improves mood based on a study of 50 college athletes. Which limitation most undermines this conclusion?
- The sample lacks diversity and may not generalize to other populations (Correct answer)
- The study was too short in duration
- The study did not measure physical health outcomes
- Exercise data was self-reported by participants
Correct answer: The sample lacks diversity and may not generalize to other populations
A non-diverse sample of college athletes limits generalizability to the broader population.
Question 8: 'International flights after 10 PM require additional screening. Flight 552 to Tokyo departs at 10:30 PM. Domestic flights are exempt.' What can be deduced about Flight 552?
- It requires screening only if it is an international flight (Correct answer)
- It definitely requires screening
- It requires screening because all Tokyo flights are international
- It is exempt because it departs close to 10 PM
Correct answer: It requires screening only if it is an international flight
Flight 552 departs after 10 PM but we must confirm it is international. The passage doesn't explicitly state this.
Question 9: A Venn diagram shows that 30 students study biology, 25 study chemistry, and 10 study both. How many students study biology or chemistry (or both)?
- 45 (Correct answer)
- 65
- 35
- 55
Correct answer: 45
Using the inclusion-exclusion principle: 30 + 25 â 10 = 45 students study at least one of the two subjects.
Question 10: Which of the following correctly identifies the flaw in this argument: 'Aspirin has been used for over a century, so it must be safe for everyone'?
- Appeal to tradition ignores that age of use does not prove universal safety (Correct answer)
- The argument commits a false analogy
- The argument is circular because it assumes what it sets out to prove
- The argument relies on an ad hominem attack
Correct answer: Appeal to tradition ignores that age of use does not prove universal safety
Longevity of use (appeal to tradition) does not establish safety for all individuals or all conditions.
Question 11: Argument: 'This investment advisor has achieved above-average returns for the past five years, so you should trust her with your savings.' What assumption is this based on?
- The advisor's clients have not withdrawn their funds during this period
- The advisor charges lower fees than competitors
- Past investment performance is a reliable predictor of future performance (Correct answer)
- Above-average returns indicate superior analytical skills rather than favorable market conditions
Correct answer: Past investment performance is a reliable predictor of future performance
The argument assumes historical returns will continue, ignoring the well-known principle that past performance does not guarantee future results.
Question 12: Medication: 5 mg/kg every 8 hours. Patient weighs 70kg. Total grams in 24 hours?
- 0.35 grams
- 1.05 grams (Correct answer)
- 1.5 grams
- 0.70 grams
Correct answer: 1.05 grams
Per dose: 350mg. 3 doses/day. Total: 1050mg = 1.05g.
Question 13: A writer claims that the rise of streaming services is responsible for declining cinema attendance. To make the strongest case, the writer should additionally provide:
- A list of popular streaming shows
- Controlled data showing attendance fell specifically after streaming expanded, with other factors held constant (Correct answer)
- A comparison of streaming prices versus cinema ticket prices
- Quotes from filmmakers about streaming's impact
Correct answer: Controlled data showing attendance fell specifically after streaming expanded, with other factors held constant
Controlled data that isolates streaming's effect from other variables most directly establishes a causal link.
Question 14: A table compares the export values ($billion) of five countries. Country P: 2.3, Country Q: 4.7, Country R: 1.9, Country S: 3.8, Country T: 2.8. Country Q's exports are approximately what percentage more than Country P's?
- 104% (Correct answer)
- 100%
- 108%
- 96%
Correct answer: 104%
Percentage more = (4.7-2.3)/2.3 Ă 100 = 2.4/2.3 Ă 100 â 104%.
Question 15: A university spokesperson says: 'Our most famous alumnus, a celebrated film director, has publicly stated that our new admission policy is fair. His view should settle the debate.' What flaw is present in this argument?
- The argument commits a straw man by misrepresenting opponents of the policy
- The argument is a valid appeal to relevant expertise
- The argument appeals to an authority whose fame is in an unrelated field, making the endorsement irrelevant (Correct answer)
- The argument is a slippery slope because it predicts extreme future consequences
Correct answer: The argument appeals to an authority whose fame is in an unrelated field, making the endorsement irrelevant
The film director has expertise in cinema, not admissions policy or educational fairness. Citing a celebrity in an unrelated domain as a definitive authority is an appeal to irrelevant authority fallacy.
Question 16: If a cube of jello is cut into two pieces, what total property of the new pieces changes?
- controlled experiment
- surface area (Correct answer)
- rock characteristics
- chemical weathering
Correct answer: surface area
Explanation: <br> When a cube of jello is cut into two pieces, the total property that changes in the new pieces is the surface area. Cutting the cube alters the surface area of each piece, but other properties like rock characteristics and chemical weathering remain unchanged by the act of cutting.
Question 17: If n! = 120, what is n?
- 5 (Correct answer)
- 10
- 6
- 4
Correct answer: 5
5! = 5 Ă 4 Ă 3 Ă 2 Ă 1 = 120, so n = 5.
Question 18: If 8 machines can complete a job in 6 days working 5 hours per day, how many machines are needed to complete the same job in 4 days working 6 hours per day?
- 15 machines
- 8 machines
- 12 machines
- 10 machines (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 10 machines
Total work = 8 x 6 x 5 = 240 machine-hours. Required machines = 240 / (4 x 6) = 10.
Question 19: A scientific passage describes how deforestation increases carbon emissions, reduces biodiversity, and disrupts water cycles. The passage's main idea is:
- Water cycles are poorly understood by scientists.
- Carbon emissions are the most urgent environmental problem.
- Biodiversity loss is irreversible under all circumstances.
- Deforestation causes widespread and interconnected environmental harm. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Deforestation causes widespread and interconnected environmental harm.
The three effects are all forms of environmental harm, so the main idea synthesizes them into a broad claim about deforestation's wide impact.
Question 20: Gas tank: 60L. Consumption: 8L/100km. Maximum distance on a full tank?
- 750 km (Correct answer)
- 600 km
- 480 km
- 800 km
Correct answer: 750 km
60 / (8/100) = 60 x 100/8 = 750 km.
Question 21: Which sentence demonstrates correct word order after a negative adverb?
- Always he is prepared for unexpected challenges.
- Rarely she misses an opportunity to improve her skills.
- Never I have seen such impressive results.
- Only then did the researcher understand the significance of the data. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Only then did the researcher understand the significance of the data.
After the negative adverb "only then," the auxiliary verb and subject are correctly inverted to "did the researcher understand."
Question 22: How many different 4-letter arrangements can be made from the letters of MATH if no letter is repeated?
- 24 (Correct answer)
- 16
- 256
- 12
Correct answer: 24
This is a permutation: P(4,4) = 4! = 24.
Question 23: Argument: 'Our company's new mandatory wellness program, which includes weekly yoga sessions and nutrition seminars, is clearly a success. In the six months since it was implemented, employee sick days have decreased by 15%.' The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it:
- Relies on a small sample size of data (only six months) to draw a broad conclusion.
- Overlooks the possibility that other factors may have contributed to the decrease in sick days. (Correct answer)
- Assumes that all employees find yoga and nutrition seminars to be beneficial.
- Fails to consider that the cost of the wellness program may exceed the savings from fewer sick days.
Correct answer: Overlooks the possibility that other factors may have contributed to the decrease in sick days.
The argument commits a correlation/causation fallacy. It observes two concurrent events (the wellness program and a drop in sick days) and concludes that the first caused the second. However, it fails to consider other potential causes, such as a milder flu season, a change in company sick leave policy, or a period of lower workplace stress, which could also explain the decrease in sick days.
Question 24: An environmentalist argues that banning plastic straws will solve ocean pollution. A critic responds that straws account for less than 1% of ocean plastic. What type of response is this?
- A slippery slope claim about the ban
- A personal attack on the environmentalist
- An argument that ocean pollution doesn't matter
- Evidence that challenges the proportionality of the proposed solution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Evidence that challenges the proportionality of the proposed solution
The critic uses data to show that the solution is disproportionate to the scale of the problem it targets.
Question 25: A box contains 6 red balls, 4 blue balls, and 5 green balls. If two balls are drawn from the box one after the other without replacement, what is the probability that both balls are red?
- 1/5
- 1/9
- 4/25
- 1/7 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1/7
The probability of the first event (drawing a red ball) is 6/15. Since the first ball is not replaced, there are now only 14 balls left in the box, and only 5 of them are red. The probability of the second event (drawing another red ball) is 5/14. To find the probability of both events happening, we multiply their probabilities: (6/15) * (5/14) = 30/210, which simplifies to 1/7.
Question 26: Which of the following best describes 'circular reasoning' (begging the question)?
- Drawing a sweeping conclusion from a single example
- Offering irrelevant information to distract from the main issue
- Using a premise that assumes the truth of the conclusion (Correct answer)
- Using emotional appeals instead of evidence
Correct answer: Using a premise that assumes the truth of the conclusion
Circular reasoning embeds the conclusion within the premises, making the argument self-referential rather than logically valid.
Question 27: Argument: 'Because this policy has worked in Sweden, it will work in the United States.' What assumption does this rely on?
- The United States has previously adopted Swedish policies successfully
- Sweden and the United States have similar climates
- The conditions relevant to the policy's success are sufficiently similar between the two countries (Correct answer)
- Sweden's policies are generally more progressive than those of the United States
Correct answer: The conditions relevant to the policy's success are sufficiently similar between the two countries
The argument assumes that the contextual factors enabling the policy's success in Sweden also exist in the United States.
Question 28: Which sentence has a correctly placed modifier?
- To improve your writing, practice is needed every day.
- Running down the street, the rain began to pour.
- Covered in mud, the dog ran through the house. (Correct answer)
- Having studied all night, the exam was difficult for the student.
Correct answer: Covered in mud, the dog ran through the house.
"Covered in mud" correctly modifies "the dog," which is the subject that logically performs the implied action.
Question 29: A study finds that cities with more hospitals have higher death rates. Which conclusion is most logically sound?
- The study proves hospitals are useless
- Sicker people go to cities with more hospitals, explaining the correlation (Correct answer)
- Hospitals cause death
- Death rates should be used to evaluate hospital quality
Correct answer: Sicker people go to cities with more hospitals, explaining the correlation
The higher death rates likely reflect that very ill patients congregate in cities with specialist hospitals, not that hospitals cause death.
Question 30: School A: Math=78%, English=85%. School B: Math=82%, English=79%. School C: Math=74%, English=91%. Which school has the largest gap between Math and English pass rates?
- School B (3%)
- All similar
- School A (7%)
- School C (17%) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: School C (17%)
School A: 7%. School B: 3%. School C: 17%. School C has the largest gap.
Question 31: Passage: 'The library sends overdue notices only to patrons who have books checked out for more than 21 days. Kevin received an overdue notice.' What must be true? A) Kevin has a book checked out for more than 21 days. B) Kevin never returned his book. C) Kevin owes a fine. D) Kevin is a frequent library user.
- Kevin owes a fine.
- Kevin has a book checked out for more than 21 days. (Correct answer)
- Kevin never returned his book.
- Kevin is a frequent library user.
Correct answer: Kevin has a book checked out for more than 21 days.
Notices are sent only to patrons overdue by more than 21 days; receiving one means Kevin must have exceeded that threshold.
Question 32: Probability of drawing a King OR a Heart from a standard 52-card deck?
- 4/13 (Correct answer)
- 16/52
- 17/52
- 1/4
Correct answer: 4/13
P = 4/52 + 13/52 - 1/52 = 16/52 = 4/13.
Question 33: A vaccine is 90% effective. In 10,000 people (5,000 vaccinated, 5,000 not), 50 unvaccinated get the disease. How many vaccinated people would get it?
- 10
- 0
- 45
- 5 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5
90% effective means 10% of the unvaccinated rate. Unvaccinated rate: 50/5000=1%. Vaccinated rate: 0.1%. Expected cases: 5.
Question 34: A field has an area of 3.6 hectares. How many square meters is this? (1 hectare = 10,000 m²)
- 3,600 m²
- 36,000 m² (Correct answer)
- 360 m²
- 360,000 m²
Correct answer: 36,000 m²
3.6 à 10,000 = 36,000 m².
Question 35: 'Countries with higher military spending are safer. Therefore, we should increase our defense budget.' Identify the hidden assumption.
- That military spending is the best use of funds
- That the public supports this
- That the correlation reflects causation and that additional spending would produce proportional safety improvements in our specific context (Correct answer)
- That current spending is insufficient
Correct answer: That the correlation reflects causation and that additional spending would produce proportional safety improvements in our specific context
The argument assumes causation from correlation and that marginal returns would apply to our specific situation.
Question 36: A study reports that cities with more ice cream sales also have higher rates of drowning. A journalist concludes that ice cream causes drowning. What error is the journalist making?
- Using the wrong statistical test
- Confusing correlation with causation without accounting for a confounding variable (hot weather) (Correct answer)
- Ignoring the sample size
- Misreading the data table
Correct answer: Confusing correlation with causation without accounting for a confounding variable (hot weather)
Both ice cream sales and drowning increase in hot weather; hot weather is the confounding variable, and correlation alone does not establish causation.
Question 37: A water tank holds 3,000 liters. A pump fills it at a rate of 25 liters per minute. How many hours will it take to fill the tank?
- 2.5 hours
- 3 hours
- 2 hours (Correct answer)
- 1.5 hours
Correct answer: 2 hours
Time = 3000 á 25 = 120 minutes = 2 hours.
Question 38: The argument 'You should trust my investment advice because I once lost all my money in bad investments and learned from it' appeals to which type of reasoning?
- Appeal to emotion
- Appeal to ignorance
- Circular reasoning
- Appeal to experience as a legitimate credential (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Appeal to experience as a legitimate credential
While experience can be relevant, the argument must still be evaluated on whether past failure genuinely provides credible expertise.
Question 39: Which approach best strengthens a causal argument linking coffee consumption to improved memory?
- Pointing out that coffee has been consumed for centuries
- Citing a famous neuroscientist who drinks coffee
- Showing that memory improved in all populations studied after coffee was removed from their diet
- Conducting a randomised controlled trial with a placebo group showing memory gains only in the coffee group (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Conducting a randomised controlled trial with a placebo group showing memory gains only in the coffee group
A randomised controlled trial with a placebo isolates the causal variable and provides the strongest causal evidence.
Question 40: What does a correlation coefficient of r = â0.9 indicate?
- No relationship
- A weak negative relationship
- A strong positive relationship
- A strong negative relationship (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A strong negative relationship
A correlation coefficient close to â1 indicates a strong negative linear relationship between two variables.
Question 41: The human microbiome plays crucial roles in digestion, immunity, and mental health. Disruptions are linked to obesity and depression. Scientists explore probiotics and fecal transplants. Main idea?
- Bacteria are harmful
- Fecal transplants are the future
- Probiotics treat all diseases
- The microbiome is a critical health component, and understanding its role is opening new frontiers in medical treatment (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The microbiome is a critical health component, and understanding its role is opening new frontiers in medical treatment
The main idea covers the microbiome's health importance and new medical possibilities.
Question 42: A political analyst argues: 'The rise of social media as a primary news source is detrimental to democracy because it allows for the rapid spread of misinformation and creates ideological echo chambers.' Which of the following statements, if true, would most seriously weaken the analyst's argument?
- Studies show that people who consume news primarily from social media are more likely to vote in local elections.
- Traditional news outlets have also been found to publish corrections for inaccurate reporting.
- Social media platforms have enabled grassroots political movements and increased citizen engagement in political processes. (Correct answer)
- The majority of adults still report consuming news from a variety of sources, including television and print media.
Correct answer: Social media platforms have enabled grassroots political movements and increased citizen engagement in political processes.
The analyst's argument focuses only on the negative aspects of social media's role in politics. This answer choice directly counters the claim that it is 'detrimental' by providing a significant positive impactâenabling grassroots movements and increasing engagementâwhich challenges the overall negative conclusion. While other options might be relevant, this one provides the strongest counterargument by highlighting a democratic benefit.
Question 43: Identify the sentence that correctly uses a coordinating conjunction:
- She studied hard but, she still failed the exam.
- He wanted to attend the conference, yet he couldn't afford the registration fee. (Correct answer)
- The report was long and, detailed.
- She passed the exam or she studied for weeks.
Correct answer: He wanted to attend the conference, yet he couldn't afford the registration fee.
"Yet" correctly joins two contrasting independent clauses with a comma before the conjunction.
Question 44: Passage: 'The conference accepts papers written in English or French. Submissions in any other language are automatically rejected. Dr. Nakamura submitted a paper in Japanese.' What happens to the submission? A) It is accepted if the content is strong. B) It is translated and then reviewed. C) It is automatically rejected. D) Dr. Nakamura is contacted for a resubmission.
- It is automatically rejected. (Correct answer)
- It is translated and then reviewed.
- It is accepted if the content is strong.
- Dr. Nakamura is contacted for a resubmission.
Correct answer: It is automatically rejected.
Japanese is neither English nor French, so it falls under 'any other language' and is automatically rejected.
Question 45: 'If we allow students to use calculators in class, soon they won't be able to do any math without technology, and eventually they'll lose all ability to think logically.' What type of flaw is this?
- False dilemma
- Slippery slope -- the argument assumes an extreme chain of consequences without demonstrating that each step necessarily follows (Correct answer)
- Ad hominem attack
- Begging the question
Correct answer: Slippery slope -- the argument assumes an extreme chain of consequences without demonstrating that each step necessarily follows
The argument jumps from calculator use to complete inability to think logically through unsubstantiated steps.
Question 46: Anna pays 1/3 of a dinner bill, Ben pays 1/4. Carla pays the remaining $25. What was the total?
- $50
- $45
- $75
- $60 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: $60
Anna+Ben = 1/3+1/4 = 7/12. Remaining: 5/12 = $25. Total = 25 x 12/5 = $60.
Question 47: If logâ(x) + logâ(x â 2) = 3, what is the value of x?
- 6
- 2
- 3
- 4 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4
logâ(x(xâ2)) = 3 means x(xâ2) = 8, so x² â 2x â 8 = 0 â (xâ4)(x+2) = 0; since x > 2, x = 4.
Question 48: A graph shows that as altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases exponentially. A hiker at sea level experiences 101 kPa. At a point where pressure is roughly 50 kPa, approximately what percentage of sea-level pressure remains?
- 50% (Correct answer)
- 75%
- 100%
- 25%
Correct answer: 50%
50 kPa is approximately 50% of 101 kPa (sea level pressure), so about 50% of sea-level atmospheric pressure remains.
Question 49: Passage: The principle of patient autonomy requires that physicians respect a patient's decision to refuse medical treatment, provided the patient is competent and the decision is informed. An informed decision is one made after the patient understands the nature of their condition, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, and the alternatives. However, this principle does not extend to situations where a patient's refusal of treatment poses a direct and significant threat to public health, such as refusing quarantine during a highly infectious disease outbreak. According to the passage, a physician is NOT obligated to accept a patient's refusal of treatment if:
- The patient's decision could endanger the wider community. (Correct answer)
- The patient is not fully aware of all possible alternative treatments.
- The patient's family disagrees with the decision.
- The physician believes the treatment is in the patient's best interest.
Correct answer: The patient's decision could endanger the wider community.
The passage explicitly states that the principle of autonomy has a limitation: it 'does not extend to situations where a patient's refusal of treatment poses a direct and significant threat to public health.' This directly supports the idea that a physician is not obligated to accept the refusal if it endangers the community.
Question 50: A data set: 3, 7, 7, 9, 11. What is the mode?
- 7 (Correct answer)
- 9
- 11
- 3
Correct answer: 7
The mode is 7 because it appears twice, more than any other value in the dataset.
Question 51: Argument: 'People in rural areas report higher life satisfaction than city dwellers; moving to the countryside would therefore make most people happier.' What assumption is present?
- Rural areas have lower costs of living than urban centers
- Life satisfaction in rural areas is caused by the rural environment rather than self-selection of satisfied people into rural living (Correct answer)
- Urban dwellers are generally less social than rural inhabitants
- Access to nature is the primary determinant of life satisfaction
Correct answer: Life satisfaction in rural areas is caused by the rural environment rather than self-selection of satisfied people into rural living
The argument ignores that happier people may choose rural living, making it wrong to assume the environment itself produces the satisfaction.
Question 52: A historian argues that trade routes were the primary drivers of cultural exchange in the ancient world. Which modern parallel most effectively extends this idea?
- Museum collections of ancient artifacts
- International tourism statistics
- The existence of international embassies
- The internet's role as a digital trade route facilitating global cultural exchange through commerce and communication (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The internet's role as a digital trade route facilitating global cultural exchange through commerce and communication
The internet serves as a modern equivalent of ancient trade routes, simultaneously facilitating commerce and cultural exchange.
Question 53: An advertisement for a new sports drink, 'Quench-It,' states: 'Top marathon runner Helena Price drinks Quench-It before every race. To achieve peak athletic performance like Helena, you should drink Quench-It.' What assumption does the advertisement ask the consumer to make?
- Quench-It tastes better than other sports drinks on the market.
- Helena Price is paid to endorse the Quench-It sports drink.
- The sports drink is the causal factor for Helena Price's success, and it will have a similar effect on other consumers. (Correct answer)
- Peak athletic performance is a goal for everyone who sees the advertisement.
Correct answer: The sports drink is the causal factor for Helena Price's success, and it will have a similar effect on other consumers.
This is an argument from authority or association. It links a product to a successful person and implies that the product causes the success. The core assumption is that the drink is a key reason for Helena's performance and that other athletes can gain the same benefit. Without this assumption, the fact that she drinks it is just a correlation, not a reason for others to buy it.
Question 54: A die is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum equals 7?
- 1/12
- 1/6 (Correct answer)
- 6/36
- 7/36
Correct answer: 1/6
Pairs that sum to 7: (1,6),(2,5),(3,4),(4,3),(5,2),(6,1) â 6 out of 36 total outcomes = 1/6.
Question 55: 'Since we started using the new textbook, test scores have improved by 15%. The new textbook is clearly more effective than the old one.' Evaluate this argument.
- The argument assumes the textbook is the only variable that changed and ignores potential confounding factors (Correct answer)
- The argument is logically sound because improved scores prove textbook effectiveness
- The argument is valid because textbooks directly determine test scores
- The 15% improvement is too small to be meaningful
Correct answer: The argument assumes the textbook is the only variable that changed and ignores potential confounding factors
The argument commits the post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy by attributing score improvement solely to the textbook without considering other factors.
Question 56: Factory: 450 widgets/hour, each 250g. Metric tons produced in an 8-hour shift?
- 0.9 metric tons (Correct answer)
- 0.45 metric tons
- 900 kg
- 9 metric tons
Correct answer: 0.9 metric tons
3600 widgets x 250g = 900,000g = 900kg = 0.9 metric tons.
Question 57: A graph shows two lines: one for observed sea level rise and one for projected rise based on a climate model. The lines diverge after 2050. What does the divergence most likely represent?
- A proven decrease in sea level rise rate
- Measurement error in past observations
- Increasing uncertainty in long-term projections (Correct answer)
- The end of the observational period
Correct answer: Increasing uncertainty in long-term projections
Diverging projection lines typically represent widening confidence intervals, reflecting increasing uncertainty as projections extend further into the future.
Question 58: Passage: 'The seminar room is reserved on Tuesdays and Thursdays. The study lounge is available every day. Today is Thursday.' Which statement is logically supported? A) The seminar room is available today. B) The study lounge is available today. C) Neither room is available today. D) The study lounge is reserved on Thursdays.
- The seminar room is available today.
- Neither room is available today.
- The study lounge is available today. (Correct answer)
- The study lounge is reserved on Thursdays.
Correct answer: The study lounge is available today.
The study lounge is available every day, and today is Thursday, so it is available today.
Question 59: An author writes: 'We must either fund the space program or accept that human curiosity is dead.' What rhetorical technique is being used?
- Slippery slope
- False dilemma (Correct answer)
- Straw man
- Ad hominem
Correct answer: False dilemma
The false dilemma presents only two options when many other possibilities exist.
Question 60: A graph shows the relationship between temperature (°C) and ice cream sales per day at a shop. At 20°C, 80 units are sold; at 25°C, 110 units; at 30°C, 140 units; at 35°C, 170 units. If the linear trend continues, how many units would be sold at 40°C?
- 200 (Correct answer)
- 190
- 220
- 210
Correct answer: 200
The pattern shows an increase of 30 units per 5°C rise, so at 40°C = 170 + 30 = 200 units.
Question 61: Which of the following is the best description of an 'argument from ignorance' (ad ignorantiam)?
- Concluding something is true because it has not been proven false (Correct answer)
- Applying a general rule to a case where it does not fit
- Using emotional language to persuade rather than evidence
- Attacking the character of the person making the argument
Correct answer: Concluding something is true because it has not been proven false
Ad ignorantiam treats the absence of disproof as proof, which is a logical fallacy.
Question 62: A passage proposes that because violent video games and violent crime both increased in the 1990s, video games cause violence. A student correctly identifies this as:
- An appeal to tradition
- A deductive argument with a valid structure
- A valid inductive argument based on real trends
- A spurious correlation that ignores other social factors from the same period (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A spurious correlation that ignores other social factors from the same period
Many social changes occurred simultaneously in the 1990s, making a direct causal link between the two trends unwarranted.
Question 63: A cone: radius 5cm, height 12cm. Filled to half height. What fraction of total volume is filled?
- 1/4
- 1/8 (Correct answer)
- 1/6
- 1/2
Correct answer: 1/8
At half height, radius is halved. Volume scales as cube of linear dimension: (1/2)^3 = 1/8.
Question 64: A pie chart shows how a school allocates its budget: Teachers' salaries 45%, Facilities 20%, Resources 18%, Administration 12%, Other 5%. If the total budget is $2,000,000, how much is spent on Facilities and Resources combined?
- $380,000
- $720,000 (Correct answer)
- $360,000
- $760,000
Correct answer: $720,000
Facilities (20%) + Resources (18%) = 38% of $2,000,000 = $760,000.
Question 65: In a longitudinal study, Group A (n=100) receives a dietary intervention and Group B (n=100) receives no intervention. After 6 months, Group A shows a 5% reduction in cholesterol and Group B shows a 4.8% reduction. The p-value is 0.74. What should the researchers conclude?
- The dietary intervention is effective because Group A had a larger reduction
- There is insufficient evidence that the intervention caused a significant difference (Correct answer)
- The study is invalid because both groups showed cholesterol reduction
- A larger study would definitely prove the intervention is effective
Correct answer: There is insufficient evidence that the intervention caused a significant difference
A p-value of 0.74 is far above the conventional threshold of 0.05, meaning the difference between groups is not statistically significant. The minimal difference in outcomes (5% vs 4.8%) combined with the high p-value suggests the intervention may not have a meaningful effect.
Question 66: Passage: 'All board members voted in favor of the proposal. Helena is a board member.' What must be true? A) Helena proposed the motion. B) Helena voted in favor of the proposal. C) Helena is the board chair. D) The proposal passed unanimously.
- Helena proposed the motion.
- The proposal passed unanimously.
- Helena voted in favor of the proposal. (Correct answer)
- Helena is the board chair.
Correct answer: Helena voted in favor of the proposal.
All board members voted in favor, and Helena is a board member, so she necessarily voted in favor.
Question 67: Ice cream sales and drowning deaths are strongly correlated (r=0.92). What is the most appropriate interpretation?
- Statistical error
- Drowning causes ice cream purchases
- Ice cream causes drowning
- A confounding variable (temperature/season) drives both independently (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A confounding variable (temperature/season) drives both independently
Hot weather increases both ice cream consumption and swimming activity, driving both variables independently.
Question 68: A school board argues: 'By reducing class sizes from 30 to 20 students, we will significantly improve student performance.' What unstated assumption is most critical?
- That teachers prefer smaller classes
- That student performance is primarily limited by individual teacher attention, which smaller classes would increase (Correct answer)
- That the school has enough classrooms
- That parents support smaller classes
Correct answer: That student performance is primarily limited by individual teacher attention, which smaller classes would increase
The argument assumes teacher attention is the bottleneck for performance, and more attention will directly translate to better results.
Question 69: Machine A can complete a production job in 4 hours; Machine B can complete the same job in 6 hours. How long (in hours) will it take the two machines working together to finish the job?
- 2.4 hours (Correct answer)
- 3 hours
- 5 hours
- 2 hours
Correct answer: 2.4 hours
Machine A's rate = 1/4 job/hr; Machine B's rate = 1/6 job/hr. Combined rate = 1/4 + 1/6 = 5/12 job/hr. Time = 1 á (5/12) = 12/5 = 2.4 hours.
Question 70: Which sentence uses comparative or superlative forms correctly?
- Of the two candidates, Maria is the most qualified.
- The results from the second trial were more accurate than those from the first. (Correct answer)
- This is the most easiest question on the test.
- She performed more better than her competitors.
Correct answer: The results from the second trial were more accurate than those from the first.
"More accurate than" correctly uses the comparative form to compare results between two trials.
Question 71: What distinguishes the atoms of one element from another?
- Nuclear fusion
- The number of protons (Correct answer)
- The bond distances
- The toxicity of the pollutant
Correct answer: The number of protons
Explanation: <br> The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines its identity as an element. Each element has a unique number of protons, known as its atomic number, which distinguishes it from other elements.
Question 72: A scientist measures the boiling point of pure water at various altitudes. The results are shown in the table below. | Altitude (meters) | Boiling Point (°C) | |---|---| | 0 | 100.0 | | 1000 | 96.7 | | 2000 | 93.4 | | 4000 | 86.8 | Based on the trend in the data, what is the MOST LIKELY boiling point of water at an altitude of 3,000 meters?
- 90.1°C (Correct answer)
- 93.5°C
- 91.8°C
- 86.7°C
Correct answer: 90.1°C
The data shows that the boiling point decreases as altitude increases. The 3,000-meter altitude is exactly halfway between 2,000 meters (93.4°C) and 4,000 meters (86.8°C). To estimate the boiling point at this intermediate altitude (a process called interpolation), one can find the midpoint of the temperatures. The average of 93.4 and 86.8 is (93.4 + 86.8) / 2 = 90.1°C. This is the most logical estimate based on the linear trend between these two points.
Question 73: Passage: In any ecosystem, the removal of a keystone speciesâa species on which other species in an ecosystem largely dependâcauses significant disruption. For instance, sea otters are a keystone species in kelp forests. They prey on sea urchins, which in turn feed on kelp. Without sea otters, sea urchin populations can explode, leading to the overgrazing of kelp and the subsequent collapse of the forest habitat for many other marine animals. Therefore, the conservation of sea otter populations is not just about saving a single species, but about maintaining the entire kelp forest ecosystem. Which of the following can be most logically deduced from the passage?
- The health of a kelp forest is an indicator of the presence of sea otters.
- Sea urchins are the only food source for sea otters.
- Kelp forests can only exist where there are sea otters.
- A decline in the sea otter population will likely lead to a decline in the biodiversity of the kelp forest. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A decline in the sea otter population will likely lead to a decline in the biodiversity of the kelp forest.
The passage states that the removal of sea otters leads to an explosion of sea urchins, which in turn leads to the collapse of the kelp forest habitat for 'many other marine animals.' This directly implies that a decline in sea otters will negatively affect the variety of species (biodiversity) that depend on the kelp forest.
Question 74: A school board member claims: 'Our rival school introduced a mentoring programme and their graduation rates rose by 12%. We should introduce the same programme to achieve the same result.' What is the primary flaw in this reasoning?
- The argument uses emotional language to manipulate the audience
- The argument commits an ad hominem attack on the rival school
- The argument assumes that what worked in one context will produce identical results in a different context (Correct answer)
- The argument ignores the cost of implementing a mentoring programme
Correct answer: The argument assumes that what worked in one context will produce identical results in a different context
The argument falsely assumes that because a programme produced a specific outcome in one school, it will produce the same outcome elsewhere, ignoring differences in student demographics, resources, and culture. This is a false analogy or 'what works there will work here' fallacy.
Question 75: Employee satisfaction: Mean=7.2, Median=7.5, Mode=8. What does the relationship suggest?
- Perfectly symmetric
- Uniformly distributed
- Right-skewed
- Left-skewed (negatively skewed) with a tail toward lower scores (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Left-skewed (negatively skewed) with a tail toward lower scores
Mean < Median < Mode indicates left-skew. The lower mean is pulled down by a tail of low scores.
Question 76: Passage: All employees attending the mandatory annual training must register online by Friday. Sarah, a department manager, has not yet registered. Any employee who fails to register by the deadline will have their network access suspended on the following Monday. Network access is essential for all job functions at the company. Based on the information provided, which of the following must be true?
- No managers other than Sarah have failed to register.
- Sarah's network access will be suspended on Monday.
- If Sarah does not register by Friday, she will be unable to perform her job functions on Monday. (Correct answer)
- The annual training is the only mandatory event for employees.
Correct answer: If Sarah does not register by Friday, she will be unable to perform her job functions on Monday.
The passage establishes a clear causal chain: failing to register by Friday leads to network access suspension on Monday. It also states that network access is essential for all job functions. Therefore, if Sarah does not register by the deadline, her access will be suspended, and she consequently will not be able to perform her job functions.
Question 77: An English language waiver is granted if a student meets at least one of the following: (A) completed a degree taught entirely in English, (B) is a citizen of a country where English is the sole official language, or (C) scored 7.0 or above on IELTS within the last two years. Fatima is a citizen of Nigeria (English is one of several official languages), holds a degree from a French-medium university, and has an IELTS score of 6.5 from 18 months ago. What can be deduced?
- Fatima is granted a waiver because Nigeria is an English-speaking country.
- Fatima qualifies under criterion A because she holds a university degree.
- Fatima does not qualify for the waiver under any of the three criteria. (Correct answer)
- Fatima qualifies under criterion C because her IELTS score is recent enough.
Correct answer: Fatima does not qualify for the waiver under any of the three criteria.
Criterion A fails because her degree was taught in French, not entirely in English. Criterion B fails because English is not Nigeria's sole official language. Criterion C fails because her IELTS score of 6.5 is below the required 7.0. None of the three conditions is satisfied, so no waiver is granted.
Question 78: A line graph shows COâ levels over 50 years with an overall upward trend but seasonal fluctuations. A student claims the dips in the graph prove COâ is decreasing. Why is this claim flawed?
- COâ levels cannot be measured seasonally
- The student is misinterpreting seasonal variation as a long-term trend (Correct answer)
- The graph does not contain enough data points
- The student is confusing COâ with oxygen
Correct answer: The student is misinterpreting seasonal variation as a long-term trend
Seasonal fluctuations are short-term oscillations that do not negate an overall long-term upward trend visible across the full data set.
Question 79: An ISAT passage about digital privacy opens with a startling statistic about data breaches. The statistic is best classified as:
- The author's thesis counterargument
- The main idea itself
- A hook or supporting detail that introduces the main idea (Correct answer)
- An irrelevant fact included for interest
Correct answer: A hook or supporting detail that introduces the main idea
Opening statistics are typically used as attention-grabbing hooks that support the main idea rather than stating it directly.
Question 80: Two overlapping histograms compare the distribution of exam scores for morning vs. afternoon test-takers. Both distributions are roughly symmetric. The morning peak is at 75 and the afternoon peak is at 68. What can be concluded?
- Morning test-takers are inherently smarter
- Morning test-takers scored higher on average in this dataset (Correct answer)
- The afternoon exam was harder
- Time of day has no effect on performance
Correct answer: Morning test-takers scored higher on average in this dataset
The data shows a difference in central tendency (peak scores), but cannot establish causation or compare exam difficulty without additional information.
Question 81: A researcher uses a sample of 30 participants to estimate average reaction time for a population of 10,000. The 95% confidence interval is 250â310 ms. What does this interval mean?
- The experiment will be wrong 5% of the time
- The true population mean falls between 250 and 310 ms with 95% confidence (Correct answer)
- Reaction times outside this range are impossible
- 95% of participants had reaction times between 250 and 310 ms
Correct answer: The true population mean falls between 250 and 310 ms with 95% confidence
A 95% confidence interval means that if the study were repeated many times, 95% of the resulting intervals would contain the true population mean.
Question 82: Which of the following represents a 'division fallacy'?
- Assuming that what is true of each part must be true of the whole
- Using a term in two different senses within the same argument
- Assuming that what is true of a whole must also be true of its individual parts (Correct answer)
- Claiming a correlation proves causation
Correct answer: Assuming that what is true of a whole must also be true of its individual parts
The division fallacy incorrectly transfers properties of a whole to its component parts.
Question 83: Cross Bb x Bb: 400 offspring observed: 310 dominant, 90 recessive. Expected 3:1 ratio. Does this fit Mendelian expectations using chi-square?
- No, significantly different
- Yes, close to expected -- deviation is within random variation (Correct answer)
- Yes, perfectly matches
- Cannot determine
Correct answer: Yes, close to expected -- deviation is within random variation
Expected: 300:100. Chi-square = (310-300)^2/300 + (90-100)^2/100 = 0.33 + 1.0 = 1.33. Critical value at df=1 is 3.84. Since 1.33 < 3.84, the deviation is not significant.
Question 84: Passage: 'Employees are eligible for a bonus if they have been with the company for at least two years and received a satisfactory performance review. Lena has been with the company for three years but received an unsatisfactory review.' Is Lena eligible for a bonus? A) Yes, because she has been with the company long enough. B) No, because she did not meet both requirements. C) Yes, on a partial basis. D) It depends on company policy.
- Yes, on a partial basis.
- No, because she did not meet both requirements. (Correct answer)
- Yes, because she has been with the company long enough.
- It depends on company policy.
Correct answer: No, because she did not meet both requirements.
Both tenure and a satisfactory review are required; since Lena's review was unsatisfactory, she is not eligible.
Question 85: A pump moves water at 45 gallons per minute. At this rate, how many hours will it take to fill a 16,200-gallon tank?
- 3 hours
- 360 hours
- 6 hours (Correct answer)
- 0.1 hours
Correct answer: 6 hours
16,200 á 45 = 360 minutes = 6 hours.
Question 86: A train covers 540 km in 4.5 hours. What is its speed in meters per second?
- 33.33 m/s (Correct answer)
- 40.00 m/s
- 27.78 m/s
- 30.00 m/s
Correct answer: 33.33 m/s
Speed = 540 km á 4.5 h = 120 km/h. Convert: 120 à 1000 á 3600 = 33.33 m/s.
Question 87: The quantity 8.7 Ă 105 g is expressed in standard decimal notation:
- 870,000 g (Correct answer)
- 871,000 g
- 869,900 g
- 859,800 g
Correct answer: 870,000 g
Explanation: <br> To express 8.7 Ă 10^5 g in standard decimal notation, you move the decimal point five places to the right, resulting in 870,000 g.
Question 88: Circular track: 400m circumference. Runner A: 5 m/s. Runner B: 3 m/s. Same direction. When does A first lap B?
- 200 seconds (Correct answer)
- 100 seconds
- 80 seconds
- 150 seconds
Correct answer: 200 seconds
Relative speed = 2 m/s. A must gain 400m. Time = 400/2 = 200 seconds.
Question 89: A 38-foot tree casts a 20-foot shadow. A boy standing nearby casts a shadow that is 2.5 ft long. How tall is the boy?
- 7.5 ft
- 4.75 ft (Correct answer)
- 5.5 ft
- 4 ft
Correct answer: 4.75 ft
Explanation:<br> The boy is 4.75 ft.
Question 90: Hospital triage: Red (5 min), Yellow (30 min), Green (2 hr). Capacity 20. Currently: 8 Red, 10 Yellow, 5 Green (total 23, already over). New Yellow patient arrives. What happens?
- Yellow admitted, Green patients redirected to maintain capacity (Correct answer)
- All Green redirected immediately
- Yellow waits for Green redirection
- Yellow redirected to clinic
Correct answer: Yellow admitted, Green patients redirected to maintain capacity
Yellow outranks Green. New total: 24. Green patients are redirected to maintain capacity of 20.
Question 91: A tentative thought- or experiment-derived explanation is known as a(an) ____________.
- scientific law
- hypothesis (Correct answer)
- scientific theory
- model
Correct answer: hypothesis
Explanation: <br> A hypothesis is a tentative explanation or prediction based on limited evidence or prior knowledge. It serves as a starting point for further investigation or experimentation in the scientific method.
Question 92: Identify the sentence with a correctly formed relative clause:
- The professor who's lecture I attended was very knowledgeable.
- The students whose essays received high marks were invited to present. (Correct answer)
- The book that I borrowed it from the library was fascinating.
- The city where I grew up there has changed a lot.
Correct answer: The students whose essays received high marks were invited to present.
"Whose essays received high marks" correctly uses the possessive relative pronoun "whose" to modify "students."
Question 93: Library closes at 9 PM weekdays, 6 PM weekends. Weekday loans: 14 days. Weekend loans: 7 days. Extended loans only for academic texts. Sarah borrows fiction on Saturday. Latest return time?
- Next Saturday at 6 PM (Correct answer)
- 14 days from Saturday
- Next Friday at 9 PM
- Following Saturday at 9 PM
Correct answer: Next Saturday at 6 PM
Saturday = weekend = 7-day loan. Fiction = no extended loan. 7 days from Saturday = Saturday. Library closes at 6 PM on weekends.
Question 94: Scholarship: GPA>=3.5 + income<$60K + 100+ service hours. All 3 = full. Exactly 2 = partial. <2 = ineligible. Priya: GPA 3.8, income $75K, 150 service hours. Status?
- Waitlisted
- Full scholarship
- Ineligible
- Partial scholarship (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Partial scholarship
Priya meets 2 of 3: GPA (3.8>=3.5) and service (150>=100). Income ($75K>$60K) not met. Exactly 2 = partial.
Question 95: A political analyst states: 'The incumbent, Governor Smith, is sure to win re-election. A recent poll of 500 likely voters in the state's largest city showed that 65% of respondents support her.' Which of the following is the most significant flaw in the analyst's argument?
- The poll size of 500 respondents is too small to draw any meaningful conclusions.
- The poll only included likely voters, not all registered voters.
- The conclusion is based on a sample that may not be representative of the entire state's electorate. (Correct answer)
- The analyst fails to consider that Governor Smith's opponent might increase their campaigning efforts before the election.
Correct answer: The conclusion is based on a sample that may not be representative of the entire state's electorate.
The primary flaw in the reasoning is that the poll was conducted in only the state's largest city. The views of voters in a large urban area may differ significantly from those in suburban or rural areas. Therefore, the sample is not representative of the entire state's voting population, making the broad conclusion about the election outcome unreliable. This is a classic sampling flaw.
Question 96: Two answer choices for a main idea question are: (A) 'Antibiotics have saved millions of lives.' (B) 'Antibiotic overuse is creating dangerous drug-resistant bacteria that threaten global health.' A passage discusses the history of antibiotic success and the growing crisis of resistance. Which answer is better?
- Neither, because the passage covers two unrelated topics
- B, because it reflects the passage's focus on the emerging crisis (Correct answer)
- A, because the history of success is mentioned first
- Both equally, because the passage covers both subjects
Correct answer: B, because it reflects the passage's focus on the emerging crisis
When a passage moves from background to a central problem, the problem is typically the main idea the historical context sets up.
Question 97: Regression: y = 3.2x + 42 (x=study hours, y=score). A student studies 12 hours. What does the model predict, and what does the y-intercept mean?
- 80.4; the predicted baseline score with zero study hours (Correct answer)
- 38.4; minimum possible score
- 80.4; maximum possible score
- 80.4; the average student's score
Correct answer: 80.4; the predicted baseline score with zero study hours
y = 3.2(12) + 42 = 80.4. The y-intercept (42) represents the predicted score when x=0.
Question 98: A double bar chart shows male and female enrolment at a university over three years. Year 1: M=1200, F=1100. Year 2: M=1150, F=1250. Year 3: M=1100, F=1350. In which year did female enrolment first exceed male enrolment?
- Year 3
- Female never exceeded male
- Year 2 (Correct answer)
- Year 1
Correct answer: Year 2
In Year 2, female enrolment (1250) first exceeded male enrolment (1150).
Question 99: A research group is studying the weekly screen time of teenagers. They collect the following data in hours from a sample of 7 participants: 15, 18, 20, 22, 25, 28, 75. Which measure of central tendency would most accurately describe a typical teenager's screen time in this sample?
- The mean, because it includes all data points.
- The median, because it is not significantly affected by the outlier. (Correct answer)
- The range, because it shows the full spread of the data.
- The mode, because it represents the most frequent value.
Correct answer: The median, because it is not significantly affected by the outlier.
The dataset contains an outlier (75 hours), which is significantly higher than the other values. The mean would be skewed upward by this outlier (to approx. 29 hours), not reflecting the typical value. The median, which is the middle value (22 hours), is resistant to such outliers and therefore provides a more accurate representation of the central tendency for this skewed dataset.
Question 100: 'Either you support this new law, or you want criminals to go free.' This statement is an example of:
- False dichotomy (Correct answer)
- Post hoc reasoning
- Hasty generalisation
- Appeal to authority
Correct answer: False dichotomy
A false dichotomy presents only two options when other alternatives exist.
ISAT International Student Admissions Test
The ISAT is a 3-hour reasoning assessment used by Australian medical schools for international student admissions, testing critical and quantitative reasoning abilities.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong â answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds