NBC-HIS National Competency Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: The primary function of the ossicular chain in the middle ear is to:
- Protect the inner ear from loud sounds.
- Amplify sound vibrations and transmit them to the inner ear. (Correct answer)
- Equalize pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere.
- Convert sound waves into hydraulic pressure.
Correct answer: Amplify sound vibrations and transmit them to the inner ear.
The ossicles (malleus, incus, and stapes) act as a lever system to amplify the force of sound vibrations from the larger tympanic membrane to the smaller oval window of the cochlea. This amplification overcomes the impedance mismatch between the air-filled middle ear and the fluid-filled inner ear.
Question 2: What does the term 'shrinkage' refer to in the context of earmold laboratory processing?
- Reduction in earmold hardness after curing
- Reduction in canal length after trimming
- Dimensional change of the earmold material as it cures or cools (Correct answer)
- Loss of color in the earmold material over time
Correct answer: Dimensional change of the earmold material as it cures or cools
Shrinkage is the dimensional reduction that occurs as acrylic or silicone materials polymerize or cool, which can affect the final fit of the earmold.
Question 3: During functional gain measurement, what is the primary limitation compared to real-ear insertion gain?
- Functional gain only measures high-frequency amplification
- Functional gain cannot be performed in a sound field
- Functional gain requires more expensive equipment
- Functional gain reflects aided versus unaided thresholds and is limited by test-retest variability (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Functional gain reflects aided versus unaided thresholds and is limited by test-retest variability
Functional gain is the difference between aided and unaided sound-field thresholds, making it susceptible to variability and unable to capture supra-threshold performance.
Question 4: Which of the following actions constitutes an unethical conflict of interest according to the IHS Code of Ethics?
- Accepting a commission structure that pays a higher percentage for the sale of premium-level devices over basic-level devices. (Correct answer)
- Offering a discount on hearing aids to a family member.
- Attending a free training seminar hosted by a manufacturer to learn about new technology.
- Recommending a specific brand of hearing aid because the specialist has the most experience and success fitting that product.
Correct answer: Accepting a commission structure that pays a higher percentage for the sale of premium-level devices over basic-level devices.
A commission structure that incentivizes selling more expensive products creates a conflict of interest. It may influence the specialist to recommend a device based on personal financial gain rather than the client's specific hearing needs, lifestyle, and budget. The client's welfare must always be the primary consideration, free from such conflicts.
Question 5: What is the primary advantage of insert earphones over supra-aural earphones in audiometry?
- They are less expensive and easier to calibrate
- They provide more accurate bone conduction measurements
- They increase interaural attenuation, reducing the need for masking (Correct answer)
- They are more comfortable for patients with normal ear canals
Correct answer: They increase interaural attenuation, reducing the need for masking
Insert earphones provide interaural attenuation of approximately 70–80 dB, significantly higher than supra-aural earphones, which reduces cross-hearing and masking requirements.
Question 6: A client returns for a follow-up appointment two weeks after being fitted with new hearing aids. The practitioner wants to use a standardized questionnaire to efficiently assess the overall success of the fitting, including daily use, benefit, satisfaction, and quality of life. Which of the following validation tools is most suitable for this purpose?
- Otoscopy
- Real Ear Insertion Gain (REIG)
- Hearing Handicap Inventory for the Elderly - Screening (HHIE-S)
- International Outcome Inventory for Hearing Aids (IOI-HA) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: International Outcome Inventory for Hearing Aids (IOI-HA)
The International Outcome Inventory for Hearing Aids (IOI-HA) is a widely used post-fitting validation tool designed to assess multiple domains of success, including daily use, benefit, satisfaction, and overall quality of life. REIG is an objective verification measure, the HHIE-S is typically a pre-fitting screening tool, and otoscopy is a physical examination of the ear.
Question 7: When a hearing aid produces distorted sound even at low volumes and a new battery does not help, which component failure is most likely?
- Receiver (speaker) damage (Correct answer)
- Incorrect NAL-NL2 target
- Excessive vent size
- Low-battery indicator activation
Correct answer: Receiver (speaker) damage
A damaged or partially failed receiver produces distorted output across all volume levels because it can no longer accurately transduce the electrical signal.
Question 8: A patient with severe arthritis reports difficulty manipulating small controls. Which hearing aid feature MOST addresses this limitation?
- Smaller battery door for cosmetic discreteness
- Multiple manual push-button programs
- Size 10 zinc-air battery
- Automatic volume and program adjustment without manual controls (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Automatic volume and program adjustment without manual controls
Automatic adjustment eliminates fine motor manipulation, making the instrument manageable for patients with reduced dexterity.
Question 9: A 'trampoline' earmold is designed primarily for which patient population?
- Patients with chronic otitis externa requiring antimicrobial materials
- Elderly patients with reduced dexterity who need easier insertion
- Adults with severe-to-profound hearing loss requiring maximum gain
- Infants and young children due to its flexible, safe material construction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Infants and young children due to its flexible, safe material construction
Trampoline or soft, highly flexible earmolds are often recommended for young children because their ear canals change rapidly and the soft material is safer and more comfortable.
Question 10: After successfully removing a cured silicone ear impression, what is the essential final step before concluding the procedure with the client?
- Trim any excess material from the helix area of the impression.
- Ask the client if they experienced any dizziness.
- Perform a post-impression otoscopic examination of the ear. (Correct answer)
- Immediately package the impression in a box with foam padding for shipping.
Correct answer: Perform a post-impression otoscopic examination of the ear.
It is critical to perform a final otoscopic examination after removing the impression. This step ensures that the otoblock has been removed along with the impression and that no material has been left behind in the ear canal, and it allows for a check of the canal and tympanic membrane for any signs of irritation or injury.
Question 11: What is the recommended counseling approach for a patient who is in the 'pre-contemplation' stage of readiness to change regarding hearing aid use?
- Raise awareness of the impact of hearing loss without pressuring action (Correct answer)
- Discharge the patient and reappoint in six months
- Refer for psychological evaluation
- Immediately fit hearing aids and schedule follow-up
Correct answer: Raise awareness of the impact of hearing loss without pressuring action
In pre-contemplation, patients are not yet aware of or concerned about their problem; motivational interviewing techniques raise awareness without creating resistance.
Question 12: Which earmold tubing size is most commonly used with a standard behind-the-ear hearing aid for adults?
- #16 tubing
- #12 tubing
- #9 tubing
- #13 tubing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: #13 tubing
#13 tubing is the standard size used with most conventional BTE hearing aids and provides the appropriate acoustic bore diameter for typical amplification needs.
Question 13: What is a characteristic of a sensorineural loss?
- Greater for the low frequencies than for the higher frequencies.
- -Loud talker<br> -Difficulty understanding high frequency consonants sounds<br> -Recruitment<br> -Tinnitus often preceeds it. (Correct answer)
- -A hearing level dial<br> -An attenuator dial
- high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input.
Correct answer: -Loud talker<br> -Difficulty understanding high frequency consonants sounds<br> -Recruitment<br> -Tinnitus often preceeds it.
A characteristic of sensorineural hearing loss is that it typically affects higher frequencies more than lower frequencies. This means there is greater loss for high-frequency sounds, such as consonant sounds like "s," "f," and "th," compared to low-frequency sounds. This can result in difficulty understanding speech, especially in noisy environments, and may lead to the perception that others are speaking softly or mumbling (hence the "loud talker" impression).
Question 14: Which hearing aid coupling style BEST preserves the natural pinna effect and localization cues?
- BTE with a standard occluding earmold
- Full-shell in-the-ear (ITE)
- Body-worn hearing aid
- Open-fit receiver-in-canal (RIC) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Open-fit receiver-in-canal (RIC)
Open-fit RIC instruments leave the ear canal largely unoccluded, allowing the pinna to collect sound naturally and preserve directional cues.
Question 15: A spouse accompanies a hearing-impaired patient to a counseling session and frequently answers questions directed at the patient. The clinician should:
- Gently redirect questions to the patient to preserve their autonomy (Correct answer)
- Ask the spouse to leave the session
- Document the behavior and take no action
- Allow the spouse to continue as it saves time
Correct answer: Gently redirect questions to the patient to preserve their autonomy
Preserving patient autonomy is a core ethical principle; the clinician should facilitate direct communication while acknowledging the spouse's supportive role.
Question 16: When should the audiologist introduce inter-aural attenuation (IA) values when deciding whether to mask?
- When the air-bone gap exceeds 10 dB
- Only during bone conduction testing
- When the signal presented to the test ear could cross over to the non-test ear (Correct answer)
- Whenever the patient reports difficulty hearing
Correct answer: When the signal presented to the test ear could cross over to the non-test ear
Masking is needed whenever the signal level in the test ear exceeds the inter-aural attenuation, meaning the signal could reach the non-test cochlea and give a false response.
Question 17: A hearing specialist uses the Client Oriented Scale of Improvement (COSI) with a new patient. What is the primary purpose of this tool?
- To identify specific listening situations the patient wants to improve and then rate improvement after fitting (Correct answer)
- To measure the patient's audiometric thresholds before fitting
- To determine insurance coverage for the hearing aid
- To calibrate the hearing aid's frequency response
Correct answer: To identify specific listening situations the patient wants to improve and then rate improvement after fitting
The COSI is a patient-centered outcome measure where the patient identifies up to five personal listening goals, then rates the degree of change and final ability after fitting.
Question 18: A hearing instrument specialist performs otoscopy and observes a pearly white mass behind the tympanic membrane. The appropriate next step is:
- Proceed with hearing aid fitting
- Perform tympanometry to quantify the mass
- Recheck in six months
- Refer the patient to an otolaryngologist immediately (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Refer the patient to an otolaryngologist immediately
A pearly white mass behind the tympanic membrane is the classic appearance of a cholesteatoma, which requires prompt medical/surgical evaluation and management.
Question 19: A client with moderate hearing loss insists on the cheapest possible device against your clinical recommendation. What is the ethical response?
- Refer the client to a discount retailer
- Fully inform the client of the clinical limitations and document their informed decision (Correct answer)
- Refuse to fit the client with an inadequate device
- Fit the recommended device and bill the client without their consent
Correct answer: Fully inform the client of the clinical limitations and document their informed decision
Respecting patient autonomy means fully disclosing risks and documenting an informed choice, even if it differs from your recommendation.
Question 20: Which of the following is considered an FDA 'red flag' condition that requires medical referral before a hearing aid can be dispensed to an adult client, unless they sign a medical waiver?
- Visible evidence of significant cerumen accumulation (Correct answer)
- Gradual, bilateral high-frequency hearing loss
- A history of tinnitus for more than 5 years
- Recruitment and difficulty hearing in noise
Correct answer: Visible evidence of significant cerumen accumulation
The FDA has established specific contraindications, often called 'red flags,' that necessitate a medical evaluation before fitting hearing aids. Visible evidence of significant cerumen accumulation or a foreign body in the ear canal is one of these eight red flags. The other options are common symptoms associated with hearing loss but are not on the specific FDA list requiring mandatory medical referral.
Question 21: The impedance matching function of the middle ear is primarily achieved by:
- The elasticity of the round window membrane
- The tension of the tensor tympani muscle
- The resonance of the ear canal
- The ratio of tympanic membrane area to stapes footplate area (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The ratio of tympanic membrane area to stapes footplate area
The large tympanic membrane area (approximately 55 mm²) compared to the small stapes footplate (approximately 3.2 mm²) creates a pressure gain that matches air impedance to fluid impedance.
Question 22: A client presents with a unilateral hearing loss, where the right ear has no usable hearing (profound loss) and the left ear has normal hearing. The client's primary complaint is difficulty hearing conversations on their right side. Which of the following is the most suitable amplification strategy?
- Bilateral hearing aids
- A contralateral routing of signals (CROS) system (Correct answer)
- A traditional hearing aid on the right ear
- A bone-anchored hearing aid on the left side
Correct answer: A contralateral routing of signals (CROS) system
A CROS system is specifically designed for unilateral hearing loss where one ear is unaidable. It uses a microphone on the poorer ear to pick up sound and wirelessly transmit it to a receiver on the normal-hearing ear, allowing the user to perceive sounds from their deaf side.
Question 23: During a hearing aid evaluation, a patient's aided word recognition score improves significantly compared to unaided scores. This finding MOST indicates:
- The patient does not require hearing aids
- The hearing loss is conductive in nature
- An immediate cochlear implant referral is warranted
- The patient is a good candidate who will likely achieve real-world benefit from amplification (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The patient is a good candidate who will likely achieve real-world benefit from amplification
Improved word recognition with amplification is a positive prognostic indicator that the patient will receive meaningful benefit from hearing instruments.
Question 24: Which ossicle directly contacts the oval window of the cochlea?
- Incus
- Malleus
- Stapes (Correct answer)
- Lenticular process
Correct answer: Stapes
The stapes footplate fits into the oval window, transmitting vibrations from the ossicular chain directly into the perilymph of the inner ear.
Question 25: A patient reports their BTE hearing aid produces a loud, continuous squeal only when their hand is placed near the ear. What is the most likely cause?
- Acoustic feedback due to a loose earmold fit (Correct answer)
- Receiver failure
- Dead battery
- Blocked microphone port
Correct answer: Acoustic feedback due to a loose earmold fit
A loose or improperly fitted earmold allows amplified sound to escape and re-enter the microphone, causing feedback squealing.
Question 26: A patient with an open jaw impression shows a significant gap between the impression and the tragus area when the mouth is closed. This most likely indicates:
- The temporomandibular joint movement was not adequately captured (Correct answer)
- Insufficient material was injected into the canal
- The impression material was over-mixed
- The otoblock was placed too deeply
Correct answer: The temporomandibular joint movement was not adequately captured
TMJ movement changes the shape of the ear canal, and a gap at the tragus suggests the open-jaw technique did not fully account for this dynamic change.
Question 27: Which surgical technique repairs the tympanic membrane?
- Cholesteaplasty
- Myringoplasty (Correct answer)
- Myringotomy
- Stapedectomy
Correct answer: Myringoplasty
The surgical technique that repairs the tympanic membrane (eardrum) is called myringoplasty. This procedure involves repairing a perforation or hole in the tympanic membrane to restore its integrity and function. Myringotomy, on the other hand, is a surgical procedure that involves making a small incision in the eardrum to relieve pressure and drain fluid from the middle ear. Stapedectomy is a surgical procedure to treat otosclerosis by removing part or all of the stapes bone and replacing it with a prosthesis. Cholesteatoma refers to a type of benign cyst or growth in the middle ear that may require surgical removal, which can involve cholesteatoplasty.
Question 28: In acoustics, what does one octave represent?
- A doubling of frequency (Correct answer)
- A fixed interval of 8 semitones used only in audiometric testing
- A tenfold increase in sound intensity
- An increase of exactly 1,000 Hz between two tones
Correct answer: A doubling of frequency
One octave equals a doubling of frequency; for example, 500 Hz to 1,000 Hz is one octave, and 1,000 Hz to 2,000 Hz is the next octave.
Question 29: A patient with a flat 50 dB HL hearing loss consistently rejects hearing aids because loud sounds are uncomfortable. The fitting adjustment MOST likely needed is:
- Increase compression threshold
- Add a larger vent to the earmold
- Increase attack time
- Lower the MPO/OSPL90 setting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lower the MPO/OSPL90 setting
Reducing the maximum power output (MPO) prevents the hearing aid from reaching uncomfortable loudness levels for the patient.
Question 30: Which wireless standard is most commonly used for direct audio streaming between modern hearing aids and smartphones?
- Near Field Communication (NFC)
- FM radio transmission
- Wi-Fi 802.11n
- Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE)
Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) is used in modern Made for iPhone and ASHA (Audio Streaming for Hearing Aids) platforms for direct, low-power audio streaming.
Question 31: A 1000 Hz probe tone is preferred over 226 Hz for tympanometry in which population?
- Patients with ossicular chain discontinuity
- Infants under 6 months of age (Correct answer)
- Adults over 65 years
- Patients with otosclerosis
Correct answer: Infants under 6 months of age
A 1000 Hz probe tone is recommended for infants under 6 months because their highly compliant ear canals and mobile middle ear systems are better assessed at higher probe tone frequencies.
Question 32: Reverberation time (RT60) is defined as the time required for sound pressure level to decrease by:
- 30 dB after the source stops
- 60 dB after the source stops (Correct answer)
- 20 dB after the source stops
- 6 dB after the source stops
Correct answer: 60 dB after the source stops
RT60 is the time it takes for the sound energy in a room to decay by 60 dB once the sound source ceases.
Question 33: Which of the following best describes 'coupler gain' as used in hearing aid verification?
- The gain setting selected in the fitting software
- The gain measured in a 2 cc coupler under standardized laboratory conditions (Correct answer)
- The gain reported by the patient in daily use
- The gain measured directly in the patient's ear canal
Correct answer: The gain measured in a 2 cc coupler under standardized laboratory conditions
Coupler gain is measured using a standardized 2 cc coupler in controlled lab conditions and represents the hearing aid's acoustic output independent of an individual's ear canal acoustics.
Question 34: A 78-year-old client has a severe-to-profound sensorineural hearing loss and significant dexterity issues due to arthritis. They also desire a simple, easy-to-handle device. Which hearing instrument style would be the most appropriate initial recommendation?
- In-The-Canal (ITC)
- Completely-In-Canal (CIC)
- Behind-The-Ear (BTE) with a custom earmold (Correct answer)
- Receiver-In-Canal (RIC) with a stock dome
Correct answer: Behind-The-Ear (BTE) with a custom earmold
A Behind-The-Ear (BTE) style instrument is larger, making it easier to handle for individuals with dexterity limitations. Paired with a custom earmold, it can provide the necessary power and acoustic seal for a severe-to-profound hearing loss, unlike smaller custom or RIC styles which may not be powerful enough or are more difficult to manage.
Question 35: Which of the following is the BEST example of an 'anticipatory strategy' for a patient with hearing loss?
- Requesting a quiet table near the wall when making a restaurant reservation (Correct answer)
- Asking a colleague to write down what was said
- Turning up hearing aid volume during a meeting
- Asking a speaker to repeat themselves after missing information
Correct answer: Requesting a quiet table near the wall when making a restaurant reservation
Anticipatory strategies are proactive—taken before a communication situation—to optimize listening conditions before any breakdown occurs.
Question 36: An elderly patient who lives alone reports difficulty hearing smoke alarms. Which recommendation is MOST appropriate?
- Significantly increase hearing aid gain
- Add a telecoil to the existing hearing aid
- Fit a more powerful hearing aid style
- Recommend alerting assistive devices such as vibrotactile or visual alarms in addition to hearing aids (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Recommend alerting assistive devices such as vibrotactile or visual alarms in addition to hearing aids
Alerting devices such as bed shakers or strobe alarms supplement hearing aids to ensure safety for critical environmental signals, especially during sleep.
Question 37: A patient experiencing hearing aid feedback (whistling) when hugging family members should first be counseled to:
- Increase the volume to override the feedback
- Cup their hand over the ear during hugs or remove the aid briefly (Correct answer)
- Return the hearing aid immediately for replacement
- Switch to a completely-in-canal style
Correct answer: Cup their hand over the ear during hugs or remove the aid briefly
Feedback during close contact is normal; counseling the patient on simple behavioral strategies prevents unnecessary frustration.
Question 38: Under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, a hearing instrument specialist may share a patient's protected health information (PHI) without obtaining patient authorization in which of the following situations?
- When posting a patient success story on the practice's social media
- When sharing records with the patient's employer at the employer's request
- When a family member asks for the patient's audiogram results
- When coordinating treatment with another healthcare provider involved in the patient's care (Correct answer)
Correct answer: When coordinating treatment with another healthcare provider involved in the patient's care
HIPAA permits sharing PHI without patient authorization for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations (TPO). Coordinating care with another treating provider falls under 'treatment' and does not require a separate authorization. Sharing with employers, family members (without patient consent), or on social media all require explicit patient authorization.
Question 39: An IHS member is approached by a client who is also a close personal friend. What ethical consideration is most important?
- Friends may be offered discounts but must receive the same clinical standard of care
- Personal relationships disqualify specialists from providing care entirely
- Dual relationships automatically create a conflict of interest requiring referral
- The specialist must maintain the same professional and ethical standards as with any other client (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The specialist must maintain the same professional and ethical standards as with any other client
IHS ethics require consistent professional conduct regardless of the personal relationship between specialist and client.
Question 40: In the context of IHS standards, what does 'validation' specifically refer to?
- Confirming that the fitting achieves meaningful benefit and satisfaction for the patient in real life (Correct answer)
- Confirming that the hearing aid meets prescriptive targets on a coupler
- Confirming that the audiogram was performed correctly
- Confirming that the hearing aid meets manufacturer specifications
Correct answer: Confirming that the fitting achieves meaningful benefit and satisfaction for the patient in real life
Validation determines whether the hearing aid fitting has achieved the desired outcomes for the patient's daily communication needs, typically using self-report tools.
Question 41: Which audiometric finding best describes a 'flat' audiogram configuration?
- Greater hearing loss in the low frequencies than high
- Equal hearing loss across all frequencies tested (Correct answer)
- Hearing loss only at 4,000 Hz
- Greater hearing loss in the high frequencies than low
Correct answer: Equal hearing loss across all frequencies tested
A flat audiogram shows approximately equal threshold elevations across all tested frequencies, with no more than 20 dB variation.
Question 42: Which of the following best describes a pure tone?
- A tone consisting of two simultaneous frequencies
- A single-frequency sinusoidal sound wave (Correct answer)
- A broadband noise signal spanning all frequencies
- A complex waveform with multiple harmonics
Correct answer: A single-frequency sinusoidal sound wave
A pure tone is a single-frequency, sinusoidal sound wave with no harmonics or overtones, analogous to the sound produced by a tuning fork.
Question 43: A patient has a severe-to-profound high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, making it difficult to hear sibilant sounds like /s/ and /f/. Simply amplifying these frequencies is ineffective due to cochlear dead regions. Which technology is specifically designed to address this problem?
- Wide Dynamic Range Compression (WDRC)
- Frequency lowering (Correct answer)
- Directional microphones
- Noise reduction algorithms
Correct answer: Frequency lowering
Frequency lowering technology, through methods like frequency compression or transposition, shifts high-frequency sounds that the user cannot hear into a lower frequency range where their hearing is better. This makes previously inaudible speech cues, like high-frequency consonants, accessible to the listener.
Question 44: A patient with severe hearing loss who relies heavily on lipreading should be counseled that lipreading alone provides approximately what percentage of speech intelligibility?
- 85–95%
- 25–30% (Correct answer)
- 60–70%
- 5–10%
Correct answer: 25–30%
Visual speech cues alone yield only about 25–30% intelligibility because many phonemes look identical on the lips (visemes); auditory input is essential for accurate speech understanding.
Question 45: When assessing a patient for hearing loss, which case history question is most directly relevant to identifying occupational noise exposure?
- Do you experience balance problems?
- Do you have diabetes?
- Do you have a family history of hearing loss?
- Have you ever worked in environments requiring hearing protection? (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Have you ever worked in environments requiring hearing protection?
Asking about occupational noise exposure directly identifies one of the most preventable causes of acquired sensorineural hearing loss.
Question 46: Under IHS ethical guidelines, what is the minimum appropriate action when a specialist suspects elder abuse in a hearing-impaired client?
- Follow mandatory reporting laws applicable in their jurisdiction and report to the appropriate authority (Correct answer)
- Document suspicions but take no further action to avoid false accusations
- Confront the suspected abuser directly before contacting authorities
- Consult with the client's family before deciding whether to report
Correct answer: Follow mandatory reporting laws applicable in their jurisdiction and report to the appropriate authority
Specialists are bound by mandatory reporting laws and ethical duty to report suspected elder abuse to appropriate authorities.
Question 47: A client's unmasked air conduction threshold in the right ear at 2000 Hz is 50 dB HL. The bone conduction threshold in the left ear (non-test ear) at the same frequency is 10 dB HL. Using supra-aural headphones with an interaural attenuation of 40 dB, is masking required for the right ear, and why?
- No, because the bone conduction in the non-test ear is within normal limits.
- Yes, because masking is always required when testing at 2000 Hz.
- No, because the air conduction threshold is not high enough to require masking.
- Yes, because the difference between the air-conduction threshold in the test ear and the bone-conduction threshold in the non-test ear is greater than the interaural attenuation. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Yes, because the difference between the air-conduction threshold in the test ear and the bone-conduction threshold in the non-test ear is greater than the interaural attenuation.
Masking is needed to prevent the non-test ear from responding to the signal (cross-hearing). The rule is to mask when the air conduction threshold of the test ear (ACte) minus the interaural attenuation (IA) is greater than or equal to the bone conduction threshold of the non-test ear (BCnte). In this case: 50 dB (ACte) - 40 dB (IA) = 10 dB. Since 10 dB is equal to the BCnte (10 dB), there is a risk of cross-hearing, and masking is required.
Question 48: Under IHS ethical standards, how should a specialist handle a situation where their personal financial interest conflicts with the client's best hearing healthcare interest?
- Prioritize the financial interest if the difference in outcomes is minor
- Disclose the conflict only if the client specifically asks
- Always place the client's hearing health needs above personal financial gain (Correct answer)
- Avoid clients where any conflict of interest exists
Correct answer: Always place the client's hearing health needs above personal financial gain
IHS ethics require that client welfare always take precedence over the practitioner's financial interests.
Question 49: The tonotopic organization of the cochlea refers to the specific arrangement of hair cells along the basilar membrane. Where are high-frequency sounds processed?
- At the apex of the cochlea
- Uniformly across the entire basilar membrane
- At the base of the cochlea (Correct answer)
- In the helicotrema
Correct answer: At the base of the cochlea
The basilar membrane is narrower and stiffer at the base of the cochlea, which makes it more responsive to high-frequency vibrations. It becomes wider and more flexible towards the apex, which responds best to low-frequency sounds.
Question 50: A tympanogram showing a flat (Type B) curve with normal ear canal volume most likely indicates:
- Ossicular chain discontinuity
- Eustachian tube dysfunction
- Tympanic membrane perforation
- Fluid in the middle ear (otitis media with effusion) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fluid in the middle ear (otitis media with effusion)
A Type B tympanogram with normal ear canal volume is the classic finding for middle ear effusion, where fluid dampens tympanic membrane mobility.
Question 51: To comply with the principle of informed consent, a hearing instrument specialist must ensure the client understands all of the following BEFORE they sign a purchase agreement, EXCEPT:
- The specific warranty details and the trial period/return policy.
- The total cost of the hearing aids and any non-refundable fees.
- The technical specifications of the digital signal processor in the hearing aid. (Correct answer)
- The potential benefits, limitations, and realistic expectations of the recommended hearing aids.
Correct answer: The technical specifications of the digital signal processor in the hearing aid.
Informed consent requires the client to have all the necessary information to make an autonomous decision. This includes understanding costs, policies, benefits, and limitations. However, detailing the highly technical specifications of the internal processor is not necessary for informed consent and is typically beyond the scope of what a client needs to know to make a sound decision.
Question 52: A patient with unilateral hearing loss (normal hearing in one ear) is MOST likely to report difficulty with:
- Hearing low-pitched environmental sounds
- Understanding speech at close range
- Localizing the direction of sound and hearing in background noise (Correct answer)
- Understanding speech in quiet one-on-one settings
Correct answer: Localizing the direction of sound and hearing in background noise
Binaural hearing is essential for sound localization and the head shadow benefit; unilateral loss eliminates these advantages in noisy environments.
Question 53: Which tympanogram type suggests excessive mobility of the tympanic membrane, possibly due to ossicular discontinuity or a monomeric membrane?
- Type B
- Type Ad (deep/high compliance) (Correct answer)
- Type A
- Type As (shallow/low compliance)
Correct answer: Type Ad (deep/high compliance)
Type Ad (Ad = deep) tympanogram shows abnormally high compliance, indicating hypermobility of the tympanic membrane, seen with ossicular discontinuity or healed perforations.
Question 54: What is the IHS ethical standard regarding the use of before-and-after promotional testimonials?
- Testimonials are prohibited entirely under IHS standards
- Testimonials require the client's informed, written consent before use in any promotional material (Correct answer)
- Only written testimonials require consent; verbal endorsements do not
- Testimonials may be used freely as they are considered public speech
Correct answer: Testimonials require the client's informed, written consent before use in any promotional material
Using a client's personal experience in advertising requires their explicit informed consent to protect their privacy.
Question 55: The primary purpose of maintaining accurate and comprehensive client records, as required by professional standards and regulations like HIPAA, is to:
- Track sales statistics for business management.
- Create a database for marketing and sending promotional materials.
- Justify billing codes to insurance companies.
- Ensure continuity of care and provide a legal document of the services rendered. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ensure continuity of care and provide a legal document of the services rendered.
While records are used for billing and business analysis, their foremost purpose is clinical and ethical. Complete records ensure that any practitioner can understand the client's history, the rationale for treatment, and the outcomes, thus ensuring high-quality continuity of care. They also serve as the official legal record of the client-practitioner relationship and the services provided.
Question 56: In word recognition testing, what percentage score typically indicates normal word recognition ability?
- 70% or higher
- 90% or higher (Correct answer)
- 80% or higher
- 95% or higher
Correct answer: 90% or higher
A word recognition score of 90% or higher is generally considered within normal limits for speech discrimination ability.
Question 57: Which hearing aid style is typically recommended for patients with severe-to-profound hearing loss who require maximum power output?
- Receiver-in-canal (RIC) with open dome
- In-the-canal (ITC)
- Completely-in-canal (CIC)
- Behind-the-ear (BTE) with custom earmold (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Behind-the-ear (BTE) with custom earmold
BTE instruments with custom earmolds provide the highest power output and are best suited for severe-to-profound hearing losses.
Question 58: Which condition involves progressive conductive hearing loss due to abnormal bone remodeling that fixes the stapes footplate in the oval window?
- Presbycusis
- Cholesteatoma
- Ménière's disease
- Otosclerosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Otosclerosis
Otosclerosis is a hereditary condition causing abnormal bone remodeling around the stapes, progressively fixing it and reducing sound transmission into the inner ear.
Question 59: State licensure for hearing instrument specialists is regulated by:
- Individual state licensing boards, which vary by state (Correct answer)
- The FTC in coordination with state agencies
- The International Hearing Society, which issues a universal national license
- The FDA exclusively at the federal level
Correct answer: Individual state licensing boards, which vary by state
Hearing instrument specialist licensure is a state-regulated function. Each state has its own licensing board, requirements (education, exam, continuing education), and scope of practice rules. The IHS is a professional membership organization, not a licensing authority — the NBC-HIS credential is a voluntary board certification, not a government license.
Question 60: A patient using a telecoil in a loop system reports noisy, buzzing sound. The microphone mode is fine. What is the most likely cause?
- Damaged receiver coil
- Incorrect compression attack time
- Telecoil sensitivity set too high picking up electrical interference (Correct answer)
- Feedback from the loop antenna
Correct answer: Telecoil sensitivity set too high picking up electrical interference
Telecoils can pick up electromagnetic interference from lighting, motors, or other electronics when sensitivity is high, producing a buzzing or humming artifact.
Question 61: Which step should be performed FIRST when a patient presents with a non-functioning hearing aid?
- Send the aid to the manufacturer for repair
- Perform a systematic check: battery, wax guard, earmold/tubing, then electrical function (Correct answer)
- Perform a full audiological re-evaluation
- Reprogram the hearing aid software
Correct answer: Perform a systematic check: battery, wax guard, earmold/tubing, then electrical function
A systematic basic check—battery, wax guard, physical pathway—resolves the majority of non-functioning aids before advanced diagnostics or repair are needed.
Question 62: The Bluetooth LE Audio standard offers several advantages over Bluetooth Classic for hearing aid users. Which of the following is a key benefit of this newer technology?
- Higher amplification levels for severe hearing losses.
- Lower power consumption, leading to longer battery life during streaming. (Correct answer)
- Universal compatibility with all electronic devices made before 2020.
- A significantly longer connection range, often exceeding 300 feet.
Correct answer: Lower power consumption, leading to longer battery life during streaming.
Bluetooth LE (Low Energy) Audio is specifically designed to provide high-quality audio streaming while consuming significantly less power than Bluetooth Classic. This results in longer battery life for hearing aid users who stream audio from their phones or other devices. It also enables new features like Auracast broadcast audio.
Question 63: A receiver-in-canal (RIC) hearing aid differs from a traditional BTE primarily in that:
- It only amplifies high frequencies
- It uses analog signal processing
- It requires no ear mold
- The receiver is placed in the ear canal rather than in the housing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The receiver is placed in the ear canal rather than in the housing
In RIC aids, the receiver (speaker) is moved from the BTE housing into the ear canal, connected by a thin electrical wire, reducing size and improving sound quality.
Question 64: Under IHS standards, what is the ethical approach to setting fees for hearing services?
- Specialists may charge more to clients with better insurance without disclosing the difference
- Fee schedules may be changed mid-service without disclosure
- Fees should always be the highest the market will bear
- Fees should be clearly disclosed in advance, reasonable, and not discriminatory or deceptive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fees should be clearly disclosed in advance, reasonable, and not discriminatory or deceptive
IHS ethics require transparent, non-discriminatory fee practices with full disclosure to clients before services are rendered.
Question 65: A patient with bothersome tinnitus is being fitted with hearing aids. Which technology feature may provide additional relief beyond standard amplification?
- Built-in tinnitus sound therapy programs (Correct answer)
- Binaural wireless synchronization
- Frequency compression
- Extended high-frequency amplification
Correct answer: Built-in tinnitus sound therapy programs
Many modern hearing aids include dedicated tinnitus therapy programs that generate masking or soothing sounds to reduce tinnitus perception.
Question 66: A patient requests a copy of their own audiogram and hearing aid records. Under HIPAA, the dispensing practice must:
- Deny the request if the records might confuse the patient
- Charge the patient a flat fee of $50 before releasing any records
- Provide the records only if the patient's physician co-signs the request
- Provide the patient access to their records, typically within 30 days (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Provide the patient access to their records, typically within 30 days
HIPAA's Privacy Rule grants patients the right to access their own medical records. The covered entity must provide access within 30 days (with a possible 30-day extension). While a reasonable cost-based fee for copying may be charged, access cannot be denied based on the practice's judgment about what the patient can understand, and no physician co-signature is required.
Question 67: What does total harmonic distortion (THD) measure in hearing instrument performance?
- The full frequency range of the amplification channels
- The overall gain of the hearing instrument in dB
- The maximum output level of the hearing aid in dB SPL
- The ratio of unwanted harmonic energy to the fundamental frequency energy, expressed as a percentage (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The ratio of unwanted harmonic energy to the fundamental frequency energy, expressed as a percentage
THD quantifies the distortion introduced by a hearing aid by measuring energy in harmonic frequencies relative to the intended fundamental, with lower percentages indicating cleaner, higher-quality amplification.
Question 68: In digital hearing aid processing, what is the primary function of 'channels' as opposed to 'bands'?
- Channels only control the directionality of the microphones.
- Channels and bands are interchangeable terms for the same function.
- Channels allow for the independent operation of features like noise reduction and feedback management across different frequency ranges. (Correct answer)
- Channels are used for manual volume adjustments by the user.
Correct answer: Channels allow for the independent operation of features like noise reduction and feedback management across different frequency ranges.
Channels are distinct frequency ranges where the hearing aid's digital signal processor can apply different algorithms independently. This allows advanced features like noise reduction or feedback cancellation to work in one channel (e.g., a low-frequency noise channel) without affecting another (e.g., a high-frequency speech channel). Bands typically refer to the adjustment 'handles' the professional uses to adjust gain.
Question 69: A patient with severe hearing loss asks about devices that can alert them to sounds in their home environment, such as a doorbell or fire alarm. The specialist should recommend:
- A cochlear implant referral only — no other options exist
- A higher-powered hearing aid with extended bandwidth
- Alerting and signaling assistive listening devices that use visual (flashing lights) or vibrotactile alerts (Correct answer)
- A personal FM system tuned to household frequencies
Correct answer: Alerting and signaling assistive listening devices that use visual (flashing lights) or vibrotactile alerts
Alerting and signaling devices (visual alerting systems) use flashing lights, vibrating pagers, or bed shakers to notify individuals with hearing loss of environmental sounds like doorbells, telephone rings, baby cries, smoke alarms, or alarm clocks. These are an important category of hearing assistive technology (HAT) for people with severe-to-profound loss who may not benefit sufficiently from amplification alone.
Question 70: A patient with bilateral symmetrical mild-to-moderate sensorineural hearing loss requests a monaural fitting to save cost. What should the specialist advise?
- Binaural fitting is strongly recommended for superior localization and speech understanding in noise (Correct answer)
- Cost is the sole factor when choosing between monaural and binaural fitting
- Only the ear with the better word recognition score should be fitted
- Monaural fitting is equally effective for symmetrical losses
Correct answer: Binaural fitting is strongly recommended for superior localization and speech understanding in noise
Binaural fitting provides significantly better sound localization, speech understanding in noise, and overall benefit compared to monaural fitting for symmetrical losses.
Question 71: What is the PRIMARY acoustic advantage of a receiver-in-canal (RIC) instrument over a traditional BTE with earmold?
- Reduced feedback risk due to greater distance between microphone and receiver (Correct answer)
- Longer battery life
- Lower manufacturing cost
- Higher maximum power output
Correct answer: Reduced feedback risk due to greater distance between microphone and receiver
In RIC instruments, the microphone sits behind the ear while the receiver is in the canal, creating greater physical separation that reduces acoustic feedback.
Question 72: During an otoscopic examination prior to taking an ear impression, you observe a small, bony growth deep in the cartilaginous portion of the ear canal. This condition does not appear to be inflamed or causing discomfort. What is the most appropriate course of action?
- Use a smaller otoblock to bypass the growth and achieve a deeper impression.
- Immediately refer the client to a physician for medical clearance before proceeding with the impression.
- Note the presence of the exostosis and proceed with the impression, taking care not to place the otoblock behind the growth. (Correct answer)
- Cancel the appointment and rebook after the client has had the growth surgically removed.
Correct answer: Note the presence of the exostosis and proceed with the impression, taking care not to place the otoblock behind the growth.
Exostoses, or small bony growths, are a relatively common finding. As long as there is no inflammation, infection, or other contraindication, it is acceptable to proceed with the impression. The key is to ensure the otoblock is placed at or just beyond the narrowing to prevent the impression from locking behind it, which could cause discomfort and difficulty upon removal.
Question 73: What does Type A tympanogram indicate?
- Perforated tympanic membrane
- Normal middle ear pressure and compliance (Correct answer)
- Otosclerosis
- Eustachian tube dysfunction
Correct answer: Normal middle ear pressure and compliance
A Type A tympanogram shows peak compliance near 0 daPa with normal peak height, indicating normal middle ear function.
Question 74: In the context of hearing aid programming, 'acclimatization' refers to:
- Adjusting the hearing aid to outdoor temperature changes
- Gradually increasing gain over time to help new users adapt (Correct answer)
- Reducing feedback over the first few weeks of use
- Calibrating the device to a new audiogram
Correct answer: Gradually increasing gain over time to help new users adapt
Acclimatization features start with reduced gain and automatically or manually increase it as the user adjusts to amplification.
Question 75: During audiometric testing, you establish an air-bone gap of 20 dB in the right ear. What does this finding most likely indicate?
- A conductive or mixed hearing loss in the right ear. (Correct answer)
- Normal hearing in the right ear.
- A problem with the auditory nerve on the right side.
- A purely sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear.
Correct answer: A conductive or mixed hearing loss in the right ear.
An air-bone gap occurs when bone conduction thresholds are better (lower) than air conduction thresholds by 15 dB or more. This indicates that sound is not being conducted efficiently through the outer or middle ear, pointing to a conductive component in the hearing loss. If the bone conduction is normal, it's a conductive loss; if the bone conduction also shows a loss, it's a mixed hearing loss.
Question 76: A pediatric patient's parent reports the hearing aid produces feedback only at school but not at home. What environmental factor should be investigated first?
- School has higher humidity
- Classroom batteries differ from home batteries
- The school has FM interference
- Reflective surfaces like classroom walls cause more acoustic feedback (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reflective surfaces like classroom walls cause more acoustic feedback
Hard, reflective classroom walls increase the amount of amplified sound that re-enters the microphone, making feedback more likely in that environment.
Question 77: During pure-tone air conduction audiometry, what is the standard procedure for finding the threshold of hearing after a patient responds to a tone?
- Present the tone at the same level to confirm the response.
- Increase the intensity by 5 dB and present the tone again.
- Decrease the intensity by 10 dB and present the tone again. (Correct answer)
- Move to the next frequency immediately.
Correct answer: Decrease the intensity by 10 dB and present the tone again.
The modified Hughson-Westlake method, a standard procedure for threshold search audiometry, involves decreasing the intensity by 10 dB after a patient response ('down 10') and increasing it by 5 dB after a non-response ('up 5'). This bracketing technique helps to accurately pinpoint the softest level a person can hear approximately 50% of the time.
Question 78: In the context of hearing aid programming, what does 'NAL-NL2' refer to?
- A prescriptive fitting formula developed by the National Acoustic Laboratories of Australia (Correct answer)
- A standardized earmold impression material specification
- A noise-cancellation algorithm developed in Norway
- A Bluetooth protocol for connecting hearing aids to loop systems
Correct answer: A prescriptive fitting formula developed by the National Acoustic Laboratories of Australia
NAL-NL2 (National Acoustic Laboratories Non-Linear version 2) is a widely used prescriptive fitting target that aims to maximize speech intelligibility while maintaining overall loudness comfort.
Question 79: A patient has unilateral profound sensorineural hearing loss with normal hearing in the opposite ear. Which fitting approach is MOST appropriate?
- Binaural RIC instruments
- A high-power ITE on the impaired side
- A CROS or BiCROS system (Correct answer)
- A standard power BTE on the impaired side
Correct answer: A CROS or BiCROS system
CROS systems route sound from the non-aidable ear to the normal or better-hearing ear, allowing the patient to hear sounds originating from their deaf side.
Question 80: What does the term 'open fit' refer to in hearing aid technology?
- A fitting style where the ear canal is not fully occluded (Correct answer)
- A hearing aid with no battery door
- A hearing aid programmed without a target
- An aid with an open-back receiver housing
Correct answer: A fitting style where the ear canal is not fully occluded
Open fit hearing aids use a thin tube or receiver wire with a small dome that leaves the ear canal largely unoccluded, reducing the occlusion effect.
Question 81: A client who frequently attends meetings in a large, reverberant conference room complains of difficulty understanding speakers, even with their new hearing aids. Which of the following technologies would be most beneficial for improving speech clarity in this specific situation?
- Bluetooth streaming from a smartphone
- Increased compression channels
- Advanced feedback cancellation
- A telecoil with a hearing loop system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A telecoil with a hearing loop system
A telecoil receives electromagnetic signals from a hearing loop system, which can be connected to the room's microphone. This delivers the speaker's voice directly to the hearing aids, bypassing the effects of distance, background noise, and reverberation. While other features are useful, the telecoil directly addresses the primary challenges of this environment.
Question 82: During a tinnitus assessment, a specialist uses a procedure called tinnitus pitch matching. The purpose of this procedure is to:
- Measure the loudness of tinnitus in decibels SPL
- Assess whether the tinnitus can be masked by white noise
- Evaluate the patient's psychological distress caused by tinnitus
- Determine the frequency or pitch the patient perceives for their tinnitus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Determine the frequency or pitch the patient perceives for their tinnitus
Tinnitus pitch matching involves presenting pure tones or narrowband noises to the patient and asking them to identify which frequency most closely matches their perceived tinnitus. This helps characterize the tinnitus and can guide sound therapy or masking choices. Loudness matching is a separate, complementary procedure.
Question 83: Which of the following is a primary cause of a hearing aid cutting in and out intermittently, assuming the battery is fresh and the battery door is secure?
- Dirty or corroded battery contacts. (Correct answer)
- The earmold tubing has developed a small crack.
- The hearing aid program has been accidentally changed.
- The volume control is set too low.
Correct answer: Dirty or corroded battery contacts.
Dirty or corroded battery contacts can disrupt the consistent flow of power from the battery to the hearing aid's internal components. This poor electrical connection can cause the hearing aid to lose power intermittently, resulting in the sound cutting in and out. Cleaning the contacts often resolves this issue.
Question 84: The 'open jaw' technique for ear impressions is recommended when fitting patients with:
- Behind-the-ear aids used for active individuals who talk frequently (Correct answer)
- In-the-canal aids where retention is the primary concern
- Telecommunications devices that are worn only in quiet environments
- Severe cerumen impaction
Correct answer: Behind-the-ear aids used for active individuals who talk frequently
Patients who talk or chew frequently cause significant TMJ-related ear canal shape changes; the open-jaw technique captures the ear canal in its most displaced state to prevent feedback and discomfort during use.
Question 85: The occlusion effect is MOST commonly reported by which patient group?
- Patients with high-frequency loss using open-fit instruments
- Patients with good low-frequency hearing wearing occluding earmolds (Correct answer)
- Patients with unilateral loss using CROS systems
- Patients with severe-to-profound loss using power instruments
Correct answer: Patients with good low-frequency hearing wearing occluding earmolds
Patients with intact low-frequency hearing who wear occluding earmolds perceive their own voice as hollow because bone-conducted vocal energy cannot escape the sealed canal.
Question 86: Which audiometric configuration is most consistent with noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)?
- Rising audiogram (better at high frequencies)
- Flat hearing loss across all frequencies
- Low-frequency sloping loss
- Notch at 4000 Hz with recovery at 8000 Hz (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notch at 4000 Hz with recovery at 8000 Hz
Noise-induced hearing loss characteristically presents as a notch at 4000 Hz (sometimes 3000–6000 Hz) with partial recovery at 8000 Hz, reflecting the resonance properties of the ear canal.
Question 87: During case history intake, a patient reports sudden hearing loss in one ear upon waking that morning. The hearing instrument specialist should:
- Schedule a hearing aid evaluation for the following week
- Perform audiometry and fit a CROS hearing aid
- Refer the patient to a physician immediately as this is a medical emergency (Correct answer)
- Advise the patient to return if symptoms worsen in two weeks
Correct answer: Refer the patient to a physician immediately as this is a medical emergency
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss is a medical emergency requiring urgent physician evaluation and possible steroid treatment within 72 hours for best prognosis.
Question 88: A prospective client asks a hearing instrument specialist to guarantee that hearing aids will restore their hearing to normal. What is the ethical response?
- Provide a conditional guarantee based on the device's published performance specs
- Provide the guarantee to secure the sale and adjust expectations after fitting
- Refer the client to an audiologist who can provide such guarantees
- Explain that hearing aids improve hearing but cannot restore normal hearing, and avoid making guarantees (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Explain that hearing aids improve hearing but cannot restore normal hearing, and avoid making guarantees
Making false or misleading guarantees about treatment outcomes violates IHS honesty and advertising standards.
Question 89: When fitting hearing instruments for a professional musician, which consideration is MOST critical during instrument selection?
- Ensuring the instrument handles high SPL input without distortion and includes a music program (Correct answer)
- Selecting the smallest instrument for stage appearance
- Prioritizing maximum output power for loud venues
- Choosing instruments with the longest battery life
Correct answer: Ensuring the instrument handles high SPL input without distortion and includes a music program
Musicians require instruments that process high sound pressure levels without distortion and benefit from dedicated music programs with different compression settings than speech programs.
Question 90: A patient's Most Comfortable Loudness (MCL) level is notably close to their Uncomfortable Loudness Level (UCL), indicating a narrow dynamic range. This finding suggests:
- Recruitment, often associated with cochlear hearing loss (Correct answer)
- Normal loudness growth
- Retrocochlear pathology
- Pseudohypacusis
Correct answer: Recruitment, often associated with cochlear hearing loss
Recruitment is the abnormally rapid growth of loudness in damaged cochleae, narrowing the range between threshold and discomfort, and is characteristic of cochlear (sensorineural) hearing loss.
Question 91: During troubleshooting, you notice corrosion on the battery contacts of a hearing aid. What is the recommended corrective action?
- Clean contacts with a dry cotton swab or special contact cleaner, then test (Correct answer)
- Replace the entire hearing aid
- Apply a drop of oil to prevent further corrosion
- Increase battery voltage to compensate
Correct answer: Clean contacts with a dry cotton swab or special contact cleaner, then test
Corroded battery contacts should be cleaned with a dry swab or approved contact cleaner to restore proper electrical connection before replacing the device.
Question 92: A specialist is offered a free vacation by a hearing aid manufacturer in exchange for recommending only their products. What is the ethical response?
- Accept and disclose the arrangement to clients if asked
- Accept if the manufacturer's products are clinically appropriate for most clients
- Decline, as accepting gifts that influence clinical recommendations violates professional independence (Correct answer)
- Accept only if the value of the trip is under $500
Correct answer: Decline, as accepting gifts that influence clinical recommendations violates professional independence
Accepting incentives that compromise independent clinical judgment is a conflict of interest prohibited by IHS ethics.
Question 93: Which noise is best for masking during pure tone air and bone conduction testing?
- Air conduction
- Narrow band noise (Correct answer)
- White noise
- Pulsating pure tone
Correct answer: Narrow band noise
During pure tone air and bone conduction testing, narrow band noise is often considered the most effective for masking. Narrow band noise is a type of noise that has a relatively narrow bandwidth, centered around a specific frequency. This noise type is used in masking to effectively cover up or mask the test ear during audiometric testing, particularly when testing air and bone conduction thresholds. It is selected to match the frequency being tested, ensuring that the sounds presented to the non-test ear do not interfere with the thresholds being measured in the test ear.
Question 94: What is the purpose of masking during pure-tone audiometry?
- To reduce ambient noise in the test booth
- To prevent the non-test ear from responding to cross-heard signals (Correct answer)
- To amplify the test signal in the test ear
- To calibrate the audiometer before testing
Correct answer: To prevent the non-test ear from responding to cross-heard signals
Masking introduces narrow-band noise to the non-test ear to prevent it from detecting signals intended for the test ear via cross-hearing.
Question 95: Which of the following describes the function of a digital noise reduction (DNR) algorithm in hearing aids?
- It filters out sounds louder than 85 dB SPL to prevent damage
- It reduces gain in channels identified as containing primarily non-speech noise (Correct answer)
- It eliminates all background sound signals below 1000 Hz
- It removes electrical interference from nearby electronic devices
Correct answer: It reduces gain in channels identified as containing primarily non-speech noise
DNR algorithms detect channels with unfavorable speech-to-noise ratios and reduce gain in those channels to improve listening comfort, though they do not improve speech recognition scores.
Question 96: A client with a history of chronic ear infections mentions that their ear feels full and asks the hearing instrument specialist to 'flush it out' with water. What is the most ethically and professionally appropriate action for the specialist to take?
- Advise the client to purchase an over-the-counter earwax removal kit and return in one week.
- Explain that while it might be wax, you can only perform a dry removal with a curette.
- Use an otoscope to confirm it is just cerumen before attempting a gentle lavage.
- Refer the client to a physician for a medical evaluation of the ear. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Refer the client to a physician for a medical evaluation of the ear.
The client's history of chronic ear infections is a contraindication for water-based cerumen removal (lavage). Furthermore, a feeling of fullness could indicate a medical issue beyond simple cerumen impaction. The most appropriate and safest course of action is to refer the client to a physician for diagnosis and treatment, staying within the professional scope of practice.
Question 97: A patient using a body-worn FM receiver with their hearing aids via direct audio input (DAI) asks why they still hear background noise. The most likely explanation is:
- The hearing aid microphones remain active in most configurations, mixing local sound with the FM signal (Correct answer)
- The FM transmitter is not compatible with the hearing aid brand
- The hearing aid's telecoil is overriding the FM input
- DAI deactivates the hearing aid microphones automatically during FM use
Correct answer: The hearing aid microphones remain active in most configurations, mixing local sound with the FM signal
Unless programmed to microphone-off mode, hearing aid microphones typically remain active during DAI/FM use, allowing the patient to hear both the remote FM signal and surrounding environmental sounds.
Question 98: The occlusion effect is most significant at which frequencies?
- Ultra-high frequencies above 6000 Hz
- Low frequencies (250–500 Hz) (Correct answer)
- High frequencies (2000–4000 Hz)
- Mid frequencies (1000 Hz)
Correct answer: Low frequencies (250–500 Hz)
The occlusion effect predominantly enhances bone-conduction thresholds at low frequencies (250–500 Hz) by increasing the sound pressure in the occluded ear canal.
Question 99: What do equal loudness contours (Fletcher-Munson curves) demonstrate about human hearing?
- Louder sounds are always perceived as occurring at higher frequencies
- Hearing loss affects all frequencies by the same number of decibels
- The ear's perceived loudness varies with both frequency and sound intensity level (Correct answer)
- The ear is equally sensitive to all frequencies at every intensity level
Correct answer: The ear's perceived loudness varies with both frequency and sound intensity level
Equal loudness contours show that the human ear's sensitivity is not flat; it is most sensitive around 1,000–4,000 Hz and requires substantially more intensity at very low and very high frequencies to achieve the same perceived loudness.
Question 100: Which outcome measure is specifically designed to assess hearing aid benefit in four listening situations important to the patient?
- IOI-HA (International Outcome Inventory for Hearing Aids)
- HHIE (Hearing Handicap Inventory for the Elderly)
- COSI (Client Oriented Scale of Improvement)
- APHAB (Abbreviated Profile of Hearing Aid Benefit) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: APHAB (Abbreviated Profile of Hearing Aid Benefit)
The APHAB measures benefit across four subscales: Ease of Communication, Background Noise, Reverberation, and Aversiveness of Sound.
Question 101: Digital feedback suppression (DFS) systems in hearing aids work by:
- Switching the aid to telecoil mode automatically
- Blocking all microphone input above 4000 Hz
- Reducing overall gain across all frequencies
- Detecting and canceling the feedback signal before it becomes audible (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Detecting and canceling the feedback signal before it becomes audible
DFS algorithms continuously monitor the output signal, identify feedback paths, and apply an out-of-phase cancellation signal to eliminate whistling before it is perceived.
Question 102: A hearing instrument specialist notices that a competitor is making false claims about their product's clinical effectiveness. What is the ethical response?
- Refrain from making false counter-claims and consider reporting the misleading advertising to the appropriate regulatory body (Correct answer)
- Ignore the situation since competitor behavior is not your responsibility
- Publicly criticize the competitor by name in your own advertising
- Make counter-claims to compete effectively in the market
Correct answer: Refrain from making false counter-claims and consider reporting the misleading advertising to the appropriate regulatory body
IHS ethics prohibit retaliating with false claims and support reporting dishonest advertising through proper regulatory channels.
Question 103: According to federal regulations enforced by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), what is required regarding the trial or adjustment period for hearing aids?
- The full terms of the trial period, including any non-refundable fees, must be clearly disclosed in writing before the sale. (Correct answer)
- A mandatory 30-day trial period must be offered for all dispensed hearing aids.
- Sellers are prohibited from charging any fees if the hearing aid is returned during the trial period.
- Any non-refundable fees can be no more than 10% of the total purchase price.
Correct answer: The full terms of the trial period, including any non-refundable fees, must be clearly disclosed in writing before the sale.
While many states mandate a trial period of a specific length, there is no single federal law that sets a mandatory trial period for all sales. However, the FTC's role in consumer protection requires that if a seller offers a trial or return period, all terms and conditions—especially any non-refundable costs like dispensing or fitting fees—must be provided in writing to the consumer before the purchase is finalized to prevent deceptive sales practices.
Question 104: A hearing professional posts a photo on their personal, private social media account. The photo shows them celebrating a successful fitting with a client, whose back is to the camera but whose distinctive tattoo is visible. The post text says, 'So happy for my client who can hear his grandkids clearly now!' This action is:
- Acceptable, because the client's face is not visible and the account is private.
- Acceptable, as it is considered positive marketing for the practice.
- Unethical only if another user recognizes the client from the tattoo and comments on the post.
- Unethical, because it shares a client's story without express written consent, which is a breach of confidentiality. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Unethical, because it shares a client's story without express written consent, which is a breach of confidentiality.
Under HIPAA and professional ethics codes, any information that can potentially identify a patient is considered Protected Health Information (PHI). A distinctive tattoo, combined with the context of the post, could lead to identification. Sharing any client information or images on social media without explicit, written authorization is a serious breach of confidentiality, regardless of privacy settings or whether a name is used.
Question 105: What does a 'shadow curve' on an audiogram indicate?
- Calibration error in the audiometer
- Presence of a conductive hearing loss
- The non-test ear responding to stimuli meant for the test ear (Correct answer)
- Normal hearing in both ears
Correct answer: The non-test ear responding to stimuli meant for the test ear
A shadow curve appears when the non-test ear responds to cross-heard signals, mimicking the test ear's response and giving falsely better thresholds.
Question 106: A patient with bilateral hearing loss reports that their family frequently complains about the TV volume. Which counseling strategy best addresses this communication barrier?
- Advise the family to use written notes
- Prescribe a second hearing aid only
- Recommend a TV listening device and discuss volume compromise strategies (Correct answer)
- Suggest the patient move closer to the TV
Correct answer: Recommend a TV listening device and discuss volume compromise strategies
A TV listening device allows the patient to hear at their preferred volume while others listen at a normal level, directly resolving the conflict.
Question 107: A hearing aid wearer reports a high-pitched whistling sound whenever they hug someone or put on a hat. This is a classic example of acoustic feedback. Modern digital hearing aids primarily manage this issue through:
- Phase inversion or phase cancellation. (Correct answer)
- Using a smaller, more occluding dome.
- Lowering the overall volume of the device.
- Activating the telecoil.
Correct answer: Phase inversion or phase cancellation.
Modern feedback cancellation systems use digital signal processing to detect the feedback sound almost instantly. The system then generates an opposite sound wave (phase inversion) to cancel out the whistling noise before it becomes audible to the wearer. While a poor fit can cause feedback, the active technological solution within the hearing aid is phase cancellation.
Question 108: During immittance testing, the probe tone frequency used in standard clinical tympanometry for adults is:
- 678 Hz
- 226 Hz (Correct answer)
- 2000 Hz
- 1000 Hz
Correct answer: 226 Hz
A 226 Hz probe tone is the standard frequency used for adult tympanometry because it is sensitive to middle ear pressure changes in the adult ear.
Question 109: During a hearing aid fitting verification, the functional gain measurement is performed by comparing:
- Audiogram and loudness scaling scores
- REIG and REUG
- Aided and unaided soundfield thresholds (Correct answer)
- Real-ear and 2-cc coupler responses
Correct answer: Aided and unaided soundfield thresholds
Functional gain is the difference in dB between unaided and aided soundfield pure-tone thresholds, measuring how much audibility the hearing aid adds.
Question 110: The ANSI/ASA S3.22 standard is used to measure and report:
- Electroacoustic characteristics of hearing aids (Correct answer)
- Audiometric booth acoustic specifications
- Real-ear measurement probe tube dimensions
- Calibration standards for audiometers
Correct answer: Electroacoustic characteristics of hearing aids
ANSI/ASA S3.22 specifies the test methods and electroacoustic measurements—such as OSPL90, full-on gain, and THD—used to characterize hearing aid performance.
Question 111: Which audiometric finding MOST strongly indicates a physician referral BEFORE proceeding with instrument selection?
- Bilateral symmetrical high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss in a 70-year-old
- Unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss of 50 dB occurring within 72 hours (Correct answer)
- Gradual bilateral progressive hearing loss over 10 years
- Mild bilateral hearing loss with excellent word recognition scores
Correct answer: Unilateral sudden sensorineural hearing loss of 50 dB occurring within 72 hours
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss is a medical emergency requiring immediate physician referral for possible corticosteroid treatment to maximize hearing recovery.
Question 112: A patient reports their hearing aid whistles whenever someone gives them a close hug. This is MOST likely due to:
- Acoustic feedback caused by amplified sound re-entering the microphone during close contact (Correct answer)
- A defective telecoil component
- Insufficient battery voltage
- Excessive noise reduction algorithm activation
Correct answer: Acoustic feedback caused by amplified sound re-entering the microphone during close contact
Close contact places objects near the microphone while the receiver outputs amplified sound, creating a feedback loop when that sound leaks back to the microphone.
Question 113: The TELEGRAM approach to communication strategies emphasizes that T stands for:
- Tone of voice adjustment
- Turning toward the listener
- Topic—informing the listener about the subject before speaking (Correct answer)
- Testing the hearing aid before speaking
Correct answer: Topic—informing the listener about the subject before speaking
In the TELEGRAM approach, T = Topic: announcing the conversation topic helps the listener with hearing loss use contextual cues to follow along.
Question 114: Which audiometric configuration is classically associated with noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL)?
- Flat configuration across all frequencies
- Rising configuration with better high-frequency thresholds
- Profound loss across all frequencies above 1,000 Hz
- Notch at 4,000 Hz with better thresholds at adjacent frequencies (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Notch at 4,000 Hz with better thresholds at adjacent frequencies
Noise-induced hearing loss characteristically produces a notch (threshold dip) at 4,000 Hz, with recovery at 8,000 Hz, due to the cochlear resonance response to hazardous noise.
Question 115: High frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL 90) refers to:
- average sound pressure level at 90 hz.
- high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 180 db Spl input.
- saturation sound pressure level at 90 db spl.
- high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input.
High Frequency Average SSPL 90 (HFA SSPL 90) refers to the high frequency average saturation sound pressure level with a 90 dB SPL input. This measurement indicates the average output level of a hearing aid for high-frequency sounds when the input level is set at 90 dB SPL. It is an important specification used to evaluate the performance and effectiveness of hearing aids, particularly in amplifying high-frequency sounds for individuals with hearing loss in those ranges.
NBC-HIS National Competency Exam
The NBC-HIS National Competency Examination (NCE) certifies hearing instrument specialists, assessing their competency across five domains essential to fitting and dispensing hearing instruments.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds