Question 1: You hear: 'The fire exit is NOT behind the stage. It is on the west wall, between the storeroom and the main entrance.' On a simple floor plan, where should you mark the fire exit?

• On the west wall, between the storeroom and main entrance (Correct answer)
• Behind the stage on the east side
• Adjacent to the main entrance on the east wall
• On the north wall opposite the stage

Correct answer: On the west wall, between the storeroom and main entrance

The speaker explicitly corrects a misconception and places the fire exit on the west wall between the storeroom and the main entrance.

Question 2: How is IELTS Academic Reading different from IELTS General Training Reading?

• General Training is harder than Academic
• Academic Reading includes listening tasks
• Academic has 4 passages; General Training has 3
• Academic texts are more complex and drawn from academic sources; General Training uses more everyday texts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Academic texts are more complex and drawn from academic sources; General Training uses more everyday texts

Academic Reading uses complex texts from academic journals and books; General Training uses more practical, everyday texts.

Question 3: A test-taker finds two headings that seem very similar in meaning. What is the recommended strategy in this situation?

• Analyze the subtle differences in meaning between the two headings and how they relate to the paragraph's main focus. (Correct answer)
• Leave the paragraph and come back to it only after matching all other paragraphs.
• Choose one at random and move on to save time.
• Select the heading that is shorter and seems more general.

Correct answer: Analyze the subtle differences in meaning between the two headings and how they relate to the paragraph's main focus.

When headings appear similar, it is important to carefully analyze the nuances and subtle differences in their meanings. The correct heading will more precisely capture the entire paragraph's main idea, while the incorrect one might only relate to a part of it or have a slightly different focus.

Question 4: You hear: 'The price includes breakfast but not lunch or dinner.' The notes say: Meals included: ___. What should be written?

• lunch
• breakfast (Correct answer)
• all meals
• dinner

Correct answer: breakfast

Only breakfast is explicitly included in the price.

Question 5: Map labelling: 'Facing the school entrance, the science block is on your far left. The gymnasium is directly opposite the entrance. The art room is between the gymnasium and the science block.' Where is the art room?

• Between the gymnasium and the science block (Correct answer)
• To the right of the entrance
• Directly opposite the science block
• Adjacent to the entrance on the right

Correct answer: Between the gymnasium and the science block

The speaker places the art room between the gymnasium (directly opposite entrance) and the science block (far left).

Question 6: Two maps show a village in 1985 and today. A road now runs where there used to be a river. The best description is:

• The river replaces the road.
• The river has been replaced by a road. (Correct answer)
• The road replaced by a river.
• A road was replacing the river.

Correct answer: The river has been replaced by a road.

When describing a change on a map that extends to the present, the present perfect passive ('has been replaced') is appropriate.

Question 7: What type of texts appear in the Academic Reading section?

• Academic books, journals, and magazines (Correct answer)
• Personal letters
• Advertisements and notices
• Workplace handbooks

Correct answer: Academic books, journals, and magazines

Academic Reading uses passages from books, journals, and magazines suited to a degree environment.

Question 8: In an IELTS Writing Task 2 opinion essay, which of the following is the most crucial function of the introduction paragraph?

• To define key terms from the essay prompt to demonstrate vocabulary.
• To paraphrase the question and clearly state the author's opinion (thesis statement). (Correct answer)
• To provide detailed examples that will be discussed later.
• To present a counter-argument and immediately refute it.

Correct answer: To paraphrase the question and clearly state the author's opinion (thesis statement).

The primary role of the introduction in an opinion essay is to show the examiner you understand the question by paraphrasing it and to clearly present your main argument or position in a thesis statement. This sets the direction for the entire essay.

Question 9: Which of the following is a Band 7+ way to introduce personal opinion in Part 3?

• 'My opinion is…'
• 'For my part, I'm of the view that… though I recognise this is a contested issue.' (Correct answer)
• 'I believe my opinion is correct.'
• 'I think…'

Correct answer: 'For my part, I'm of the view that… though I recognise this is a contested issue.'

'For my part' and 'I'm of the view that' are high-register opinion phrases; acknowledging contestation shows intellectual honesty.

Question 10: You hear: 'The workshop is in room 3B — on the ground floor, not the third floor.' The notes say: Room: ___. What should be written?

• 3rd floor
• 3B (Correct answer)
• Ground floor
• B3

Correct answer: 3B

The room number is 3B; the mention of 'third floor' is what it is NOT on.

Question 11: Choose the correct preposition: 'The new policy has had a positive impact ______ local employment rates.'

• at
• on (Correct answer)
• for
• in

Correct answer: on

'Impact on' is the standard prepositional collocation — you have an impact ON something.

Question 12: You will hear a university tutor and a student discussing a presentation. The student is concerned about the time limit. What is the final agreed-upon length for the presentation?

• 20 minutes
• 10-15 minutes
• Exactly 15 minutes
• 15-20 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15-20 minutes

In the dialogue, the student initially suggests 20 minutes, but the tutor says that is too long. The student then asks about 10 minutes, which the tutor feels is too short. They finally agree on a range, with the tutor stating, 'Let's aim for a happy medium. 15 to 20 minutes should be sufficient.' This makes '15-20 minutes' the specific, correct piece of information.

Question 13: Most spending has a______________________ effect on the environment.

• positive
• negative (Correct answer)

Correct answer: negative

The passage likely presents a general economic principle that consumption and production typically lead to environmental degradation. This statement reflects a broader ecological perspective, implying that most human economic activity, or 'spending,' has a detrimental effect on the environment.

Question 14: A passage states: 'Organic farming uses no synthetic pesticides.' A statement reads: 'Organic farmers sometimes use natural pesticides.' What is the answer?

• TRUE
• YES
• NOT GIVEN (Correct answer)
• FALSE

Correct answer: NOT GIVEN

The passage only says no synthetic pesticides are used — it does not address whether natural pesticides are used.

Question 15: Which of the following is a key characteristic of the list of headings provided in this IELTS task type?

• The number of headings is always equal to the number of paragraphs.
• There are always more headings than paragraphs. (Correct answer)
• Headings are listed in the same order as the paragraphs they correspond to.
• The headings use the exact same vocabulary as the paragraphs.

Correct answer: There are always more headings than paragraphs.

In the 'Matching Headings' task, the list of headings will always contain more options than the number of paragraphs that need a heading. This is a core feature of the question type, meaning some headings will not be used.

Question 16: You hear: 'Your booking reference is GH-four-seven-two.' The form asks: Reference code: ___. What should be written?

• GH742
• GH427
• GH274
• GH472 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: GH472

The speaker says 'GH-four-seven-two', which is GH472 in alphanumeric form.

Question 17: You hear: 'The course code is ENG-204B.' The enrolment form asks: Course code: ___. What should be written?

• ENG-204B (Correct answer)
• ENG-402B
• ENG-240B
• ENG-204D

Correct answer: ENG-204B

The code ENG-204B is stated directly and unambiguously.

Question 18: Identify the adverbial clause of time: 'Call me when you arrive.'

• when you arrive (Correct answer)
• you arrive call
• me when you
• Call me

Correct answer: when you arrive

'When you arrive' is an adverbial clause telling when to call.

Question 19: Map labelling: 'Exit the station and turn right. Walk past the post office on your left. Cross at the traffic lights, then turn left. The hotel is the second building on your right.' Where is the hotel?

• Left side past the traffic lights
• Second building on the right after turning left at the lights (Correct answer)
• Opposite the post office
• First building on the right after the traffic lights

Correct answer: Second building on the right after turning left at the lights

Following all directions: exit, right, past post office, cross lights, turn left, second building on right.

Question 20: Which conclusion correctly summarises a 'discuss both views' essay without introducing new ideas?

• In conclusion, governments should ban fast food because obesity is rising rapidly across the world.
• In conclusion, there are many views about fast food and this is a complicated issue with no easy answer.
• In conclusion, while some believe fast food bans protect public health, others prioritise individual freedom; on balance, education campaigns are a more practical approach. (Correct answer)
• In conclusion, I have discussed both sides of the argument in detail in the body paragraphs above.

Correct answer: In conclusion, while some believe fast food bans protect public health, others prioritise individual freedom; on balance, education campaigns are a more practical approach.

Option A restates both views, signals a balanced stance, and summarises the writer's position without introducing new arguments.

Question 21: Passage: 'Rainforest deforestation not only destroys habitat for wildlife but also disrupts the water cycle, leading to changes in regional rainfall patterns.' Sentence to complete: Cutting down rainforests affects more than wildlife — it also disturbs the water cycle and alters ___ patterns.

• sunlight
• wind
• rainfall (Correct answer)
• temperature

Correct answer: rainfall

'Changes in regional rainfall patterns' directly becomes 'alters rainfall patterns'.

Question 22: Roughly how much of your 60-minute Writing test should be spent on Task 2?

• About 60 minutes
• About 40 minutes (Correct answer)
• About 20 minutes
• About 10 minutes

Correct answer: About 40 minutes

Task 2 is worth twice as much as Task 1, so allow around 40 minutes for it.

Question 23: Which of the following best shows that you understand the overall development of an area when writing about maps?

• Listing every single change alphabetically
• Describing only the changes that you find most interesting
• Copying the instructions and adding 'the map shows this clearly'
• Stating whether the area has become more urbanised, more developed, or has declined overall (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stating whether the area has become more urbanised, more developed, or has declined overall

Identifying the macro-trend (urbanisation, development, decline) in your overview shows you understand the big picture, which is key for Task Achievement.

Question 24: You hear: 'The shortlisted candidates will be contacted by email by the end of this week. Unsuccessful applicants will receive a letter within four weeks. Please do not contact the office — we will reach out to you.' How will shortlisted candidates be contacted?

• By letter within four weeks
• By email by the end of the week (Correct answer)
• By visiting the office
• By phone call

Correct answer: By email by the end of the week

Shortlisted candidates will be contacted by email by the end of the week.

Question 25: A phone message says: 'Your parcel could not be delivered today because no one was home. It is now being held at the depot on Crane Street, NOT at your local post office. You must collect it by Friday.' Where is the parcel?

• Returned to the sender
• At the local post office
• At the depot on Crane Street (Correct answer)
• Being redelivered tomorrow

Correct answer: At the depot on Crane Street

The message explicitly says the parcel is at the depot on Crane Street, not at the local post office.

Question 26: You hear: 'For the city tour, Bus A goes north along the river, stopping at the castle and cathedral. Bus B goes east through the market district, stopping at the old town hall.' A tourist wants to visit the cathedral. Which bus should they take?

• Bus B, eastbound through market district
• Bus A, northbound along the river (Correct answer)
• Neither bus stops at the cathedral
• Either bus — both stop at the cathedral

Correct answer: Bus A, northbound along the river

Bus A goes north along the river and stops at the castle and cathedral.

Question 27: Choose the correct heading for Paragraph A

• The environmental costs of manufacture and installation.
• The size and output of the largest type of micro-turbine. (Correct answer)
• A better use for large sums of money.

Correct answer: The size and output of the largest type of micro-turbine.

Paragraph A likely introduces micro-turbines by describing their physical characteristics and power generation capabilities, especially for the largest models. This heading accurately captures an introductory description of the technology's scale and performance, making it the best fit for a paragraph focused on 'size and output'.

Question 28: A passage states: 'Deforestation rates have declined in Brazil since 2004.' A statement reads: 'Brazil has completely stopped deforestation.' What is the answer?

• NOT GIVEN
• CANNOT SAY
• TRUE
• FALSE (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FALSE

The passage says rates declined — not that deforestation stopped entirely. The statement is FALSE.

Question 29: Which is a key technique in Reading Comprehension?

• Minor detail in Reading Comprehension.
• Complex aspect of Reading Comprehension.
• Useful strategy for Reading Comprehension. (Correct answer)
• Technique related to Reading Comprehension.

Correct answer: Useful strategy for Reading Comprehension.

Effective reading comprehension relies on employing various useful strategies, such as skimming, scanning, identifying main ideas, making inferences, and summarizing. These techniques help readers actively engage with the text, extract relevant information, and construct meaning efficiently. Without such strategies, comprehension can be superficial or incomplete.

Question 30: It is likely that some psychologists are no better than anyone else at assessing personality.

• NOT GIVEN
• NO
• YES (Correct answer)

Correct answer: YES

The passage highlights the inherent difficulties and lack of definitive, widely applicable methods in personality assessment, even for trained psychologists. It suggests that the field is so complex and subjective that, in many instances, the judgments of an expert may not be demonstrably superior to those of an untrained individual. This directly supports the idea that some psychologists might not be better than anyone else at this task.

Question 31: Which sentence best demonstrates abstract noun use in Part 3?

• 'The proliferation of digital media has had a profound impact on social cohesion in many societies.' (Correct answer)
• 'Many things happen because of the internet.'
• 'School is where learning happens and students study.'
• 'People are educated and they learn things at school.'

Correct answer: 'The proliferation of digital media has had a profound impact on social cohesion in many societies.'

Abstract nouns ('proliferation', 'social cohesion') and formal vocabulary ('profound impact') are Band 7+ lexical resource features.

Question 32: Passage: 'Artificial intelligence systems learn from vast datasets, identifying patterns that allow them to make predictions or decisions without being explicitly programmed to do so.' Sentence to complete: AI systems can make predictions by recognising ___ in large sets of data rather than following direct programming.

• errors
• instructions
• patterns (Correct answer)
• trends

Correct answer: patterns

'Identifying patterns' is used in the passage to describe how AI learns.

Question 33: Which grammar feature is LEAST likely to be needed in a typical Part 1 answer?

• Present simple
• Present perfect
• Third conditional ('If I had known, I would have done…') (Correct answer)
• Past simple

Correct answer: Third conditional ('If I had known, I would have done…')

Third conditionals (unreal past) rarely arise in personal, present-tense Part 1 topics; they belong more naturally in Part 3 discussions.

Question 34: What is the speaker’s attitude towards listening comprehension?

• The speaker believes listening comprehension is a difficult skill to master.
• The speaker suggests listening comprehension is not important.
• The speaker thinks listening comprehension is crucial for success in English learning. (Correct answer)
• The speaker thinks listening comprehension is easy to develop.

Correct answer: The speaker thinks listening comprehension is crucial for success in English learning.

The speaker's attitude is their underlying feeling or opinion about the topic. If the passage focuses on strategies for *improving* listening comprehension and emphasizes consistent practice, it strongly implies that the speaker views this skill as highly important and essential for overall success in language acquisition. This positive and emphatic stance indicates its perceived critical role.

Question 35: What is wrong with using 'Firstly, secondly, thirdly, fourthly...' as the only cohesive device in a Task 2 essay?

• Using more than two numbered points lowers the Task Achievement score
• These words can only be used in process diagrams, not essays
• It becomes mechanical and repetitive, suggesting a limited range of cohesive devices (Correct answer)
• Numbering arguments is grammatically incorrect in academic writing

Correct answer: It becomes mechanical and repetitive, suggesting a limited range of cohesive devices

Overusing numeral linkers signals a limited vocabulary for cohesion; high-scoring essays use a variety of cohesive devices (pronouns, synonyms, discourse markers).

Question 36: In a problem-solution essay about youth unemployment, which is the best thesis statement?

• Some people think youth unemployment is a problem, while others disagree.
• Youth unemployment is a big problem and this essay will talk about it.
• Youth unemployment is caused by laziness and lack of skills.
• This essay will examine the principal causes of youth unemployment and propose several measures that governments and businesses could adopt to resolve this growing issue. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: This essay will examine the principal causes of youth unemployment and propose several measures that governments and businesses could adopt to resolve this growing issue.

A strong thesis clearly signals the essay's structure (causes + solutions), uses formal vocabulary, and avoids both vague language and overly simplistic claims.

Question 37: Which sequencing phrase implies that a stage happens immediately after the previous one?

• As a result of this
• In spite of this
• On the other hand
• Immediately afterwards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately afterwards

'Immediately afterwards' signals that the next stage follows without delay, which is more precise than general sequencing words.

Question 38: You hear: 'Please note the ticket price has risen to thirty-two pounds fifty.' The form asks: Ticket price: £___. What should be written?

• 32.50 (Correct answer)
• 23.50
• 30.50
• 32.00

Correct answer: 32.50

Thirty-two pounds fifty = £32.50.

Question 39: Map labelling: 'The factory complex has four buildings. Building A is nearest the main road. Building B is directly behind Building A. Building C is to the left of Building B when facing the main road, and Building D is to the right of Building B.' Where is Building C?

• To the right of Building B
• Nearest the main road
• To the left of Building B when facing the main road (Correct answer)
• Directly behind Building A

Correct answer: To the left of Building B when facing the main road

The speaker says Building C is to the left of Building B when facing the main road.

Question 40: When preparing for the 'Matching Headings' task, what does the strategy of 'paraphrasing the headings' primarily involve?

• Translating the headings into your native language for better understanding.
• Rewriting each heading to be longer and more detailed.
• Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading. (Correct answer)
• Finding the exact heading phrase somewhere within the reading passage.

Correct answer: Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading.

Paraphrasing the headings involves thinking about the core meaning and considering synonyms or alternative phrasing. This is crucial because the text will likely use different words to express the same idea presented in the heading.

Question 41: In a process diagram, the phrase 'once the material has dried' signals:

• A contrast between two different materials
• The final step in the whole process
• A completed prerequisite condition before the next stage can occur (Correct answer)
• Two simultaneous stages happening at the same time

Correct answer: A completed prerequisite condition before the next stage can occur

'Once + present perfect' ('has dried') signals that drying must be complete before the following stage, establishing a clear prerequisite.

Question 42: In an IELTS Matching Headings task, what should a heading primarily capture about a paragraph?

• The main idea or central topic (Correct answer)
• An example mentioned in the paragraph
• A single supporting detail
• The first sentence verbatim

Correct answer: The main idea or central topic

Headings summarise the main idea, not minor details.

Question 43: Choose the correct heading for Paragraph A

• Acknowledgement of the need for improvement in personality assessment
• The need for a different kind of research into personality assessment
• The need for personality assessments to be welhjudged
• Success and failure in establishing an approach to personality assessment
• The consequences of poor personality assessment
• Overall theories of personality assessment rather than valuable guidance
• Differing views on the importance of personality assessment
• Little progress towards a widely applicable approach to personality assessment
• Everyone makes personality assessments (Correct answer)
• The advantage of an intuitive approach to personality assessment

Correct answer: Everyone makes personality assessments

The correct answer is F) Everyone makes personality assessments. This heading suggests that Paragraph A likely introduces the concept of personality assessment as a universal human activity, something people do constantly in their daily interactions. The paragraph would probably discuss how individuals naturally form judgments about others' personalities.

Question 44: Passage: 'Despite being one of the driest continents, Australia receives substantial rainfall in its tropical north, supporting lush rainforests in regions such as Queensland.' Summary to complete: Although much of Australia is arid, its northern tropical regions experience significant ___ that sustains rainforest vegetation.

• sunlight
• humidity
• irrigation
• rainfall (Correct answer)

Correct answer: rainfall

'Substantial rainfall' is paraphrased as 'significant rainfall'.

Question 45: Passage: 'The human brain's neuroplasticity — its ability to form new neural connections in response to learning and experience — means that cognitive abilities can continue to develop throughout life.' Sentence to complete: Because the brain can form ___ connections in response to new experiences, learning can occur at any age.

• chemical
• electrical
• physical
• neural (Correct answer)

Correct answer: neural

'New neural connections' is used directly in the passage.

Question 46: Which sentence correctly uses 'a significant rise'?

• Tourism rose a significant.
• There was a significantly rise in tourism.
• There was a significant rise in tourism. (Correct answer)
• Tourism significant rise.

Correct answer: There was a significant rise in tourism.

'A significant rise' is adjective + noun in correct order.

Question 47: Passage: 'Traditional fishing methods are being replaced by industrial-scale trawling, which catches enormous quantities of fish but causes significant damage to the ocean floor and marine ecosystems.' Summary to complete: Industrial trawling is displacing traditional fishing, but it damages ___ ecosystems and the seabed on a large scale.

• freshwater
• marine (Correct answer)
• river
• coastal

Correct answer: marine

'Marine ecosystems' is the exact term used in the passage.

Question 48: What is the purpose of the speaker’s recommendation?

• To suggest that listening is only useful for academic purposes.
• To emphasize the need for more speaking practice.
• To explain why listening comprehension is not important.
• To encourage consistent listening practice for improvement. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To encourage consistent listening practice for improvement.

The purpose of a recommendation is the underlying goal or desired outcome the speaker aims to achieve by offering advice. If the speaker is recommending consistent listening practice, their intention is to motivate the audience to regularly engage in this activity, thereby leading to a measurable enhancement in their listening comprehension skills over time. This directly supports the passage's focus on improvement strategies.

Question 49: What is the key difference between True/False/Not Given and Yes/No/Not Given questions?

• There is no difference — they are identical
• T/F/NG uses a passage; Y/N/NG uses a graph
• T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims (Correct answer)
• Y/N/NG is harder than T/F/NG

Correct answer: T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims

T/F/NG tests factual information; Y/N/NG tests whether statements agree with the writer's views or claims.

Question 50: Which groups of candidates typically take the IELTS Academic test?

• Those applying for work visas
• Those applying for vocational training programs
• Those immigrating to English-speaking countries
• Those seeking higher education admission or professional registration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Those seeking higher education admission or professional registration

IELTS Academic is designed for candidates applying to undergraduate or postgraduate programmes and for professional registration (e.g., nurses, doctors).

Question 51: Passage: 'The increasing use of pesticides has been linked to the decline of bee populations worldwide, which poses a serious threat to global food production given bees' role as pollinators.' Sentence to complete: Because bees ___ crops, their declining numbers due to pesticide use could endanger global food supplies.

• pollinate (Correct answer)
• protect
• irrigate
• cultivate

Correct answer: pollinate

Bees' role as 'pollinators' means they pollinate crops.

Question 52: A passage says: 'The number of electric vehicles sold globally doubled between 2018 and 2020.' A statement reads: 'Fewer electric vehicles were sold in 2020 than in 2018.' What is the answer?

• TRUE
• CANNOT SAY
• FALSE (Correct answer)
• NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: FALSE

Doubled means more were sold in 2020, not fewer — direct contradiction, so FALSE.

Question 53: You hear: 'The insurance excess is two hundred and fifty pounds.' The policy form asks: Excess: £___. What should be written?

• 250 (Correct answer)
• 215
• 200
• 205

Correct answer: 250

Two hundred and fifty = 250.

Question 54: A candidate wants to speculate about future trends in Part 3. Which phrase is most appropriate?

• 'I predict with certainty that…'
• 'It seems plausible that… as long as current trends continue.' (Correct answer)
• 'Nobody knows what will happen.'
• 'In the future, it will definitely happen.'

Correct answer: 'It seems plausible that… as long as current trends continue.'

'It seems plausible that' and the conditional 'as long as' show appropriate epistemic caution and hedging in speculative discussion.

Question 55: A passage discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health but does not mention yoga specifically. A statement says: 'Yoga is beneficial for mental health.' What is the answer?

• NOT GIVEN (Correct answer)
• TRUE
• YES
• FALSE

Correct answer: NOT GIVEN

The passage discusses exercise generally but does not specifically mention yoga — NOT GIVEN.

Question 56: The women who had learnt to read through the National Literacy Crusade showed the greatest change in infant mortality levels.

• YES (Correct answer)
• NO
• NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: YES

This statement aligns with the purpose of the research, which is to demonstrate the positive impact of the literacy crusade. It's logical that the group directly benefiting from the intervention (learning to read through the crusade) would exhibit the most significant improvement in child mortality rates, confirming the crusade's effectiveness.

Question 57: Passage: 'Access to clean drinking water remains one of the world's most pressing challenges, with over two billion people lacking safe water supplies and relying on contaminated sources.' Sentence to complete: More than two billion people do not have safe ___ water, forcing them to use polluted sources.

• filtered
• running
• bottled
• drinking (Correct answer)

Correct answer: drinking

'Clean drinking water' is used directly in the passage.

Question 58: Choose the best word to complete: 'The author ______ that further research is needed before any definitive conclusions can be drawn.'

• accepts
• agrees
• admits
• acknowledges (Correct answer)

Correct answer: acknowledges

'Acknowledges' is the most academically precise reporting verb for noting something the author recognises, without the negative connotation of 'admits' or the informality of 'agrees'.

Question 59: What is the speaker’s main argument?

• The speaker argues that listening comprehension can be improved with practice.
• The speaker claims that listening is less important than speaking.
• The speaker discusses the difficulties of understanding different accents.
• The speaker suggests that listening comprehension is mostly about vocabulary.

The main argument is the central point the speaker is trying to convey and persuade the audience of. Given that the passage's main idea is about strategies for improving listening comprehension (Q3) and a key recommendation is consistent listening practice (Q8), the overarching argument is that such improvement is achievable through dedicated practice. The strategies discussed would serve as methods to facilitate this improvement.

Question 60: A candidate writes: 'The factory is situated in the north of the city, close to the motorway.' This sentence demonstrates:

• Inappropriate personalisation of the map response
• Appropriate use of location vocabulary in present simple to describe a fixed feature (Correct answer)
• A grammatical error because 'close to' cannot follow 'situated'
• Incorrect tense — it should use past simple for map descriptions

Correct answer: Appropriate use of location vocabulary in present simple to describe a fixed feature

Present simple is correct for fixed current features; 'situated in' and 'close to' are standard, formal location expressions for map writing.

Question 61: When a graph shows a forecast for 2030, which tense fits best?

• Present perfect
• Past continuous
• Past simple
• Future forms (will/is expected to) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Future forms (will/is expected to)

Future forms describe predicted or projected data.

Question 62: What should the conclusion of an advantages/disadvantages essay include?

• New arguments not mentioned in the body
• Only the writer's personal anecdotes
• A summary of the main advantages and disadvantages discussed (Correct answer)
• A detailed list of recommendations

Correct answer: A summary of the main advantages and disadvantages discussed

The conclusion should summarize the key points already discussed without introducing any new information.

Question 63: What is the best way to handle a process diagram with 10 stages in a Task 1 response?

• Write an opinion paragraph about which stages are most efficient
• Group related stages into two or three logical paragraphs, covering all stages accurately (Correct answer)
• Write one sentence per stage in a continuous list format
• Describe only the five most important stages and ignore the rest

Correct answer: Group related stages into two or three logical paragraphs, covering all stages accurately

Grouping stages logically into body paragraphs shows coherence and organisation; all stages must be covered for a high Task Achievement score.

Question 64: Which sentence correctly describes a value reaching its highest point?

• Sales peaked at 500 units. (Correct answer)
• Sales dipped to 500 units.
• Sales bottomed out at 50 units.
• Sales plateaued at 50 units.

Correct answer: Sales peaked at 500 units.

'Peaked' means reached the highest point.

Question 65: A student writes: 'Governments should banned fast food in schools.' What is the grammatical error?

• The subject 'Governments' is incorrect; it should be 'Government'
• 'In schools' should be replaced with 'within schools'
• 'Fast food' is a compound noun and cannot follow 'ban'
• 'Should' must be followed by the base form: 'should ban', not 'should banned' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'Should' must be followed by the base form: 'should ban', not 'should banned'

Modal verbs ('should', 'could', 'might') are always followed by the bare infinitive (base form without 'to'), so 'should ban' not 'should banned'.

Question 66: Passage: 'The invention of the printing press democratised knowledge by making books affordable and widely available for the first time.' Summary to complete: The printing press made knowledge ___ because books became cheaper and more accessible.

• democratic (Correct answer)
• exclusive
• scarce
• unreliable

Correct answer: democratic

'Democratised knowledge' is directly paraphrased as 'knowledge democratic'.

Question 67: Which sentence correctly uses 'despite' to show a concession?

• Despite the high cost of renewable energy, but it remains sustainable.
• Despite that the cost is high, renewable energy is sustainable.
• Despite the high cost of renewable energy, it remains the most sustainable long-term solution. (Correct answer)
• Despite of the high cost of renewable energy, it remains sustainable.

Correct answer: Despite the high cost of renewable energy, it remains the most sustainable long-term solution.

'Despite' is a preposition followed by a noun phrase ('the high cost'), not a conjunction; 'despite of' and 'despite that' are common non-standard errors.

Question 68: A Task 2 prompt asks: 'What are the advantages and disadvantages of working from home?' This is:

• An advantages-disadvantages essay, NOT a discussion or problem-solution essay (Correct answer)
• A discuss both views essay requiring a personal opinion
• An opinion essay requiring agreement or disagreement
• A problem-solution essay asking for causes and remedies

Correct answer: An advantages-disadvantages essay, NOT a discussion or problem-solution essay

'Advantages and disadvantages' is a distinct essay type; it does not ask for a personal opinion or a discussion of opposing views, and has its own structure.

Question 69: Passage: 'The industrial revolution generated unprecedented economic growth, but it also produced widespread urban poverty as rural workers flooded into cities seeking employment.' Summary to complete: While the industrial revolution created economic growth, it also caused ___ poverty in cities.

• extreme
• temporary
• widespread (Correct answer)
• rural

Correct answer: widespread

'Widespread urban poverty' is taken directly from the passage.

Question 70: You hear: 'The start date of the programme is the first of September.' The notes say: Programme start: ___. What should be written?

• 15 September
• 1 October
• 1 August
• 1 September (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 September

The first of September = 1 September.

Question 71: Which connector best introduces a final comparison or summary detail?

• However
• By contrast
• In comparison (Correct answer)
• Firstly

Correct answer: In comparison

'In comparison' introduces a comparative observation.

Question 72: A student is listening to campus directions: 'The IT support office was relocated last month. It's no longer in Block C. You'll find it in Block A, on the ground floor, just past the reception desk.' Where is IT support now?

• Block C, ground floor
• Block A, ground floor, past reception (Correct answer)
• Block C, first floor
• Block B, adjacent to reception

Correct answer: Block A, ground floor, past reception

The speaker says IT support relocated to Block A, ground floor, just past the reception desk.

Question 73: A heading uses 'effects' while the paragraph discusses 'consequences'. This is an example of:

• Paraphrasing through synonyms (Correct answer)
• A distractor trick to avoid
• A grammatical error
• An incorrect match

Correct answer: Paraphrasing through synonyms

IELTS commonly paraphrases ideas using synonyms.

Question 74: You hear: 'The engineering programme requires applicants to have achieved at least grade B in Mathematics AND Physics. A pass in Chemistry is desirable but not essential. English Language at grade C or above is also required.' Which subjects are REQUIRED (not merely desirable)?

• Mathematics and Physics only
• Mathematics, Physics, and English Language (Correct answer)
• Physics and Chemistry
• Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, and English Language

Correct answer: Mathematics, Physics, and English Language

Mathematics (B), Physics (B), and English Language (C) are required; Chemistry is desirable but not essential.

Question 75: What is the key difference between describing a map and describing a process diagram?

• Maps use future tenses, while processes use past tenses.
• Maps describe only one point in time, while processes always compare two time periods.
• Maps require spatial language (north/south/adjacent), while processes require sequential language (first/then/finally). (Correct answer)
• Maps need an opinion paragraph, while processes only need facts.

Correct answer: Maps require spatial language (north/south/adjacent), while processes require sequential language (first/then/finally).

Maps demand location vocabulary and direction words, whereas process diagrams require sequence markers to show the order of stages.

Question 76: Which sentence most effectively paraphrases the prompt 'Some people believe technology has made life more stressful'?

• A number of individuals have a belief that technology makes stress in life more.
• Some people believe technology has made life more stressful.
• It is argued by some that technological advancements have increased stress levels in modern society. (Correct answer)
• Technology is stressful according to some people.

Correct answer: It is argued by some that technological advancements have increased stress levels in modern society.

Option A paraphrases the original using synonyms ('it is argued', 'technological advancements', 'stress levels') and restructures the grammar without copying the original wording.

Question 77: Which of the following words is its antonym? <br>\r\nbeginning, launch, initiation, start, and beginning

• immolation\t
• termination\t (Correct answer)
• preclude\t
• initiation\t

Correct answer: termination\t

The words 'beginning,' 'launch,' 'initiation,' and 'start' all refer to the commencement or initial phase of something. The antonym, or opposite, of these terms would be the end or conclusion. 'Termination' means the action of ending or being ended, making it the direct opposite.

Question 78: You hear: 'The annual fee goes up by five percent in January.' The notes say: Fee increase: ___% in January. What should be written?

• 5 (Correct answer)
• 15
• 10
• 3

Correct answer: 5

Five percent is stated as the increase.

Question 79: During IELTS Speaking Part 2, a candidate is talking fluently about the topic on the cue card. The examiner stops them exactly at the 2-minute mark, even though the candidate has not finished their last point. How does this affect the candidate's score?

• It negatively affects the score because the candidate failed to cover all the points within the time limit.
• It positively affects the score as it shows the candidate had a lot to say on the topic.
• The candidate will be asked to quickly summarize their final point before moving on to Part 3.
• It has no negative effect; being stopped at 2 minutes is a standard procedure and indicates the candidate spoke for a sufficient length of time. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It has no negative effect; being stopped at 2 minutes is a standard procedure and indicates the candidate spoke for a sufficient length of time.

The examiner's job is to manage the test timing strictly. Being stopped at the 2-minute mark is normal and signifies that the candidate has fulfilled the time requirement for this part of the test. It does not negatively impact the score; in fact, it shows the candidate was able to speak at length.

Question 80: Where in a paragraph is the main idea often found to aid heading matching?

• Only in the middle
• In the footnotes
• Never stated explicitly
• Topic sentence at the start or a concluding sentence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Topic sentence at the start or a concluding sentence

Topic and concluding sentences often state the main point.

Question 81: You hear: 'Payment should be made by bank transfer, and the account name is City Training Centre.' The form asks: Account name: ___. What should be written?

• City Learning Centre
• City Training Center
• City Training Centre (Correct answer)
• Central Training City

Correct answer: City Training Centre

The account name given is 'City Training Centre' — British spelling included.

Question 82: You hear: 'Your order has been dispatched by standard post — not tracked.' The notes say: Delivery method: standard ___. What should be written?

• post (Correct answer)
• courier
• mail
• delivery

Correct answer: post

The speaker says 'standard post' explicitly.

Question 83: A student hears: 'The biology lab is on the third floor, not the second as it says on the old map. The chemistry lab remains on the second floor, and the physics lab is on the fourth floor.' Which floor is the biology lab on?

• Second floor
• Fourth floor
• First floor
• Third floor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Third floor

The speaker corrects the old map: the biology lab has moved to the third floor.

Question 84: In terms of pronunciation, what does 'connected speech' refer to, and why is it important for high IELTS scores?

• Pausing clearly between every word for clarity
• Speaking with a very loud, projected voice
• Linking and reducing sounds between words naturally, as in natural spoken English (Correct answer)
• Pronouncing every letter in every word precisely

Correct answer: Linking and reducing sounds between words naturally, as in natural spoken English

Connected speech features (linking, elision, assimilation) are natural in fluent English and are associated with higher pronunciation bands.

Question 85: A Band 5 candidate's main weakness in Part 1 is using simple, repetitive structures. The best way to move toward Band 7 is to:

• Ask for more time to prepare before each answer
• Incorporate a greater variety of sentence structures, tenses, and vocabulary (Correct answer)
• Use longer answers on every question regardless of relevance
• Speak faster to sound more fluent

Correct answer: Incorporate a greater variety of sentence structures, tenses, and vocabulary

Moving from Band 5 to Band 7 requires visible increases in structural variety and lexical range, not just longer or faster speech.

Question 86: Which sentence demonstrates effective use of a cohesive device in a Part 1 answer?

• Music is liked by me especially jazz type of music.
• I like music and also I like music a lot and music is my passion.
• I like music. Music is good. I listen to music a lot.
• I'm really into jazz, mainly because it's so improvisational — no two performances are ever quite the same. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: I'm really into jazz, mainly because it's so improvisational — no two performances are ever quite the same.

'Mainly because' is a cohesive device linking the preference to the reason; the relative clause adds natural complexity.

Question 87: Which sentence accurately uses 'while' to compare two simultaneous stages in a process?

• While the mixture has heated, the moulds are preparing.
• While the mixture heated, the moulds are being prepared.
• While the mixture is heated, the moulds prepared.
• While the mixture is heated, the moulds are being prepared. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: While the mixture is heated, the moulds are being prepared.

'While' with two concurrent present passive/progressive forms correctly shows two simultaneous stages in the same process.

Question 88: Which phrase is most appropriate for showing you are thinking before answering in IELTS Speaking Part 1?

• Hmm, that's a really tough question I never thought about.
• I don't know, maybe yes?
• Well, let me think about that for a moment… I'd say… (Correct answer)
• Sorry, can you repeat the question?

Correct answer: Well, let me think about that for a moment… I'd say…

'Well, let me think…' is a natural filler that buys thinking time without suggesting confusion or lack of vocabulary.

Question 89: Passage: 'The pyramid's interior chambers were sealed with massive limestone blocks to prevent tomb robbers from accessing the burial site.' Summary to complete: The builders used large stone blocks to ___ the inside of the pyramid and protect it from thieves.

• build
• seal (Correct answer)
• illuminate
• decorate

Correct answer: seal

'Sealed' in the passage directly matches 'seal' in the summary.

Question 90: In an IELTS Reading 'Matching Headings' task, what is the primary skill being tested?

• Understanding the main idea or topic of a paragraph. (Correct answer)
• Recognizing the author's opinion or bias.
• Identifying specific details and dates within a paragraph.
• Defining vocabulary words found in the text.

Correct answer: Understanding the main idea or topic of a paragraph.

The 'Matching Headings' task is designed to assess a test taker's ability to identify the central theme or main idea of a paragraph and distinguish it from supporting details. Each heading represents a summary of a paragraph.

Question 91: What does 'connected speech' (e.g., linking 'an apple' smoothly) help with?

• Lengthening the test
• Improving grammar accuracy
• Sounding more natural and fluent (Correct answer)
• Increasing your vocabulary score

Correct answer: Sounding more natural and fluent

Linking words together naturally makes speech flow like a native speaker's.

Question 92: How should you handle a process diagram that shows a cyclical process (e.g., the water cycle)?

• Ignore the cyclical nature and treat it as a linear process
• Note in the overview that the process is cyclical, then describe the stages from an identifiable starting point (Correct answer)
• Describe only the most important stage and mention the rest briefly
• Begin at the final stage and describe the process in reverse

Correct answer: Note in the overview that the process is cyclical, then describe the stages from an identifiable starting point

Acknowledging the cyclical nature in the overview shows understanding of the diagram; choosing a logical start point ensures a coherent body paragraph.

Question 93: You hear: 'The new sports complex will include an Olympic-sized swimming pool, two indoor tennis courts, and a gymnasium. A climbing wall was originally planned but was removed from the final design due to budget constraints.' Which feature was REMOVED from the plans?

• The indoor tennis courts
• The Olympic-sized swimming pool
• The gymnasium
• The climbing wall (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The climbing wall

The speaker states the climbing wall was removed from the final design due to budget constraints.

Question 94: The examiner notices a candidate pauses, smiles, and says 'That's a great question.' before answering. What is the likely examiner's assessment?

• A possible indicator of a memorised, practised opener that could suggest scripted delivery. (Correct answer)
• Irrelevant — non-verbal cues are never considered.
• Proof that the candidate has excellent social skills, which raises the score.
• A positive signal showing the candidate is engaged.

Correct answer: A possible indicator of a memorised, practised opener that could suggest scripted delivery.

Rehearsed complimentary openers are a known memorisation signal; examiners may note this when assessing authenticity.

Question 95: You hear: 'The tutor's office hours are on Mondays between two and four p.m.' The notes say: Office hours: Mondays, ___ to 4 p.m. What should be written?

• 12 p.m.
• 3 p.m.
• 2 p.m. (Correct answer)
• 1 p.m.

Correct answer: 2 p.m.

The hours are stated as two to four p.m., so 2 p.m. fills the gap.

Question 96: You hear: 'Registrations close on the 14th — that's two weeks earlier than last year. Please note the venue has also changed: it's no longer the town hall but the community centre on Park Road.' What has changed compared to last year?

• The venue only
• The registration fee and the date
• The closing date and the venue (Correct answer)
• The organising committee and the date

Correct answer: The closing date and the venue

The speaker mentions two changes: the registration closing date (two weeks earlier) and the venue (community centre instead of town hall).

Question 97: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: 'The policy had several ______ consequences that were not foreseen by the planners.'

• adversarial
• adverse (Correct answer)
• adversely
• averse

Correct answer: adverse

'Adverse consequences' (unfavourable outcomes) is the correct collocation; 'averse' means reluctant; 'adversarial' means hostile/confrontational; 'adversely' is an adverb.

Question 98: Which is a good way to begin your long turn?

• Please give me another card
• Once upon a time the end
• I have nothing to say
• I'd like to talk about... (Correct answer)

Correct answer: I'd like to talk about...

Opening with 'I'd like to talk about' clearly introduces your chosen topic.

Question 99: Which thesis statement is most appropriate for a 'discuss both views' essay?

• Fast food is very bad for health and should be banned immediately.
• Both views have some good points and some bad points.
• This essay is about fast food and whether governments should ban it or not.
• While some argue that fast food should be banned for health reasons, others maintain that personal freedom must be respected; this essay will discuss both perspectives. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: While some argue that fast food should be banned for health reasons, others maintain that personal freedom must be respected; this essay will discuss both perspectives.

A strong thesis for a discussion essay acknowledges both sides and signals the essay's purpose without vague or colloquial language.

Question 100: A student is writing an essay on the topic: 'A big salary is much more important than job satisfaction. To what extent do you agree or disagree?' The student writes the following thesis statement: 'While a high income is an attractive component of a career, this essay will argue that job satisfaction is ultimately more critical for a person's well-being.' Which essay structure does this thesis statement suggest?

• An essay that will primarily discuss salary and only briefly mention job satisfaction in the conclusion.
• A balanced essay that will discuss both the importance of salary and job satisfaction before concluding. (Correct answer)
• An essay that agrees completely that a big salary is more important.
• A one-sided essay focusing only on the benefits of job satisfaction.

Correct answer: A balanced essay that will discuss both the importance of salary and job satisfaction before concluding.

The use of 'While...' indicates a concession. The student acknowledges the opposing view (the importance of a high salary) but clearly states their main argument is in favor of job satisfaction. This sets up a balanced discussion that explores both sides before reaffirming the stated opinion.

Question 101: Which skill helps most with correctly identifying the NOT GIVEN option in T/F/NG questions?

• Understanding complex grammar in the passage
• Using context clues to predict meaning
• Careful comparison of what the passage addresses vs what the statement claims (Correct answer)
• Fast reading for the main idea

Correct answer: Careful comparison of what the passage addresses vs what the statement claims

Careful comparison of passage coverage against statement scope is key to correctly identifying NOT GIVEN.

Question 102: Which phrase signals a turning point in a trend?

• It stayed the same throughout.
• There were no changes.
• It rose steadily the whole time.
• After reaching a peak, it began to fall. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: After reaching a peak, it began to fall.

A peak followed by a fall marks a turning point.

Question 103: Which response about urban migration uses the most sophisticated language in Part 3?

• The rural-to-urban migration trend is driven by a convergence of economic pull factors — better wages, infrastructure, and educational access — and push factors such as agricultural decline and limited opportunity in rural economies. (Correct answer)
• Urban migration is caused by job opportunities.
• Many people go to cities because there is more money there and they want better lives for themselves.
• People move to cities for better jobs.

Correct answer: The rural-to-urban migration trend is driven by a convergence of economic pull factors — better wages, infrastructure, and educational access — and push factors such as agricultural decline and limited opportunity in rural economies.

Academic vocabulary ('convergence', 'pull/push factors', 'agricultural decline'), technical framing, and balanced analysis are Band 7-8 features.

Question 104: A passage mentions that researchers at one university developed a new cancer treatment. A statement says: 'Multiple universities collaborated to develop the cancer treatment.' What is the answer?

• YES
• FALSE (Correct answer)
• TRUE
• NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: FALSE

The passage says 'one university'; the statement says 'multiple universities' — a direct contradiction, so FALSE.

Question 105: You hear: 'The supervisor's email is j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk.' The notes say: Supervisor email: ___. What should be written?

• j.harrisson@cityuni.ac.uk
• j.harrison@cityuni.edu
• j.harrison@cityuniv.ac.uk
• j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk (Correct answer)

Correct answer: j.harrison@cityuni.ac.uk

The email is stated clearly; common traps include double letters or wrong domains.

Question 106: Passage: 'Wind turbines generate electricity by converting the kinetic energy of moving air into mechanical energy, which is then transformed into electrical power.' Sentence to complete: Wind turbines produce electricity by first converting wind's ___ energy into mechanical energy.

• thermal
• chemical
• solar
• kinetic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: kinetic

'Kinetic energy of moving air' is used directly in the passage.

Question 107: Passage: 'Though celebrated for its rich volcanic soil, Iceland's harsh winters and limited sunlight restrict the variety of crops that can be grown there.' Summary to complete: Iceland's soil is fertile, but ___ conditions limit agricultural diversity.

• economic
• climatic (Correct answer)
• political
• geological

Correct answer: climatic

'Harsh winters and limited sunlight' are climatic factors.

Question 108: The examiner asks: 'How has technology changed the way people communicate?' Which response shows the best development of ideas?

• Technology has fundamentally transformed communication by enabling instant global connectivity, though this has come at the cost of deeper, more meaningful face-to-face interaction. The result is arguably a trade-off rather than a straightforward improvement. (Correct answer)
• Technology changed everything. Communication is very different from before.
• People communicate with technology. It is good and bad.
• Technology has changed communication. We use phones and the internet now.

Correct answer: Technology has fundamentally transformed communication by enabling instant global connectivity, though this has come at the cost of deeper, more meaningful face-to-face interaction. The result is arguably a trade-off rather than a straightforward improvement.

This answer uses abstract vocabulary ('fundamentally transformed', 'global connectivity'), a balanced argument, and a nuanced conclusion — all Band 8 features.

Question 109: The examiner asks: 'Do you think it's important to learn a second language?' In Part 1, the best response:

• Gives a one-word answer: 'Yes.'
• Gives a brief personal opinion with a short reason: 'I definitely think so — it opens so many doors professionally and personally.' (Correct answer)
• Launches into a 3-minute academic discussion of bilingualism's cognitive benefits.
• Says 'That's more of a Part 3 question, isn't it?'

Correct answer: Gives a brief personal opinion with a short reason: 'I definitely think so — it opens so many doors professionally and personally.'

Part 1 personal-opinion questions need a concise genuine response; extended academic debate belongs in Part 3.

Question 110: How is 'NOT GIVEN' different from 'FALSE' when answering T/F/NG questions?

• NOT GIVEN only applies when the topic is mentioned vaguely
• FALSE requires a direct contradiction in the passage; NOT GIVEN means no relevant information exists (Correct answer)
• They mean the same thing
• NOT GIVEN means the statement is wrong; FALSE means it is slightly wrong

Correct answer: FALSE requires a direct contradiction in the passage; NOT GIVEN means no relevant information exists

FALSE requires the passage to actively contradict the statement; NOT GIVEN means the passage says nothing relevant.

Question 111: Which statement about thesis statements in Task 2 is correct?

• A thesis statement should list every argument that will appear in the body paragraphs in detail
• A thesis statement must be placed in the middle of the essay for balance
• A thesis statement is optional and only needed for opinion essays
• A thesis statement should clearly state the writer's position or the essay's main argument in the introduction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A thesis statement should clearly state the writer's position or the essay's main argument in the introduction

A thesis statement in the introduction orients the reader to the writer's position or the essay's approach; it is required for all Task 2 essay types.

Question 112: A professor explains: 'The industrial revolution transformed society in three key ways: it urbanised the population, shifted labour from agriculture to manufacturing, AND created a new middle class. It also dramatically increased pollution, though this was an unintended consequence.' Which is described as an UNINTENDED consequence?

• Urbanisation of the population
• Shift from agriculture to manufacturing
• Dramatically increased pollution (Correct answer)
• Creation of a new middle class

Correct answer: Dramatically increased pollution

The speaker presents pollution as an unintended consequence, separate from the three key transformations.

Question 113: Which linking phrase best introduces an example in a Task 2 body paragraph?

• However, in Singapore, strict fines for littering have significantly reduced pollution.
• For instance, in Singapore, strict fines for littering have significantly reduced pollution. (Correct answer)
• In conclusion, in Singapore, strict fines for littering have significantly reduced pollution.
• On the other hand, in Singapore, strict fines for littering have significantly reduced pollution.

Correct answer: For instance, in Singapore, strict fines for littering have significantly reduced pollution.

'For instance' correctly introduces an illustrative example; 'however' and 'on the other hand' signal contrast, and 'in conclusion' signals a summary.

Question 114: What does 'FALSE' indicate in a True/False/Not Given question?

• The information is not discussed in the passage
• The statement is partially correct
• The passage contradicts the statement (Correct answer)
• The writer is unsure about the information

Correct answer: The passage contradicts the statement

'FALSE' means the passage directly contradicts or disagrees with the statement.

Question 115: You hear: 'The discount applies to students and senior citizens.' The form asks: Discount available for: students and ___. What should be written?

• staff
• children
• senior citizens (Correct answer)
• members

Correct answer: senior citizens

The speaker lists students and senior citizens as the two eligible groups.

Question 116: Which of the following words is its antonym? <br>\r\nuncertain, evadable, questionable, and optional

• unnecessary\t
• unpredictable\t
• inescapable\t
• unavoidable\t (Correct answer)

Correct answer: unavoidable\t

The correct answer is D) unavoidable. The words 'uncertain,' 'evadable,' 'questionable,' and 'optional' all imply that something can be avoided, doubted, or is not definite. 'Unavoidable' means impossible to avoid or prevent, which is the direct opposite of these terms. Therefore, 'unavoidable' is the correct antonym.

Question 117: Which of the following best describes a 'balanced' approach to a discuss both views essay?

• Spending more words on the view you agree with to make your opinion clearer
• Writing one view in the introduction and the other view in the conclusion
• Refusing to give any personal opinion so both views are treated equally throughout
• Giving equal paragraph space to each view before stating a clear personal opinion in the conclusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Giving equal paragraph space to each view before stating a clear personal opinion in the conclusion

A balanced discussion allocates equal paragraph space to both views and then clearly states the writer's position; this satisfies 'discuss both views AND give your opinion'.

Question 118: Which paragraph structure is most widely recommended for an IELTS advantages/disadvantages essay?

• Introduction, one body paragraph, conclusion
• Introduction, three body paragraphs, conclusion
• Introduction, opinion paragraph, evidence paragraph, conclusion
• Introduction, advantages paragraph, disadvantages paragraph, conclusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Introduction, advantages paragraph, disadvantages paragraph, conclusion

Separating advantages and disadvantages into two distinct body paragraphs ensures clarity, coherence, and logical organization.

Question 119: Passage: 'Satellite imagery has revolutionised environmental monitoring by enabling scientists to track changes in land use, deforestation rates, and ice cover across large areas with greater accuracy.' Sentence to complete: Scientists can now monitor environmental change, such as shifts in land use and ice cover, more ___ using satellite imagery.

• frequently
• accurately (Correct answer)
• quickly
• cheaply

Correct answer: accurately

'With greater accuracy' is paraphrased as 'more accurately'.

Question 120: Which response to 'Do you cook at home?' best shows fluency and grammatical range together?

• I will cook more in the future when I have more time.
• Yes, I cook. I cook a lot.
• I do, though not as often as I'd like — between work and other commitments, I tend to rely on quick meals during the week but make more effort at weekends. (Correct answer)
• I cook sometimes.

Correct answer: I do, though not as often as I'd like — between work and other commitments, I tend to rely on quick meals during the week but make more effort at weekends.

This answer uses concession ('though not as often as I'd like'), a subordinate clause, and lexical variety ('commitments', 'rely on', 'make more effort').