International English Language Testing System (IELTS) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The passage gives no opinion, but the statement claims the author 'prefers' something. The answer is:

Not Given (Correct answer)
No
False
True

Correct answer: Not Given

If the author's preference is never stated, the information is Not Given.

Question 2: Complete the statement with the best ending. Animals cope with changing weather and food availability because they are influenced by\t

impaired performance\t
time cues\t (Correct answer)
poor co-ordination\t

Correct answer: time cues\t

The text explains, 'It seems that time cues provided by the changing lengths of day and night trigger changes in animals' behaviour - changes that are needed to cope with the cycle of the seasons.' These seasonal cycles inherently involve variations in weather and food availability. Therefore, animals rely on these 'time cues' to adapt their behavior and cope with environmental changes.

Question 3: Which sentence correctly describes the lowest point of a trend?

Numbers surged to 5%.
Numbers peaked at 5%.
Numbers reached a low of 5%. (Correct answer)
Numbers reached a high of 5%.

Correct answer: Numbers reached a low of 5%.

'Reached a low' indicates the minimum point.

Question 4: You hear: 'The tutor's office hours are on Mondays between two and four p.m.' The notes say: Office hours: Mondays, ___ to 4 p.m. What should be written?

1 p.m.
12 p.m.
3 p.m.
2 p.m. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 p.m.

The hours are stated as two to four p.m., so 2 p.m. fills the gap.

Question 5: Which is the most effective concession before defending your own view?

I never consider other views
Both X and Y are wrong
While some argue X, the stronger case is Y (Correct answer)
X is completely correct and so is the opposite

Correct answer: While some argue X, the stronger case is Y

Acknowledging the opposing view then refuting it strengthens a clear position.

Question 6: Which of the following sentences correctly uses a verb and an adverb to describe a slow, consistent increase?

Profits climbed steadily. (Correct answer)
Profits plunged slightly.
Profits rocketed dramatically.
Profits remained stable.

Correct answer: Profits climbed steadily.

The verb 'climbed' correctly indicates an increase, and the adverb 'steadily' accurately describes a slow and consistent pace. 'Rocketed dramatically' suggests a very fast and large increase, 'plunged slightly' describes a decrease, and 'remained stable' indicates no change.

Question 7: How many sections does IELTS General Training Reading have, and what do they cover?

3 sections, all using long academic passages
2 sections: workplace and academic
4 sections of increasing difficulty
3 sections: everyday texts, work-related texts, and a longer passage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3 sections: everyday texts, work-related texts, and a longer passage

General Training Reading has 3 sections: Section 1 (everyday social texts), Section 2 (work-related texts), Section 3 (longer complex passage).

Question 8: Passage: 'The increasing use of pesticides has been linked to the decline of bee populations worldwide, which poses a serious threat to global food production given bees' role as pollinators.' Sentence to complete: Because bees ___ crops, their declining numbers due to pesticide use could endanger global food supplies.

cultivate
protect
irrigate
pollinate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: pollinate

Bees' role as 'pollinators' means they pollinate crops.

Question 9: Which sentence best expresses an approximate figure?

Sales totalled 487 units only.
Sales were 487.3 units precisely.
Sales stood at roughly 500 units. (Correct answer)
Sales stood at exactly 487 units.

Correct answer: Sales stood at roughly 500 units.

'Roughly 500' appropriately approximates the figure.

Question 10: How is the IELTS Speaking test assessed?

Task response, coherence, vocabulary, grammar
Four criteria: Fluency & Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range & Accuracy, Pronunciation (Correct answer)
Only grammar and vocabulary
Only pronunciation and fluency

Correct answer: Four criteria: Fluency & Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range & Accuracy, Pronunciation

IELTS Speaking is marked on four equally weighted criteria: Fluency & Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range & Accuracy, and Pronunciation.

Question 11: You hear: 'There are twenty-four participants registered so far — we need at least thirty.' The notes say: Registered participants: ___. What should be written?

34
24 (Correct answer)
30
20

Correct answer: 24

'Twenty-four' is the current number registered; thirty is the minimum target.

Question 12: You hear: 'The password for the Wi-Fi is Summit2024 — capital S, the rest lowercase.' The form has: Wi-Fi password: ___. What should be written?

summit2024
SUMMIT2024
Summit2025
Summit2024 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Summit2024

The speaker specifies capital S, rest lowercase, giving Summit2024.

Question 13: You will hear a tour guide talking about a historic building. Which specific feature is NOT mentioned as being part of the original 17th-century structure?

The main staircase
The stone fireplace
The oak-paneled library
The glass conservatory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The glass conservatory

The tour guide explicitly states that the main staircase, the stone fireplace in the great hall, and the oak-paneled library are all original features from when the house was first built. However, they later mention, 'The beautiful glass conservatory, while a stunning addition, was actually built much later in the Victorian era.' Therefore, the conservatory is not an original feature.

Question 14: "You'll find us at fifteen Park Avenue." What is the house number?

15 (Correct answer)
55
5
50

Correct answer: 15

"Fifteen" is the number, so the address is 15 Park Avenue.

Question 15: You hear: 'The patient has a nut allergy — specifically peanuts.' The medical form asks: Allergies: ___. What should be written?

shellfish
peanuts (Correct answer)
dairy
nuts

Correct answer: peanuts

Though the general term 'nut allergy' is mentioned first, the speaker specifies 'peanuts'.

Question 16: A heading focusing on a minor detail in the paragraph is usually:

A distractor designed to mislead (Correct answer)
A required answer
Irrelevant to the test
The correct match

Correct answer: A distractor designed to mislead

Detail-focused headings tempt readers away from the main idea.

Question 17: Which description best combines two simultaneous stages in a process?

First the bottles are being filled, then the labels are printed.
The bottles are filled; however, the labels are printed.
While the bottles are being filled, the labels are printed. (Correct answer)
The bottles are filled, and therefore the labels are printed.

Correct answer: While the bottles are being filled, the labels are printed.

'While' with a progressive passive ('are being filled') perfectly expresses two actions happening simultaneously in the same process.

Question 18: In a diagram or flowchart completion task, where do the answers come from?

Your imagination
A provided dictionary
Specific information located in the passage (Correct answer)
The instructions only

Correct answer: Specific information located in the passage

Labels for diagrams and flowcharts must be drawn from details stated in the text.

Question 19: Which word or phrase most effectively shows cause and effect in a problem-solution essay?

Private car use has increased; in conclusion, congestion has worsened.
However, private car use has increased and congestion has worsened significantly.
For example, private car use has increased, so congestion has worsened.
As a consequence of the increase in private car use, congestion has worsened significantly. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As a consequence of the increase in private car use, congestion has worsened significantly.

'As a consequence of' is a formal, precise cause-and-effect linker, more appropriate than 'so' or 'for example' for academic writing.

Question 20: "The meeting is on the twenty-third of March." Which date is given?

3 March
13 March
23 March (Correct answer)
23 May

Correct answer: 23 March

"Twenty-third of March" is the 23rd of March.

Question 21: In Task 1, what should the overview paragraph contain?

Main trends and key features (Correct answer)
Specific data figures
Reasons for the trends
Your personal opinion

Correct answer: Main trends and key features

The overview summarises the most noticeable trends without detailed data.

Question 22: Which sentence correctly uses 'even though'?

Even though he studied he failed even though.
He studied even though, failed.
Even though he studied, he failed. (Correct answer)
Even though, he studied he failed.

Correct answer: Even though he studied, he failed.

'Even though' introduces a concession clause set off by a comma.

Question 23: What is the role of Reading Comprehension in academic success?

Helpful but not essential for academic success.
Contributes to achieving high academic performance. (Correct answer)
Improves overall academic skills.
Not related to academic success.

Correct answer: Contributes to achieving high academic performance.

Strong reading comprehension skills are fundamental to academic success across all subjects. Students must be able to understand textbooks, articles, and exam questions to learn new concepts, complete assignments, and perform well on assessments. It directly impacts a student's ability to absorb, process, and apply information, thereby contributing significantly to higher grades and overall academic achievement.

Question 24: What is the safest strategy when you cannot find any related information?

Mark Not Given (Correct answer)
Mark False
Mark True
Leave it blank

Correct answer: Mark Not Given

Absence of any relevant information indicates Not Given.

Question 25: You hear: 'The applicant works in healthcare — specifically as a physiotherapist.' The form asks: Occupation: ___. What should be written?

physiotherapist (Correct answer)
healthcare worker
doctor
nurse

Correct answer: physiotherapist

The speaker gives the specific occupation as physiotherapist.

Question 26: A student hears: 'The biology lab is on the third floor, not the second as it says on the old map. The chemistry lab remains on the second floor, and the physics lab is on the fourth floor.' Which floor is the biology lab on?

Third floor (Correct answer)
Fourth floor
Second floor
First floor

Correct answer: Third floor

The speaker corrects the old map: the biology lab has moved to the third floor.

Question 27: A graph shows the number of factory workers from 2000 to 2020. The number was 5,000 in 2000, fell to a low of 4,500 in 2010, and then rose to 6,000 by 2020. Which sentence best describes this trend?

The number of factory workers experienced a steady decline from 2000 to 2020.
The number of factory workers increased consistently throughout the period.
After an initial dip, the number of factory workers saw a significant rise, finishing at a peak in 2020. (Correct answer)
The number of factory workers fluctuated wildly and ended lower than it started.

Correct answer: After an initial dip, the number of factory workers saw a significant rise, finishing at a peak in 2020.

This sentence accurately captures the three key stages of the trend: the initial decrease ('dip'), the subsequent increase ('significant rise'), and the final state ('finishing at a peak'). The other options misrepresent the overall pattern.

Question 28: How many distinct main ideas should a typical 4-paragraph opinion essay develop?

One idea repeated
Six brief ideas
Two well-developed ideas (Correct answer)
No specific ideas needed

Correct answer: Two well-developed ideas

Two clearly developed main ideas across two body paragraphs is a common, effective structure.

Question 29: You hear: 'She's studying marine biology — that's M-A-R-I-N-E biology.' The form asks: Subject of study: ___. What should be written?

marine ecology
marin biology
marine biology (Correct answer)
Marine Biology

Correct answer: marine biology

The speaker spells 'marine' and confirms the subject as marine biology.

Question 30: Passage: 'The invention of the printing press democratised knowledge by making books affordable and widely available for the first time.' Summary to complete: The printing press made knowledge ___ because books became cheaper and more accessible.

exclusive
unreliable
scarce
democratic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: democratic

'Democratised knowledge' is directly paraphrased as 'knowledge democratic'.

Question 31: How is 'NOT GIVEN' different from 'FALSE' when answering T/F/NG questions?

NOT GIVEN means the statement is wrong; FALSE means it is slightly wrong
FALSE requires a direct contradiction in the passage; NOT GIVEN means no relevant information exists (Correct answer)
NOT GIVEN only applies when the topic is mentioned vaguely
They mean the same thing

Correct answer: FALSE requires a direct contradiction in the passage; NOT GIVEN means no relevant information exists

FALSE requires the passage to actively contradict the statement; NOT GIVEN means the passage says nothing relevant.

Question 32: The heading 'How the system works' best matches a paragraph that:

Lists names of people
Explains a process or mechanism (Correct answer)
Criticises a policy
Gives a personal opinion

Correct answer: Explains a process or mechanism

It signals a process explanation.

Question 33: In IELTS Writing Task 2, what does 'Task Achievement' assess?

How fully the candidate addresses all parts of the task with relevant, developed ideas (Correct answer)
The number of examples and statistics included
The total number of words written
Handwriting legibility and neatness

Correct answer: How fully the candidate addresses all parts of the task with relevant, developed ideas

Task Achievement evaluates whether the candidate fully responds to all aspects of the prompt with relevant and sufficiently developed ideas.

Question 34: What does IELTS Life Skills test, and who needs it?

English speaking and listening at A1 or B1 level, primarily for UK visa applications (Correct answer)
Business writing and professional communication
Academic reading for graduate students
All four skills at university level

Correct answer: English speaking and listening at A1 or B1 level, primarily for UK visa applications

IELTS Life Skills tests speaking and listening at A1 or B1 CEFR level and is used for certain UK visa applications.

Question 35: How long is the IELTS Writing section?

60 minutes (Correct answer)
75 minutes
45 minutes
90 minutes

Correct answer: 60 minutes

The IELTS Writing section lasts 60 minutes, covering both Task 1 and Task 2.

Question 36: You need 150 words minimum for Task 1. What is the best strategy if your process description runs short?

Add more detail about each stage using precise vocabulary and linking phrases (Correct answer)
Add a personal opinion paragraph at the end
Repeat the same stages using different words to pad the word count
Copy the task instructions word for word to reach 150 words

Correct answer: Add more detail about each stage using precise vocabulary and linking phrases

Adding genuine detail — precise stage descriptions, cause-effect language, accurate vocabulary — improves both word count and the overall score.

Question 37: What is the best first step when you encounter an unfamiliar word in a passage?

Stop reading immediately
Look it up in a dictionary
Use surrounding context to infer its likely meaning (Correct answer)
Skip the whole paragraph

Correct answer: Use surrounding context to infer its likely meaning

Context clues from nearby sentences usually reveal enough meaning to continue effectively.

Question 38: Intonation in English refers to which feature of speech?

The accuracy of grammar
The size of your vocabulary
The number of words spoken
The rise and fall of the voice (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The rise and fall of the voice

Intonation is the pattern of pitch changes across an utterance.

Question 39: In a Task 2 'agree or disagree' essay, what is the safest thesis approach?

List both sides without choosing
Change your opinion in the conclusion
Clearly state your position in the introduction (Correct answer)
Avoid stating any position

Correct answer: Clearly state your position in the introduction

A clear, consistent position stated early scores higher for task response.

Question 40: Which verb best describes a trend that goes up and down irregularly?

Fluctuated (Correct answer)
Soared
Plummeted
Stabilised

Correct answer: Fluctuated

'Fluctuated' means rose and fell irregularly.

Question 41: Why is reading the title and any subheadings before the passage helpful?

It wastes time
It is forbidden
It gives context and predicts the topic, aiding comprehension (Correct answer)
It reveals the answers directly

Correct answer: It gives context and predicts the topic, aiding comprehension

Previewing titles and subheadings builds context that speeds up understanding the passage.

Question 42: How should you handle a process diagram that shows a cyclical process (e.g., the water cycle)?

Note in the overview that the process is cyclical, then describe the stages from an identifiable starting point (Correct answer)
Ignore the cyclical nature and treat it as a linear process
Begin at the final stage and describe the process in reverse
Describe only the most important stage and mention the rest briefly

Correct answer: Note in the overview that the process is cyclical, then describe the stages from an identifiable starting point

Acknowledging the cyclical nature in the overview shows understanding of the diagram; choosing a logical start point ensures a coherent body paragraph.

Question 43: Which is the best way to end an opinion essay's conclusion?

Ask the reader a question
Introduce a brand-new argument
Restate your opinion and summarize key reasons (Correct answer)
Apologize for the length

Correct answer: Restate your opinion and summarize key reasons

A strong conclusion reaffirms your stance and briefly recaps the supporting reasons.

Question 44: You hear: 'Registrations close on the 14th — that's two weeks earlier than last year. Please note the venue has also changed: it's no longer the town hall but the community centre on Park Road.' What has changed compared to last year?

The venue only
The closing date and the venue (Correct answer)
The registration fee and the date
The organising committee and the date

Correct answer: The closing date and the venue

The speaker mentions two changes: the registration closing date (two weeks earlier) and the venue (community centre instead of town hall).

Question 45: Complete the sentence with the correct ending. Ben Finney thought that in the long term

past explorers used technology in order to find new places to live.
important sites on the Moon may be under threat.
vehicles used for tourism have polluted the environment.
man-made objects left in space are regarded as rubbish.
some sites in space could be important in the history of space exploration. (Correct answer)
activities of tourists and scientists have harmed the environment.
astronauts may need to work more closely with archaeologists.
it may be unclear who has responsibility for historic human footprints.

Correct answer: some sites in space could be important in the history of space exploration.

The passage highlights Ben Finney's vision that objects left in space, such as lunar landing sites, will eventually be recognized as significant historical artifacts. He believed these sites would become important for understanding the history of human space exploration in the long term. This aligns with 'some sites in space could be important in the history of space exploration'.

Question 46: You hear: 'The school run starts at eight-fifteen — so please be ready.' The form asks: Pick-up time: ___. What should be written?

8:45
8:30
8:00
8:15 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 8:15

'Eight-fifteen' = 8:15.

Question 47: Choose the most precise verb: 'Sales ___ sharply after the advertising campaign.'

soared (Correct answer)
got bigger
moved
went up a lot

Correct answer: soared

'Soared' precisely conveys a sharp, rapid increase, ideal for IELTS writing.

Question 48: Map task: 'Stand at the fountain and face the clocktower. The museum is on your left, the library is on your right, and the town hall is behind you.' A tourist at the fountain, facing the clocktower, wants the library. Which direction should they turn?

Turn right (Correct answer)
Go straight ahead toward the clocktower
Turn around
Turn left

Correct answer: Turn right

With the clocktower ahead, the library is on the right.

Question 49: Map labelling: 'The campus health centre is north of the main quad. The sports pitches are east of the health centre. The student union building is south of the main quad, directly opposite the health centre.' Where is the student union building?

South of the main quad, directly opposite the health centre (Correct answer)
West of the main quad
East of the sports pitches
North of the main quad, beside the health centre

Correct answer: South of the main quad, directly opposite the health centre

The student union is south of the main quad, directly opposite the health centre (which is north).

Question 50: When completing a table, what helps you predict the kind of answer needed in each cell?

The length of the recording
The column and row headings (Correct answer)
The colour of the table
The number of the question only

Correct answer: The column and row headings

Headings tell you whether to expect a name, number, time, or other category.

Question 51: Which response best uses a 'compare and contrast' structure in Part 3?

'Education online and offline are both useful for different reasons.'
'While traditional education excels at building foundational knowledge systematically, online learning offers flexibility and personalisation that traditional models struggle to replicate at scale.' (Correct answer)
'The first is better. The second is worse.'
'Both things are important.'

Correct answer: 'While traditional education excels at building foundational knowledge systematically, online learning offers flexibility and personalisation that traditional models struggle to replicate at scale.'

This response uses 'while' for contrast, specifies the strength of each ('excels at… offers flexibility'), and notes a comparative limitation ('struggle to replicate at scale').

Question 52: In a process diagram, 'prior to' is used to show:

A step that is optional or might be skipped
The final step in a process
Two steps happening at exactly the same time
A step that happens before another step (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A step that happens before another step

'Prior to' is a formal preposition meaning 'before', used to indicate that one stage precedes another in the sequence.

Question 53: You hear: 'The annual fee goes up by five percent in January.' The notes say: Fee increase: ___% in January. What should be written?

10
3
5 (Correct answer)
15

Correct answer: 5

Five percent is stated as the increase.

Question 54: This smell is coming from a skunk close by.\t

subjunctive\t
indicative\t (Correct answer)
incipient\t
imperative\t

Correct answer: indicative\t

The word 'indicative' means serving as a sign or symptom of something. In this sentence, the strong smell is a clear sign or indicator that a skunk is nearby. It points to the presence of the animal, making 'indicative' the most appropriate choice.

Question 55: How many words should you typically write for a True/False/Not Given answer?

Three to five words
Just one word or the correct label (Correct answer)
A full sentence
Two paragraphs

Correct answer: Just one word or the correct label

You write only True, False, or Not Given (or the equivalent label).

Question 56: How does the Listening section differ between Academic and General Training?

Academic has more questions
They are identical (Correct answer)
General Training has a longer recording
Academic uses only lectures

Correct answer: They are identical

The Listening section is exactly the same for both Academic and General Training candidates.

Question 57: There was no longer any evidence because they ____ the bodies.\t

incipient\t
daunted\t
incinerated\t (Correct answer)
unscathed\t

Correct answer: incinerated\t

The word 'incinerated' means to burn something completely to ashes. If bodies were incinerated, they would be utterly destroyed, leaving no physical evidence behind. This aligns perfectly with the context of 'no longer any evidence,' as burning is an effective way to eliminate traces.

Question 58: Which behaviour is most likely to lower your Fluency and Coherence score?

Giving extended answers
Using linking words
Frequent long pauses and self-correction (Correct answer)
Maintaining a steady pace

Correct answer: Frequent long pauses and self-correction

Hesitation and constant self-correction disrupt flow and reduce fluency marks.

Question 59: Passage: 'Urbanisation leads to the creation of heat islands, where city centres are significantly warmer than surrounding rural areas due to heat-absorbing surfaces and reduced vegetation.' Sentence to complete: Cities are often warmer than rural areas because their surfaces ___ heat and they have less vegetation.

absorb (Correct answer)
store
generate
reflect

Correct answer: absorb

'Heat-absorbing surfaces' is paraphrased as 'surfaces absorb heat'.

Question 60: Which of these tasks are mentioned by the writer of the text?

examining ancient waste sites to investigate diet
deducing reasons for the shape of domestic buildings (Correct answer)
examining evidence for past climate changes

Correct answer: deducing reasons for the shape of domestic buildings

The text explicitly lists 'deducing reasons for the shape of domestic buildings' as one of the tasks performed by archaeologists. This involves analyzing architectural remains to understand past living arrangements, social structures, and environmental adaptations of ancient populations. This task is central to reconstructing daily life in past societies.

Question 61: Complete the summary using the list of words. As a result, factors such as _____ and attitudes to children have been eliminated,

family wealth (Correct answer)
mortality
men and women

Correct answer: family wealth

When studying the direct link between maternal literacy and child health, researchers often control for confounding variables like socioeconomic status. 'Family wealth' is a key factor that needs to be accounted for to isolate the specific impact of literacy, ensuring the observed effects are truly due to literacy itself.

Question 62: A caller is told: 'Press 1 for billing enquiries, press 2 for technical support, press 3 to speak to an operator.' The caller has a problem with their broadband connection. Which option should they select?

Option 3 — speak to an operator
None of the above — hang up and call back
Option 2 — technical support (Correct answer)
Option 1 — billing enquiries

Correct answer: Option 2 — technical support

A broadband connection problem is a technical issue, so option 2 (technical support) is the correct choice.

Question 63: Which sentence shows the best use of a complex structure?

Pollution bad and harms health a lot
Pollution is bad. It harms health.
Pollution and health and money
Although pollution is costly to reduce, the long-term health benefits justify the expense (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Although pollution is costly to reduce, the long-term health benefits justify the expense

The subordinate clause with 'although' demonstrates grammatical range.

Question 64: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: 'The policy had several ______ consequences that were not foreseen by the planners.'

averse
adversely
adverse (Correct answer)
adversarial

Correct answer: adverse

'Adverse consequences' (unfavourable outcomes) is the correct collocation; 'averse' means reluctant; 'adversarial' means hostile/confrontational; 'adversely' is an adverb.

Question 65: A test-taker receives a cue card that says, 'Describe a book you have recently read.' Which of the following opening sentences demonstrates the best technique?

"I'd like to tell you about a fascinating novel I finished just last week called 'The Midnight Library'." (Correct answer)
"The cue card asks me to describe a book I have recently read."
"I will talk about the book, where I read it, and why I liked it."
"I don't read books very often, so this is a difficult topic for me."

Correct answer: "I'd like to tell you about a fascinating novel I finished just last week called 'The Midnight Library'."

A strong start involves paraphrasing the prompt and directly introducing the specific topic. This approach sounds natural, confident, and immediately begins to address the task. Simply repeating the prompt or listing the bullet points is less effective, and starting with a negative statement can create a poor first impression.

Question 66: The AWL word 'parameter' most closely means:

a factor or boundary that defines or limits something (Correct answer)
a measurement tool used in experiments
a strict rule that must not be broken
an alternative approach to a problem

Correct answer: a factor or boundary that defines or limits something

'Parameter' refers to a factor or limit that defines the scope of something (e.g., 'the parameters of the study'); it is often misused to mean 'rule' or 'guideline'.

Question 67: Which of the following is the most appropriate concluding sentence for an essay about social media?

In conclusion, while social media fosters global connectivity, its drawbacks in terms of mental health and privacy cannot be overlooked. (Correct answer)
I think social media is very good for everyone.
Therefore, all social media platforms should be banned immediately.
Social media has many things.

Correct answer: In conclusion, while social media fosters global connectivity, its drawbacks in terms of mental health and privacy cannot be overlooked.

An effective conclusion summarizes both perspectives objectively using academic language, without introducing new ideas or making extreme claims.

Question 68: A passage says: 'Solar panels were first used commercially in the 1950s.' The statement reads: 'Commercial use of solar panels began in the twentieth century.' What is the answer?

CANNOT SAY
TRUE (Correct answer)
FALSE
NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: TRUE

The 1950s falls within the twentieth century, so the statement is confirmed by the passage — TRUE.

Question 69: What does 'skimming' a passage help you achieve?

Checking spelling
Memorizing every word
Finding one exact date
Getting the general idea and structure quickly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Getting the general idea and structure quickly

Skimming gives a fast overview of the passage's main ideas and organization.

Question 70: How long should a typical Part 3 answer be?

Extended discourse of several sentences, typically developing an argument across multiple turns (Correct answer)
As long as possible, ideally 10 minutes
One or two sentences maximum
Exactly the same length as Part 1 answers

Correct answer: Extended discourse of several sentences, typically developing an argument across multiple turns

Part 3 expects extended, analytical answers — typically 5-10 sentences per response, showing developed reasoning.

Question 71: Passage: 'The widespread use of antibiotics in livestock farming contributes to antibiotic resistance, as bacteria evolve to survive drug treatments, posing a serious threat to human health.' Summary to complete: Using antibiotics in farming encourages bacteria to ___ drug resistance, endangering human health.

transmit
lose
detect
develop (Correct answer)

Correct answer: develop

'Bacteria evolve to survive drug treatments' is paraphrased as 'develop drug resistance'.

Question 72: An indirect benefit of subsidising micro-turbines is the support it provides for ____________________.

developing technology (Correct answer)
offshore wind farms

Correct answer: developing technology

The passage probably discusses that while direct benefits of micro-turbine subsidies might be limited, they indirectly foster innovation and growth in the broader renewable energy sector. This suggests that government support helps advance the underlying technological infrastructure and expertise, even if the direct environmental impact is small.

Question 73: Why should you avoid choosing a heading just because it sounds impressive?

Short headings are always right
Impressive headings are banned
Long headings are always wrong
Match must be based on meaning, not appeal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Match must be based on meaning, not appeal

Correctness depends on meaning alignment, not style.

Question 74: The examiner asks: 'Some argue that arts education is a luxury. What do you think?' Which answer most directly challenges the premise?

'Yes, arts are a luxury. Science is more important.'
'I would take issue with the word luxury. Art and creativity are arguably integral to innovation, emotional intelligence, and cultural cohesion — none of which are peripheral to a functioning society.' (Correct answer)
'Some people think arts are a luxury and others disagree.'
'Arts are good. I like arts.'

Correct answer: 'I would take issue with the word luxury. Art and creativity are arguably integral to innovation, emotional intelligence, and cultural cohesion — none of which are peripheral to a functioning society.'

Challenging a key term ('I would take issue with the word luxury') and providing a three-part refutation with abstract vocabulary is Band 8-9 technique.

Question 75: How many passages are in the IELTS Academic Reading test?

5 passages
2 passages
3 passages (Correct answer)
4 passages

Correct answer: 3 passages

The IELTS Academic Reading test contains 3 passages of increasing difficulty.

Question 76: What is the key difference between True/False/Not Given and Yes/No/Not Given questions?

T/F/NG uses a passage; Y/N/NG uses a graph
T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims (Correct answer)
Y/N/NG is harder than T/F/NG
There is no difference — they are identical

Correct answer: T/F/NG tests facts; Y/N/NG tests the writer's opinions or claims

T/F/NG tests factual information; Y/N/NG tests whether statements agree with the writer's views or claims.

Question 77: A statement adds a detail the passage never mentions. The best answer is:

Not Given (Correct answer)
Yes
True
False

Correct answer: Not Given

Extra unmentioned detail means the information is Not Given.

Question 78: In a matching task, you must connect speakers to opinions. What is essential to track?

How fast they talk
Which speaker expresses which view (Correct answer)
Their accents only
The volume of each speaker

Correct answer: Which speaker expresses which view

Matching tasks require you to attribute each opinion to the correct speaker.

Question 79: A speaker says 'It costs fifteen pounds, not fifty.' What is the correct price?

£50
£15 (Correct answer)
£5
£55

Correct answer: £15

The correction makes the price fifteen pounds, £15.

Question 80: You hear: 'For the city tour, Bus A goes north along the river, stopping at the castle and cathedral. Bus B goes east through the market district, stopping at the old town hall.' A tourist wants to visit the cathedral. Which bus should they take?

Neither bus stops at the cathedral
Either bus — both stop at the cathedral
Bus B, eastbound through market district
Bus A, northbound along the river (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bus A, northbound along the river

Bus A goes north along the river and stops at the castle and cathedral.

Question 81: In IELTS Academic Writing Task 1, what is the minimum word requirement?

100 words
150 words (Correct answer)
120 words
200 words

Correct answer: 150 words

IELTS Writing Task 1 (both Academic and General Training) requires a minimum of 150 words.

Question 82: You hear a phone number read as 'double seven, three, oh, five'. How is it written?

7735
7035
77305 (Correct answer)
773 05

Correct answer: 77305

'Double seven' is 77, then 3, 'oh' is 0, and 5, giving 77305.

Question 83: Which sentence correctly uses 'in case'?

In case take an umbrella it rains.
Take umbrella in case it raining.
Take an umbrella in case, it rains.
Take an umbrella in case it rains. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Take an umbrella in case it rains.

'In case' introduces a precautionary clause without a comma here.

Question 84: Select the best linking word: 'He studied hard; ___, he passed the exam.'

however
consequently (Correct answer)
although
nevertheless

Correct answer: consequently

'Consequently' shows the result of studying hard.

Question 85: Why should you avoid changing many answers at the end?

First careful readings are often correct (Correct answer)
It wastes the answer sheet
Changing answers is impossible
It is against the rules

Correct answer: First careful readings are often correct

Initial reasoning based on the text is usually reliable, so avoid second-guessing.

Question 86: Which sentence best paraphrases the task instruction 'Describe what the maps show' in your introduction?

I am going to describe the two maps below.
The two maps illustrate the changes that took place in the town between 1980 and 2020. (Correct answer)
The two maps show what happened.
The maps are about a town.

Correct answer: The two maps illustrate the changes that took place in the town between 1980 and 2020.

A good introduction paraphrases the task using varied vocabulary ('illustrate', 'changes that took place') and includes the specific time frame.

Question 87: Passage: 'Public libraries have evolved beyond mere book repositories to become community hubs offering digital access, learning programmes, and social services for all ages.' Sentence to complete: Modern libraries serve as community ___, providing digital access and services beyond simply lending books.

centres
archives
hubs (Correct answer)
institutions

Correct answer: hubs

'Community hubs' is used directly in the passage.

Question 88: Passage: 'Coral reefs, often called the rainforests of the sea, support an extraordinary diversity of marine life despite covering less than one percent of the ocean floor.' Sentence to complete: Coral reefs are remarkable because they support great biodiversity while occupying only a ___ area of the seabed.

protected
large
deep
small (Correct answer)

Correct answer: small

'Less than one percent' paraphrases as a 'small area'.

Question 89: To match headings efficiently under time pressure, you should:

Memorise the headings
Identify the main idea of each paragraph in one phrase (Correct answer)
Skip skimming entirely
Read the passage three times

Correct answer: Identify the main idea of each paragraph in one phrase

Summarising each paragraph in your own phrase speeds matching.

Question 90: You hear: 'The participant needs to bring a sleeping bag and a waterproof jacket.' The packing list has: sleeping bag and ___. What should be written?

warm jacket
waterproof coat
raincoat
waterproof jacket (Correct answer)

Correct answer: waterproof jacket

The speaker says 'a waterproof jacket' as the second item.

Question 91: Paraphrasing in the passage means you should:

Look only for exact word matches
Ignore the passage entirely
Always answer Not Given
Recognize synonyms and rephrased ideas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Recognize synonyms and rephrased ideas

IELTS often rephrases ideas, so matching meaning beats matching exact words.

Question 92: In IELTS Listening Section 1, what type of conversation will you typically hear?

A monologue by a single speaker
A conversation between two people in an everyday social context (Correct answer)
A group discussion among four students
A lecture on an academic topic

Correct answer: A conversation between two people in an everyday social context

Section 1 is a conversation between two people set in an everyday social context, such as booking accommodation.

Question 93: Which IELTS module is typically required for university admission to undergraduate and postgraduate programs?

Either, no preference
Life Skills
General Training
Academic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Academic

Academic IELTS assesses readiness for university-level study and is required by most higher-education institutions.

Question 94: Which is a key technique in Writing Skills & Composition?

Technique related to Writing Skills & Composition.
Minor detail in Writing Skills & Composition.
Useful strategy for Writing Skills & Composition. (Correct answer)
Complex aspect of Writing Skills & Composition.

Correct answer: Useful strategy for Writing Skills & Composition.

A 'key technique' in Writing Skills & Composition is an effective method or approach used to achieve a specific writing goal. Therefore, a 'useful strategy' precisely defines what a key technique is, as it implies a deliberate and effective plan for improving writing. The other options are either too vague or describe an attribute rather than the nature of the technique itself.

Question 95: The heading 'Reasons for the change' best suits a paragraph focused on:

Causes behind a development (Correct answer)
The change's location
An unrelated example
A list of dates

Correct answer: Causes behind a development

'Reasons' points to causes.

Question 96: A candidate writes a Task 1 process description but does not include an overview. What will this most likely affect?

Grammatical Range and Accuracy, because the overview tests grammar
Coherence and Cohesion only, because the overview is a structural feature
Task Achievement score, because the task requires both an overview and details (Correct answer)
Lexical Resource, because overview vocabulary is tested separately

Correct answer: Task Achievement score, because the task requires both an overview and details

Missing an overview directly impacts Task Achievement, as including an overview demonstrating the big picture is a core requirement of the task.

Question 97: Using overly informal language like 'gonna' or 'kids' in Task 2 affects what?

It has no effect
It improves coherence
It lowers register appropriateness in Lexical Resource (Correct answer)
It increases your word count score

Correct answer: It lowers register appropriateness in Lexical Resource

Task 2 expects a formal, academic register, so slang reduces your score.

Question 98: Passage: 'Glaciers act as natural freshwater reservoirs, storing water as ice and slowly releasing it during warmer months to feed rivers and sustain ecosystems downstream.' Sentence to complete: Glaciers function as natural stores of ___ water, gradually supplying rivers and downstream habitats in summer.

freshwater (Correct answer)
frozen
underground
saltwater

Correct answer: freshwater

'Natural freshwater reservoirs' is directly paraphrased as 'natural stores of freshwater'.

Question 99: What is a good final-minute strategy if time is running out?

Reread the first passage
Leave remaining questions blank
Erase earlier answers
Quickly fill in best guesses for every unanswered question (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quickly fill in best guesses for every unanswered question

Because there is no penalty for wrong answers, filling every blank with a guess maximizes your chances.

Question 100: A process shows that raw cotton is cleaned, spun, woven and finally dyed. An appropriate overview is:

Overall, the process is complicated and uses modern machinery.
Overall, the process involves four main stages, transforming raw cotton into a finished dyed fabric. (Correct answer)
Overall, raw cotton is cleaned first, then it is spun, then it is woven, and then it is dyed.
Overall, cotton is a natural material used in the textile industry worldwide.

Correct answer: Overall, the process involves four main stages, transforming raw cotton into a finished dyed fabric.

The best overview names the number of stages and the transformation from start (raw cotton) to end (finished fabric) without listing every step.

Question 101: In a form-completion task, you hear 'My surname is spelled D-O-U-G-H-E-R-T-Y'. What do you write?

Dougherty (Correct answer)
Daugherty
Dougerty
Doherty

Correct answer: Dougherty

Writing the exact letters spelled aloud gives 'Dougherty'.

Question 102: When you hear a date said as 'the third of March', how is it commonly written on the answer sheet?

Third March
3/3 must be avoided entirely
3 March (Correct answer)
March 3rd only as words

Correct answer: 3 March

'3 March' is a clear, accepted way to write the spoken date.

Question 103: When sequencing the steps of a process, which set of linking phrases is most appropriate?

For example, such as, in other words, namely
However, on the other hand, in contrast, nevertheless
In conclusion, to sum up, overall, in brief
First, then, after that, subsequently, finally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: First, then, after that, subsequently, finally

Sequential linkers (first, then, subsequently, finally) guide the reader through each stage in order.

Question 104: Which sentence demonstrates the highest level of grammatical complexity for Task 2?

Governments should reduce carbon emissions because this is important.
Many people think that carbon emissions are a problem for governments.
It is widely acknowledged that the measures governments adopt to reduce carbon emissions, however well-intentioned, often fail to address the root causes of environmental degradation. (Correct answer)
Carbon emissions are bad and governments need to do more about them.

Correct answer: It is widely acknowledged that the measures governments adopt to reduce carbon emissions, however well-intentioned, often fail to address the root causes of environmental degradation.

Option A uses a passive reporting clause, a concessive insertion ('however well-intentioned'), and a complex noun phrase, demonstrating sophisticated grammar.

Question 105: Reading Passage has nine sections, A-I. Which section contains the information? a hypothesis as to one reason behind the growth in classroom noise

F
G
H
C
A
D
E
B (Correct answer)
I

Correct answer: B

Section B of a passage frequently introduces background information, defines terms, or presents initial theories and observations. A 'hypothesis as to one reason behind the growth in classroom noise' would logically appear here, as it sets up a problem and proposes a potential explanation for it, which might then be explored further in subsequent sections.

Question 106: A process diagram has 7 stages. Which overview best captures this?

Overall, the process is very interesting and shows how the product is made efficiently.
Overall, the diagram shows that the process takes place in a factory.
Overall, the process involves seven distinct stages, beginning with raw material extraction and ending with a finished product. (Correct answer)
Overall, the first stage is extraction, the second is crushing, the third is mixing, the fourth is heating, the fifth is cooling, the sixth is packaging and the seventh is distribution.

Correct answer: Overall, the process involves seven distinct stages, beginning with raw material extraction and ending with a finished product.

A good overview names the number of stages, the starting point and the end point without listing every step individually.

Question 107: A guide says the museum is "free for under-eighteens." Who gets free entry?

People under 80
Everyone
People over 18
People under 18 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: People under 18

"Under-eighteens" means people younger than 18 enter free.

Question 108: A Task 2 prompt states: 'Many people think that social media has had a largely negative effect on society. To what extent do you agree or disagree?' This requires:

A problem-solution essay outlining causes and remedies
A discussion essay presenting both sides equally without a personal view
An advantages-disadvantages essay with no personal conclusion
An opinion essay in which the writer clearly states and defends their position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An opinion essay in which the writer clearly states and defends their position

'To what extent do you agree or disagree?' explicitly requests the writer's personal stance and degree of agreement, making this an opinion essay.

Question 109: "The flight departs at fourteen hundred hours." What time is that?

4:00 PM
10:00 AM
2:00 PM (Correct answer)
12:00 PM

Correct answer: 2:00 PM

Fourteen hundred hours in 24-hour time is 2:00 PM.

Question 110: When preparing for the 'Matching Headings' task, what does the strategy of 'paraphrasing the headings' primarily involve?

Rewriting each heading to be longer and more detailed.
Translating the headings into your native language for better understanding.
Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading. (Correct answer)
Finding the exact heading phrase somewhere within the reading passage.

Correct answer: Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading.

Paraphrasing the headings involves thinking about the core meaning and considering synonyms or alternative phrasing. This is crucial because the text will likely use different words to express the same idea presented in the heading.

Question 111: You hear: 'The library card number is LB-8814-C.' The form asks: Card number: ___. What should be written?

LB-8814-D
LB-8814-B
LB-8814-C (Correct answer)
LB-8841-C

Correct answer: LB-8814-C

The card number LB-8814-C is stated directly.

Question 112: You hear: 'The cycle hire scheme operates at three locations: Station Square, Riverside Park, and the University. Bikes can be returned to any location, but must be checked out from a staffed kiosk. Kiosks close at 8 p.m.' A cyclist wants to return a bike at 9 p.m. What should they know?

Kiosks remain open 24 hours
They cannot return a bike after 8 p.m.
They must return the bike to Station Square only after 8 p.m.
They can return a bike at any location regardless of kiosk hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They can return a bike at any location regardless of kiosk hours

The restriction (kiosk hours) applies to check-out only; bikes can be returned to any location, so a 9 p.m. return is fine.

Question 113: When asked 'Do you agree with that view?', a high-band Part 3 candidate typically:

Says 'It's a personal matter' and offers no opinion.
Agrees immediately to show politeness.
Considers the question, partially agrees or disagrees, and explains the conditions under which the view holds. (Correct answer)
Disagrees forcefully to appear confident.

Correct answer: Considers the question, partially agrees or disagrees, and explains the conditions under which the view holds.

Conditional agreement ('I'd agree to some extent, particularly when… but less so in cases where…') demonstrates nuanced reasoning.

Question 114: Which of the following is the best example of using hedging language appropriately in Task 2?

It is a fact that technology has made life better for all people worldwide.
Technology definitely always makes life better for everyone in every situation.
Technology is bad and makes life worse, as any sensible person can see.
It could be argued that technological innovation may not always lead to improved quality of life. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It could be argued that technological innovation may not always lead to improved quality of life.

Hedging language ('could be argued', 'may not always') shows academic caution and appropriate qualification, which is rewarded in Task 2 writing.

Question 115: What is wrong with 'The percentage of people increased to double.'?

Nothing is wrong
Should use future tense
Should be 'increase to double'
Should be 'doubled' or 'increased twofold' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Should be 'doubled' or 'increased twofold'

Correct usage is 'doubled' or 'increased twofold'.

Question 116: A speaker says 'the lecture is in Room B12, that's B as in Bravo, one, two'. What is the room?

P12
D12
B20
B12 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: B12

The clarification 'B as in Bravo' confirms the room is B12.

Question 117: Which is a key technique in Grammar & Sentence Structure?

Minor detail in Grammar & Sentence Structure.
Complex aspect of Grammar & Sentence Structure.
Useful strategy for Grammar & Sentence Structure. (Correct answer)
Technique related to Grammar & Sentence Structure.

Correct answer: Useful strategy for Grammar & Sentence Structure.

Similar to vocabulary, a 'key technique' in grammar and sentence structure refers to a practical and effective method for improvement or application. A 'useful strategy' precisely describes such a technique, offering a direct approach to mastering or applying grammatical rules and sentence construction effectively. It provides actionable steps for learning and applying the skill.

Question 118: How does the Speaking section compare between the two IELTS versions?

They are identical (Correct answer)
Academic is harder
Academic has no interview
General Training has 4 parts

Correct answer: They are identical

The Speaking test is the same format and content for both Academic and General Training.

Question 119: Passage: 'The development of vaccines against infectious diseases has saved hundreds of millions of lives and is considered one of the greatest achievements in the history of public health.' Summary to complete: Vaccines are regarded as one of public health's greatest ___, having prevented death on a massive scale.

investments
experiments
achievements (Correct answer)
challenges

Correct answer: achievements

'Greatest achievements in the history of public health' is used directly in the passage.

Question 120: A General Training letter prompt gives three bullet points. What should you do with them?

Choose only one to write about
Address all three points (Correct answer)
Answer only the first two
Ignore them and write freely

Correct answer: Address all three points

All bullet points must be covered for full task achievement.

International English Language Testing System (IELTS)

IELTS is an international standardized test of English language proficiency for non-native English language speakers.

120

Questions

165 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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