International English Language Testing System (IELTS) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: You hear: 'The annual fee goes up by five percent in January.' The notes say: Fee increase: ___% in January. What should be written?

10
3
5 (Correct answer)
15

Correct answer: 5

Five percent is stated as the increase.

Question 2: What is the best mindset for True/False/Not Given questions?

Answer Not Given when unsure every time
Guess randomly to save time
Assume statements are usually true
Treat each statement as a claim to test against the text (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Treat each statement as a claim to test against the text

Each statement should be objectively tested against what the passage actually says.

Question 3: Why is reading the title and any subheadings before the passage helpful?

It wastes time
It reveals the answers directly
It gives context and predicts the topic, aiding comprehension (Correct answer)
It is forbidden

Correct answer: It gives context and predicts the topic, aiding comprehension

Previewing titles and subheadings builds context that speeds up understanding the passage.

Question 4: Passage: 'Social media platforms have been criticised for amplifying misinformation, as algorithms tend to promote content that generates strong emotional reactions regardless of its accuracy.' Sentence to complete: Critics argue that social media spreads false information because its algorithms favour content that provokes ___ responses.

intellectual
emotional (Correct answer)
financial
political

Correct answer: emotional

'Strong emotional reactions' is paraphrased as 'provokes emotional responses'.

Question 5: Which description best combines two simultaneous stages in a process?

While the bottles are being filled, the labels are printed. (Correct answer)
The bottles are filled; however, the labels are printed.
First the bottles are being filled, then the labels are printed.
The bottles are filled, and therefore the labels are printed.

Correct answer: While the bottles are being filled, the labels are printed.

'While' with a progressive passive ('are being filled') perfectly expresses two actions happening simultaneously in the same process.

Question 6: Passage: 'Noise pollution from traffic and industry has been linked to elevated blood pressure, sleep disturbance, and increased levels of stress hormones in urban residents.' Summary to complete: Urban noise from traffic and industry can raise blood pressure, disrupt sleep, and increase ___ hormones.

digestive
growth
immune
stress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: stress

'Increased levels of stress hormones' is used directly in the passage.

Question 7: What is a common trap in True/False/Not Given questions?

Assuming 'Not Given' when the text actually contradicts the statement (Correct answer)
Questions being too short
Statements using identical words to the passage
All answers being True

Correct answer: Assuming 'Not Given' when the text actually contradicts the statement

Test-takers often pick 'Not Given' when careful reading shows the text truly contradicts the statement.

Question 8: Which reading section of IELTS uses True/False/Not Given questions?

Only Academic
Neither — only Yes/No/Not Given is used
Both Academic and General Training (Correct answer)
Only General Training

Correct answer: Both Academic and General Training

True/False/Not Given questions appear in both IELTS Academic and General Training reading sections.

Question 9: If you finish speaking before the time is up, what may the examiner do?

End the test immediately
Give you a new cue card
Ask one or two rounding-off questions (Correct answer)
Lower your score automatically

Correct answer: Ask one or two rounding-off questions

The examiner may ask a short follow-up question to round off the topic before moving on.

Question 10: How many questions are in the entire IELTS Reading section?

50 questions
20 questions
40 questions (Correct answer)
30 questions

Correct answer: 40 questions

The IELTS Reading section contains 40 questions in total, distributed across three passages.

Question 11: Which section of IELTS Listening features an academic monologue or lecture?

Section 2
Section 3
Section 1
Section 4 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Section 4

Section 4 is a monologue on an academic subject, the most challenging part.

Question 12: Which phrase best shows you can speculate, useful for Part 3?

Yes, definitely.
It might be the case that... (Correct answer)
No comment.
I like it.

Correct answer: It might be the case that...

Hedging language like 'might be' demonstrates nuanced, advanced expression.

Question 13: How many words should you typically write for a True/False/Not Given answer?

Two paragraphs
Just one word or the correct label (Correct answer)
Three to five words
A full sentence

Correct answer: Just one word or the correct label

You write only True, False, or Not Given (or the equivalent label).

Question 14: It is likely that some psychologists are no better than anyone else at assessing personality.

NO
YES (Correct answer)
NOT GIVEN

Correct answer: YES

The passage highlights the inherent difficulties and lack of definitive, widely applicable methods in personality assessment, even for trained psychologists. It suggests that the field is so complex and subjective that, in many instances, the judgments of an expert may not be demonstrably superior to those of an untrained individual. This directly supports the idea that some psychologists might not be better than anyone else at this task.

Question 15: Choose the correct heading for Paragraph A

The advantage of an intuitive approach to personality assessment
The need for a different kind of research into personality assessment
The consequences of poor personality assessment
Overall theories of personality assessment rather than valuable guidance
Success and failure in establishing an approach to personality assessment
Everyone makes personality assessments (Correct answer)
Differing views on the importance of personality assessment
Little progress towards a widely applicable approach to personality assessment
Acknowledgement of the need for improvement in personality assessment
The need for personality assessments to be welhjudged

Correct answer: Everyone makes personality assessments

The correct answer is F) Everyone makes personality assessments. This heading suggests that Paragraph A likely introduces the concept of personality assessment as a universal human activity, something people do constantly in their daily interactions. The paragraph would probably discuss how individuals naturally form judgments about others' personalities.

Question 16: Passage: 'Soil erosion is accelerated by deforestation, as tree roots that would otherwise anchor soil are removed, leaving it vulnerable to being washed or blown away.' Sentence to complete: Without trees, which ___ the soil with their roots, erosion occurs more rapidly through wind and rain.

drain
nourish
compress
anchor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: anchor

'Tree roots that would otherwise anchor soil' is used directly in the passage.

Question 17: How does Writing Task 2 compare across the two versions?

Both require an essay, but Academic topics are often more abstract (Correct answer)
Only Academic has Task 2
General Training has no essay
They use identical prompts

Correct answer: Both require an essay, but Academic topics are often more abstract

Both versions require an essay in Task 2, though Academic prompts tend to be more abstract or academic in style.

Question 18: What should you do if two answers seem possible between False and Not Given?

Skip the question
Always pick True
Check if the text actually contradicts the statement (Correct answer)
Pick the longer option

Correct answer: Check if the text actually contradicts the statement

If there is a genuine contradiction it is False; otherwise Not Given.

Question 19: In Task 1, what should the overview paragraph contain?

Main trends and key features (Correct answer)
Specific data figures
Reasons for the trends
Your personal opinion

Correct answer: Main trends and key features

The overview summarises the most noticeable trends without detailed data.

Question 20: Passage: 'The discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in 1928 revolutionised medicine by providing an effective treatment for bacterial infections that had previously been fatal.' Summary to complete: Penicillin transformed medicine because it could ___ bacterial infections that used to kill patients.

study
prevent
transmit
treat (Correct answer)

Correct answer: treat

'Providing an effective treatment' is paraphrased as 'treat bacterial infections'.

Question 21: What does Band 7 in IELTS represent?

Basic user — limited understanding
Good user — handles complex language well, with occasional inaccuracies (Correct answer)
Competent user — generally effective command with some inaccuracies
Expert user — full operational command

Correct answer: Good user — handles complex language well, with occasional inaccuracies

Band 7 is described as a 'Good user' — generally handles complex language well with occasional errors.

Question 22: Which word correctly completes the sentence? 'The committee reached a ______ decision after lengthy deliberations.'

united
unanimous (Correct answer)
collective
joint

Correct answer: unanimous

'Unanimous decision' means every member agreed — it is the precise academic/formal collocation; 'collective' and 'joint' imply shared but not necessarily total agreement.

Question 23: Which statement about thesis statements in Task 2 is correct?

A thesis statement should clearly state the writer's position or the essay's main argument in the introduction (Correct answer)
A thesis statement must be placed in the middle of the essay for balance
A thesis statement is optional and only needed for opinion essays
A thesis statement should list every argument that will appear in the body paragraphs in detail

Correct answer: A thesis statement should clearly state the writer's position or the essay's main argument in the introduction

A thesis statement in the introduction orients the reader to the writer's position or the essay's approach; it is required for all Task 2 essay types.

Question 24: You will hear a radio announcement about a local charity run. What is the registration fee for an individual adult participant?

£10
£25
£20 (Correct answer)
£15

Correct answer: £20

The announcer provides different fee structures: 'Entry for children under 16 is just £10, and we have a special family ticket for £50. For individual adult runners, the registration fee is £20.' The question specifically asks for the individual adult fee, which is stated as £20.

Question 25: "Check-in closes at twenty to eleven." When does check-in close?

10:20
11:40
11:20
10:40 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10:40

Twenty to eleven is twenty minutes before eleven, so 10:40.

Question 26: What should the conclusion of an advantages/disadvantages essay include?

A detailed list of recommendations
Only the writer's personal anecdotes
A summary of the main advantages and disadvantages discussed (Correct answer)
New arguments not mentioned in the body

Correct answer: A summary of the main advantages and disadvantages discussed

The conclusion should summarize the key points already discussed without introducing any new information.

Question 27: You hear: 'The new sports complex will include an Olympic-sized swimming pool, two indoor tennis courts, and a gymnasium. A climbing wall was originally planned but was removed from the final design due to budget constraints.' Which feature was REMOVED from the plans?

The indoor tennis courts
The Olympic-sized swimming pool
The gymnasium
The climbing wall (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The climbing wall

The speaker states the climbing wall was removed from the final design due to budget constraints.

Question 28: In IELTS, if a passage says a study 'suggests' something might be true, and a statement claims it 'proves' the same thing, what is the answer?

FALSE — 'suggests' and 'proves' have different levels of certainty (Correct answer)
YES — academic language often uses these interchangeably
TRUE — the meaning is similar enough
NOT GIVEN — the passage is unclear

Correct answer: FALSE — 'suggests' and 'proves' have different levels of certainty

'Suggests' implies possibility; 'proves' implies certainty. These are different, making the statement FALSE.

Question 29: Which collocation is CORRECT in academic English?

arrive at a conclusion (Correct answer)
make a conclusion
take a conclusion
do a conclusion

Correct answer: arrive at a conclusion

'Arrive at a conclusion' is the standard academic collocation; 'reach a conclusion' is also correct; the other options do not collocate with 'conclusion' in formal writing.

Question 30: Should you spend equal time on each True/False/Not Given question?

Yes, spend ten minutes on the hardest
Yes, always exactly two minutes each
No, manage time and move on if stuck (Correct answer)
No, skip them all

Correct answer: No, manage time and move on if stuck

Effective time management means not getting stuck on a single item.

Question 31: A speaker says 'It costs fifteen pounds, not fifty.' What is the correct price?

£5
£55
£15 (Correct answer)
£50

Correct answer: £15

The correction makes the price fifteen pounds, £15.

Question 32: Which is the best example of a discourse marker for adding contrast?

In conclusion
On the other hand (Correct answer)
First of all
For example

Correct answer: On the other hand

'On the other hand' signals a contrasting idea, aiding coherence.

Question 33: The examiner asks: 'Do you think social media has had a mostly positive or negative effect on society?' A candidate says: 'It's tempting to give a clear-cut answer, but I think the reality is more complicated.' What should they say next?

Change topic.
Follow through with a genuinely developed argument that explores both sides with evidence and a reasoned position. (Correct answer)
Apologise for not having a clear answer.
Stop — they have already answered the question.

Correct answer: Follow through with a genuinely developed argument that explores both sides with evidence and a reasoned position.

Acknowledging complexity sets up a high-band answer but must be followed by substantive development — the opener alone earns nothing.

Question 34: Tomorrow is the first day of the company's .\t

intensification\t
initiation\t (Correct answer)
exploration\t
termination\t

Correct answer: initiation\t

The sentence 'Tomorrow is the first day of the company's ____.' requires a word that means beginning or start. 'Initiation' fits perfectly in this context, referring to the formal beginning or establishment of the company's operations. The other options do not convey this meaning of starting or commencing an activity.

Question 35: You hear: 'The price includes breakfast but not lunch or dinner.' The notes say: Meals included: ___. What should be written?

dinner
all meals
lunch
breakfast (Correct answer)

Correct answer: breakfast

Only breakfast is explicitly included in the price.

Question 36: How long should a General Training Task 1 letter be?

At least 150 words (Correct answer)
At least 250 words
At least 300 words
At least 100 words

Correct answer: At least 150 words

The letter must be at least 150 words.

Question 37: In a lecture about noise pollution, a professor says: 'Studies show traffic noise affects not only sleep but also cardiovascular health, cognitive performance in children, AND mental wellbeing in adults.' Which THREE areas are mentioned as affected by traffic noise?

Cardiovascular health, mental wellbeing, and hearing loss
Cognitive performance, hearing loss, and sleep quality
Sleep, learning ability, and mental wellbeing
Sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children

The professor explicitly lists sleep, cardiovascular health, and cognitive performance in children as three areas affected.

Question 38: What is the key advantage of taking computer-delivered IELTS over paper-based IELTS?

Only computer-based IELTS is accepted by universities
Computer-based tests are cheaper
The questions are easier on computer
Results are typically available within 3–5 days rather than 13 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Results are typically available within 3–5 days rather than 13 days

Computer-delivered IELTS results are typically available within 3–5 days, compared to 13 days for paper-based.

Question 39: You hear: 'The course runs on Tuesday and Thursday evenings, from half past six.' The notes say: Days: Tuesday and ___. What should be written?

Thursday (Correct answer)
Friday
Saturday
Wednesday

Correct answer: Thursday

The speaker clearly states 'Tuesday and Thursday evenings'.

Question 40: A candidate uses 'moreover', 'furthermore', 'additionally', and 'in addition' in the same paragraph. What is the likely examiner feedback?

Excellent range of linkers showing high Coherence and Cohesion
Over-reliance on additive linkers, with insufficient variety across different cohesive device types (Correct answer)
Grammatical error, as additive linkers cannot be used multiple times
Task Achievement issue, as these linkers are only appropriate in problem-solution essays

Correct answer: Over-reliance on additive linkers, with insufficient variety across different cohesive device types

Using too many additive linkers signals mechanical over-use rather than natural cohesion; examiners reward varied use of different types of cohesive devices.

Question 41: When should you choose 'NOT GIVEN' in a True/False/Not Given question?

When the passage partially supports the statement
When the statement uses different words from the passage
When the passage neither confirms nor contradicts the statement (Correct answer)
When the statement is false

Correct answer: When the passage neither confirms nor contradicts the statement

'NOT GIVEN' applies when the passage provides no information to confirm or deny the statement.

Question 42: A response that frequently goes off-topic most directly lowers which area?

Task Response (Correct answer)
Grammatical Range
Lexical Resource
Spelling

Correct answer: Task Response

Irrelevant content reduces the Task Response score.

Question 43: Research since 1940 has been based on acceptance of previous theories.

NOT GIVEN
NO (Correct answer)
YES

Correct answer: NO

The text indicates that research since 1940 has often involved new approaches or a re-evaluation of existing theories, rather than simply accepting them. It suggests a shift in methodology or a critical examination of previous frameworks. Therefore, the statement that research has been *based on acceptance* of previous theories is contradicted, making the answer 'NO'.

Question 44: You hear: 'The candidate's date of birth is the twenty-second of June, 1998.' The form asks: Date of birth: ___. What should be written?

22/07/1998
22/06/1988
12/06/1998
22/06/1998 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 22/06/1998

Twenty-second of June 1998 = 22/06/1998.

Question 45: You hear: 'For overseas applications, candidates must submit a certified copy of their passport, two academic references, AND a personal statement of no more than 500 words. Bank statements are NOT required at this stage.' What documents are required?

Passport copy, bank statements, and one academic reference
Personal statement, bank statements, and two references
Passport copy and one academic reference only
Passport copy, two academic references, and a personal statement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Passport copy, two academic references, and a personal statement

The three required documents are: certified passport copy, two academic references, and a personal statement. Bank statements are explicitly excluded.

Question 46: A student is listening to campus directions: 'The IT support office was relocated last month. It's no longer in Block C. You'll find it in Block A, on the ground floor, just past the reception desk.' Where is IT support now?

Block A, ground floor, past reception (Correct answer)
Block C, first floor
Block B, adjacent to reception
Block C, ground floor

Correct answer: Block A, ground floor, past reception

The speaker says IT support relocated to Block A, ground floor, just past the reception desk.

Question 47: You hear: 'The study found three benefits of bilingualism: improved executive function, delayed onset of dementia, AND greater empathy. Some earlier studies claimed higher IQ scores, but this was not replicated.' Which benefit was NOT supported by the study?

Delayed onset of dementia
Higher IQ scores (Correct answer)
Improved executive function
Greater empathy

Correct answer: Higher IQ scores

Higher IQ scores were claimed in earlier studies but were not replicated in this study.

Question 48: What time limit is given for the IELTS Academic Reading section?

90 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
60 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60 minutes

IELTS Academic Reading gives candidates 60 minutes to answer 40 questions across three passages.

Question 49: Which conclusion correctly summarises a 'discuss both views' essay without introducing new ideas?

In conclusion, governments should ban fast food because obesity is rising rapidly across the world.
In conclusion, while some believe fast food bans protect public health, others prioritise individual freedom; on balance, education campaigns are a more practical approach. (Correct answer)
In conclusion, I have discussed both sides of the argument in detail in the body paragraphs above.
In conclusion, there are many views about fast food and this is a complicated issue with no easy answer.

Correct answer: In conclusion, while some believe fast food bans protect public health, others prioritise individual freedom; on balance, education campaigns are a more practical approach.

Option A restates both views, signals a balanced stance, and summarises the writer's position without introducing new arguments.

Question 50: Which approach best supports an argument in an opinion essay?

An emotional plea without reasons
Repeating the same point twice
Explanation plus a relevant specific example (Correct answer)
A long list of statistics you invented

Correct answer: Explanation plus a relevant specific example

Explaining your reasoning and giving a relevant example develops ideas convincingly.

Question 51: Which phrase signals that a speaker is about to give the final, correct answer after hesitation?

As I mentioned earlier
Actually, let me check — yes, it's... (Correct answer)
In addition to that
By the way

Correct answer: Actually, let me check — yes, it's...

'Actually, let me check' signals a correction leading to the right answer.

Question 52: Why is varying your sentence structures important in Speaking?

It improves pronunciation only
It makes the test shorter
It is not assessed at all
It raises your Grammatical Range and Accuracy score (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It raises your Grammatical Range and Accuracy score

Mixing simple and complex structures shows grammatical range.

Question 53: A clerk says, "Your reference is A-as-in-apple, then four, seven, two." What is it?

A472 (Correct answer)
A742
E472
A427

Correct answer: A472

"A as in apple" gives the letter A, followed by 4, 7, 2.

Question 54: You hear: 'The school run starts at eight-fifteen — so please be ready.' The form asks: Pick-up time: ___. What should be written?

8:45
8:15 (Correct answer)
8:30
8:00

Correct answer: 8:15

'Eight-fifteen' = 8:15.

Question 55: A speaker says 'the deadline has been moved forward to Friday' from an original Monday. Is the deadline now earlier or later?

Unchanged
Cancelled
Earlier (Correct answer)
Later

Correct answer: Earlier

'Moved forward' here means brought earlier, to Friday before the next Monday context.

Question 56: Passage: 'Tidal energy harnesses the predictable movement of ocean tides to generate electricity, offering a renewable and reliable source of power compared to solar and wind energy.' Sentence to complete: Unlike solar and wind, tidal energy is both renewable and ___, as tidal movements can be accurately forecast.

clean
portable
reliable (Correct answer)
cheap

Correct answer: reliable

'Reliable source of power' is used in the passage as an advantage of tidal energy over solar and wind.

Question 57: In a museum audio guide: 'You are now facing the central courtyard. The impressionist collection is to your immediate left. The sculpture garden is directly ahead, and the café is behind you.' A visitor wants the sculpture garden. Which direction should they go?

Turn around
Turn right
Go straight ahead (Correct answer)
Turn left

Correct answer: Go straight ahead

The audio guide states the sculpture garden is directly ahead, so the visitor should continue forward.

Question 58: Which is a good way to begin your long turn?

I'd like to talk about... (Correct answer)
Please give me another card
I have nothing to say
Once upon a time the end

Correct answer: I'd like to talk about...

Opening with 'I'd like to talk about' clearly introduces your chosen topic.

Question 59: "Email me at info, all one word, at greenfield dot org." What is the address?

info@greenfield.org (Correct answer)
info@greenfield.com
info@green.org
info@greenfields.org

Correct answer: info@greenfield.org

The spoken parts give info@greenfield.org.

Question 60: What is the best response if the examiner says 'stop' before you feel finished?

Ask to restart the topic
Stop immediately and calmly (Correct answer)
Refuse and continue louder
Keep talking until you finish

Correct answer: Stop immediately and calmly

When the examiner signals time is up, you should stop promptly without protest.

Question 61: A radio programme states: 'Renewable energy investment fell last year for the first time in a decade, primarily due to policy uncertainty rather than lack of technological progress.' What was the PRIMARY reason for the decline?

High manufacturing costs
Reduced public interest in green energy
Policy uncertainty (Correct answer)
Lack of technological progress

Correct answer: Policy uncertainty

The speaker says the primary reason was policy uncertainty, explicitly ruling out lack of technological progress.

Question 62: A student's essay about pollution has the topic sentence: 'Pollution is bad.' What is the main weakness?

It is written in active voice instead of passive voice
It is too vague to control a paragraph; it does not identify a specific argument or aspect of pollution (Correct answer)
It uses a short sentence, which always lowers Grammatical Range and Accuracy scores
It uses the wrong tense — it should say 'Pollution was bad'

Correct answer: It is too vague to control a paragraph; it does not identify a specific argument or aspect of pollution

A vague topic sentence ('Pollution is bad') gives no direction for the paragraph's argument; an effective topic sentence signals the specific claim the paragraph will support.

Question 63: In terms of pronunciation, what does 'connected speech' refer to, and why is it important for high IELTS scores?

Speaking with a very loud, projected voice
Pausing clearly between every word for clarity
Pronouncing every letter in every word precisely
Linking and reducing sounds between words naturally, as in natural spoken English (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Linking and reducing sounds between words naturally, as in natural spoken English

Connected speech features (linking, elision, assimilation) are natural in fluent English and are associated with higher pronunciation bands.

Question 64: Why should you avoid choosing a heading just because it sounds impressive?

Long headings are always wrong
Impressive headings are banned
Match must be based on meaning, not appeal (Correct answer)
Short headings are always right

Correct answer: Match must be based on meaning, not appeal

Correctness depends on meaning alignment, not style.

Question 65: What band score does a candidate typically receive if their advantages/disadvantages essay contains largely irrelevant content and lacks a clear organizational structure?

Below Band 5 (Correct answer)
Band 7-8
Band 8-9
Band 5-6

Correct answer: Below Band 5

Essays with highly irrelevant content and poor organization typically score below Band 5, as they fail to meet the basic requirements of Task Achievement and Coherence/Cohesion.

Question 66: Which sentence correctly uses 'not only ... but also' to expand an argument?

Not only social media spreads misinformation but also exacerbates mental health issues.
Social media not only spreads misinformation but also exacerbates mental health issues. (Correct answer)
Social media spreads misinformation; not only that but also exacerbates mental health issues.
Social media not only spreads misinformation, but it exacerbates mental health issues also.

Correct answer: Social media not only spreads misinformation but also exacerbates mental health issues.

'Not only + verb phrase + but also + verb phrase' is the correct structure; this correlative conjunction adds a second, intensifying point.

Question 67: A map shows a town in 1990 and 2020. A car park has been demolished and a shopping centre now stands in its place. Which sentence is best?

The car park has replaced the shopping centre.
The car park was replaced by a shopping centre. (Correct answer)
The car park replaces a shopping centre.
A shopping centre will replace the car park.

Correct answer: The car park was replaced by a shopping centre.

When comparing two maps showing past change, the simple past passive correctly describes the completed transformation.

Question 68: According to the text which THREE of the following conditions have been scientifically proved to have a psychological effect on humans? Choose THREE letters A—G

food consumption
high serotonin levels (Correct answer)
lack of negative ions
sunny weather (Correct answer)
lack of counselling facilities
rainy weather (Correct answer)
freedom from worry

Correct answer: high serotonin levels

The text provides scientific evidence for 'rainy weather' affecting mood, stating a study showed a counselling service gets more calls from people with suicidal feelings when it rains. It also mentions 'high serotonin levels' making people 'more active and reactive and, possibly, more aggressive.' Furthermore, 'sunny weather' is linked to people becoming 'less sceptical and more optimistic' in studies by psychologists. These three conditions are explicitly supported by scientific findings in the passage.

Question 69: If you misspell 'Not Given' on the answer sheet, what is the risk?

No risk at all
You get bonus points
The answer may be marked wrong (Correct answer)
It becomes True automatically

Correct answer: The answer may be marked wrong

Spelling must be accurate or the answer can be marked incorrect.

Question 70: The bullet points on a cue card are best used as what?

Rules you cannot deviate from
Questions you must answer in writing
A guide to structure your answer (Correct answer)
A list to read aloud verbatim

Correct answer: A guide to structure your answer

The bullet points help you organize and expand your response, not restrict it.

Question 71: What does 'Coherence and Cohesion' primarily measure?

Spelling only
Logical organisation and effective linking of ideas (Correct answer)
Number of words
Handwriting neatness

Correct answer: Logical organisation and effective linking of ideas

It assesses how ideas are organised and connected.

Question 72: You hear: 'The shortlisted candidates will be contacted by email by the end of this week. Unsuccessful applicants will receive a letter within four weeks. Please do not contact the office — we will reach out to you.' How will shortlisted candidates be contacted?

By visiting the office
By phone call
By email by the end of the week (Correct answer)
By letter within four weeks

Correct answer: By email by the end of the week

Shortlisted candidates will be contacted by email by the end of the week.

Question 73: What does the instruction 'choose TWO letters' in a multiple-choice question require?

Two separate correct options from the list (Correct answer)
Two words written out
The first two options always
Two full sentences

Correct answer: Two separate correct options from the list

You must select two correct options, both of which earn the mark.

Question 74: A process has three main phases: raw material preparation, manufacturing, and packaging. How should you organise your body paragraphs?

Three paragraphs, each starting with the same sequencing word
One sentence per stage across a single long paragraph
One paragraph per phase, grouping related stages together (Correct answer)
Describe the stages in reverse order to create variety

Correct answer: One paragraph per phase, grouping related stages together

Grouping related stages into clearly defined paragraphs demonstrates organisation and coherence, which directly affects the Coherence and Cohesion score.

Question 75: Passage: 'Bats play a crucial ecological role as pollinators, particularly for plants that flower at night, as many bat species feed on nectar.' Sentence to complete: Many nocturnal plants depend on bats for ___, as bats feed on the nectar of night-flowering species.

reproduction
protection
dispersal
pollination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: pollination

'Pollinators' in the passage becomes 'pollination' in the sentence.

Question 76: What does the idiom 'to break the ice' mean?

To ease initial social tension (Correct answer)
To cancel plans
To cool a drink
To start a fight

Correct answer: To ease initial social tension

'Break the ice' means to relieve tension and start a conversation in an awkward situation.

Question 77: What final bullet point often appears on a cue card?

And read the passage...
And spell the word...
And list ten facts...
And explain why... (Correct answer)

Correct answer: And explain why...

Cue cards usually end with an 'explain why' prompt asking for reasons or feelings.

Question 78: Which sentence correctly uses 'compared to'?

Exports doubled comparing imports.
Exports doubled compare to imports.
Exports doubled compared with the more than imports.
Exports doubled compared to imports. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Exports doubled compared to imports.

'Compared to imports' is grammatically correct.

Question 79: A test-taker finds two headings that seem very similar in meaning. What is the recommended strategy in this situation?

Leave the paragraph and come back to it only after matching all other paragraphs.
Choose one at random and move on to save time.
Analyze the subtle differences in meaning between the two headings and how they relate to the paragraph's main focus. (Correct answer)
Select the heading that is shorter and seems more general.

Correct answer: Analyze the subtle differences in meaning between the two headings and how they relate to the paragraph's main focus.

When headings appear similar, it is important to carefully analyze the nuances and subtle differences in their meanings. The correct heading will more precisely capture the entire paragraph's main idea, while the incorrect one might only relate to a part of it or have a slightly different focus.

Question 80: In a seminar, the speaker says: 'Three theories explain language acquisition: behaviourism, which focuses on imitation; nativism, which posits an innate grammar device; and interactionism, which combines social input with cognitive factors.' Which theory emphasises an INNATE grammar device?

Behaviourism
Constructivism
Interactionism
Nativism (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nativism

Nativism posits an innate language acquisition device, as stated by the speaker.

Question 81: Which preposition correctly completes: 'The figure rose ___ 20% to 60%.'?

by (Correct answer)
at
of
for

Correct answer: by

'Rose by' expresses the amount of the change.

Question 82: A candidate writes: 'The factory is situated in the north of the city, close to the motorway.' This sentence demonstrates:

A grammatical error because 'close to' cannot follow 'situated'
Appropriate use of location vocabulary in present simple to describe a fixed feature (Correct answer)
Inappropriate personalisation of the map response
Incorrect tense — it should use past simple for map descriptions

Correct answer: Appropriate use of location vocabulary in present simple to describe a fixed feature

Present simple is correct for fixed current features; 'situated in' and 'close to' are standard, formal location expressions for map writing.

Question 83: What does 'FALSE' indicate in a True/False/Not Given question?

The statement is partially correct
The information is not discussed in the passage
The writer is unsure about the information
The passage contradicts the statement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The passage contradicts the statement

'FALSE' means the passage directly contradicts or disagrees with the statement.

Question 84: A passage states: 'Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.' A statement reads: 'Antibiotics can be used to treat the flu.' What is the answer?

NOT GIVEN
TRUE
YES
FALSE (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FALSE

The flu is a viral infection; the passage says antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections — so this is FALSE.

Question 85: Which is the best way to end an opinion essay's conclusion?

Restate your opinion and summarize key reasons (Correct answer)
Ask the reader a question
Apologize for the length
Introduce a brand-new argument

Correct answer: Restate your opinion and summarize key reasons

A strong conclusion reaffirms your stance and briefly recaps the supporting reasons.

Question 86: What does 'level off' mean when describing a trend?

Drop suddenly
Move up and down
Stop changing and stay steady (Correct answer)
Rise rapidly

Correct answer: Stop changing and stay steady

'Level off' means the trend becomes stable after changing.

Question 87: Archaeology involves creativity as well as careful investigative work.

NO
NOT GIVEN
YES (Correct answer)

Correct answer: YES

Archaeology involves interpreting fragmented evidence from the past to reconstruct ancient societies and cultures. This process requires not only careful investigative work but also creative thinking to connect disparate pieces of evidence and formulate theories about human behavior and societal structures. Therefore, creativity is an essential component of archaeological practice.

Question 88: A phone message says: 'Your parcel could not be delivered today because no one was home. It is now being held at the depot on Crane Street, NOT at your local post office. You must collect it by Friday.' Where is the parcel?

At the local post office
Being redelivered tomorrow
Returned to the sender
At the depot on Crane Street (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At the depot on Crane Street

The message explicitly says the parcel is at the depot on Crane Street, not at the local post office.

Question 89: A candidate in Part 3 says: 'That's a very difficult question.' How should they follow this up?

Stop speaking and wait for the examiner to move on.
Continue with a meaningful answer, as the phrase itself buys thinking time before elaboration. (Correct answer)
Apologise and give a short answer.
Ask the examiner to rephrase.

Correct answer: Continue with a meaningful answer, as the phrase itself buys thinking time before elaboration.

Acknowledging complexity before answering is acceptable as a thinking strategy, provided the candidate follows through with developed content.

Question 90: What is the recommended minimum word count for Writing Task 1 in both versions?

200 words
100 words
250 words
150 words (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 150 words

Task 1 (graph or letter) should be at least 150 words in both versions.

Question 91: Locating the right part of the passage is easier if you:

Start from the last paragraph
Use names, dates, and unique keywords (Correct answer)
Memorize all paragraphs
Read every word slowly

Correct answer: Use names, dates, and unique keywords

Unique words like names and dates act as anchors for fast location.

Question 92: A process diagram shows water being filtered through several stages. Which sentence correctly describes one stage using passive voice?

The water was pass through a sand filter to remove impurities.
The water passing through a sand filter to remove impurities.
Workers pass the water through a sand filter to remove impurities.
The water is passed through a sand filter to remove impurities. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The water is passed through a sand filter to remove impurities.

The correct present passive form is 'is + past participle' ('is passed'), and the agent is omitted because it is irrelevant in a process.

Question 93: The women who had learnt to read through the National Literacy Crusade had the lowest rates of child mortality.

YES
NOT GIVEN
NO (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NO

The correct answer is NO because the statement uses the superlative 'lowest rates,' which is a very strong claim. While the passage might indicate that women who learned to read had *lower* child mortality rates, it likely does not provide evidence to confirm they had the *absolute lowest* rates compared to all other groups or possibilities. Without explicit textual support for 'lowest,' the statement is false.

Question 94: How much preparation time are you given before speaking in Part 2?

No preparation time
10 seconds
1 minute (Correct answer)
5 minutes

Correct answer: 1 minute

You are given 1 minute to prepare and make notes before you begin speaking.

Question 95: In a sentence-completion task you hear 'visitors must wear a helmet at all times'. The gap reads 'Visitors are required to wear a ______.' What goes in the gap?

jacket
badge
uniform
helmet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: helmet

The synonym 'required to' matches 'must', so the answer is 'helmet'.

Question 96: Which countries commonly accept IELTS General Training scores for immigration purposes?

USA and Germany only
Japan and South Korea only
Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the UK (Correct answer)
France, Spain, and Italy

Correct answer: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the UK

Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the UK are the primary destinations accepting IELTS General Training for immigration.

Question 97: In IELTS Writing, which criterion specifically assesses logical organization and use of linking devices?

Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Lexical Resource
Coherence and Cohesion (Correct answer)
Task Achievement

Correct answer: Coherence and Cohesion

Coherence and Cohesion specifically evaluates how well ideas are organized and connected through paragraph structure and linking devices.

Question 98: Passage: 'The human brain's neuroplasticity — its ability to form new neural connections in response to learning and experience — means that cognitive abilities can continue to develop throughout life.' Sentence to complete: Because the brain can form ___ connections in response to new experiences, learning can occur at any age.

physical
electrical
chemical
neural (Correct answer)

Correct answer: neural

'New neural connections' is used directly in the passage.

Question 99: You hear: 'The emergency contact number is 07891-234-567.' The form has: Emergency contact: ___. What should be written?

07891 243 567
07891 234 576
07891 234 567 (Correct answer)
07981 234 567

Correct answer: 07891 234 567

The number 07891-234-567 is stated in that exact order.

Question 100: Which phrase best introduces a second supporting point in a body paragraph?

However, regular physical exercise has been shown to reduce the risk of chronic disease.
As a result, regular physical exercise has been shown to reduce the risk of chronic disease.
In conclusion, regular physical exercise has been shown to reduce the risk of chronic disease.
Furthermore, regular physical exercise has been shown to reduce the risk of chronic disease. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Furthermore, regular physical exercise has been shown to reduce the risk of chronic disease.

'Furthermore' is an additive linker that correctly introduces an additional supporting point within the same line of argument.

Question 101: A speaker spells a surname: "That's S-M-Y-T-H-E." How is the name spelled?

Smyth
Smithe
Smythe (Correct answer)
Smith

Correct answer: Smythe

The letters spelled out are S-M-Y-T-H-E, giving "Smythe".

Question 102: When you start a formal letter with 'Dear Mr Smith,' which closing is correct?

Yours sincerely, (Correct answer)
Love,
Yours faithfully,
Cheers,

Correct answer: Yours sincerely,

When you know the recipient's name, 'Yours sincerely' is the matching formal close.

Question 103: What is the correct adverb to pair with the verb 'increase' to show a small change?

Steeply
Slightly (Correct answer)
Dramatically
Sharply

Correct answer: Slightly

'Slightly' indicates a small degree of increase.

Question 104: Why are 'extreme' words like 'never' or 'always' important to notice?

They can make a statement False if the text is less absolute (Correct answer)
They mean Not Given automatically
They are always correct
They should be ignored

Correct answer: They can make a statement False if the text is less absolute

Absolute words can create a contradiction if the passage is more qualified.

Question 105: You hear: 'The participant needs to bring a sleeping bag and a waterproof jacket.' The packing list has: sleeping bag and ___. What should be written?

warm jacket
raincoat
waterproof coat
waterproof jacket (Correct answer)

Correct answer: waterproof jacket

The speaker says 'a waterproof jacket' as the second item.

Question 106: Which of these statements are made by the writer of the passage?

They probably take less energy to make than other engines
In certain areas, permission is required to install them.
Their exact energy output depends on their position. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Their exact energy output depends on their position.

This statement implies that the passage discusses factors influencing micro-turbine efficiency, such as location or installation specifics. The writer likely provides details on how environmental conditions or placement affect the actual power generated by these devices, making their output variable.

Question 107: A caller is told: 'Press 1 for billing enquiries, press 2 for technical support, press 3 to speak to an operator.' The caller has a problem with their broadband connection. Which option should they select?

Option 3 — speak to an operator
None of the above — hang up and call back
Option 1 — billing enquiries
Option 2 — technical support (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Option 2 — technical support

A broadband connection problem is a technical issue, so option 2 (technical support) is the correct choice.

Question 108: Which phrase best introduces an alternative viewpoint in Part 3 without dismissing it?

'Some would argue, and not without justification, that…' (Correct answer)
'Another person thinks…'
'That is wrong because…'
'People say things but…'

Correct answer: 'Some would argue, and not without justification, that…'

'And not without justification' is an elegant concessive phrase that acknowledges merit in an opposing view before presenting a counterpoint.

Question 109: Which Part 1 topic is LEAST likely to appear?

Advanced macroeconomic theory (Correct answer)
Home and accommodation
Leisure activities and sports
Travel and transport

Correct answer: Advanced macroeconomic theory

Part 1 focuses on personal, everyday topics; abstract or specialised academic subjects belong to Part 3.

Question 110: What is the safest strategy when you cannot find any related information?

Mark Not Given (Correct answer)
Leave it blank
Mark False
Mark True

Correct answer: Mark Not Given

Absence of any relevant information indicates Not Given.

Question 111: A map shows a bridge that was not present in 1990 but appears in 2020. Which sentence is best?

A bridge has been constructed across the river since 1990. (Correct answer)
A bridge was constructing across the river since 1990.
A bridge will be constructed across the river since 1990.
A bridge constructs across the river since 1990.

Correct answer: A bridge has been constructed across the river since 1990.

Present perfect passive ('has been constructed') correctly describes a change from a past point to the present, matching the map comparison.

Question 112: Why should you avoid changing many answers at the end?

Changing answers is impossible
First careful readings are often correct (Correct answer)
It wastes the answer sheet
It is against the rules

Correct answer: First careful readings are often correct

Initial reasoning based on the text is usually reliable, so avoid second-guessing.

Question 113: If a passage says 'some scientists believe' and the statement says 'all scientists agree', the answer is likely:

False (Correct answer)
True
Not Given
Yes

Correct answer: False

'Some' contradicts 'all', so the statement is False.

Question 114: In True/False/Not Given questions, what does 'Not Given' mean?

The statement is partly true and partly false
There is no information in the passage to confirm or contradict it (Correct answer)
The statement contradicts the passage
The statement agrees with the passage

Correct answer: There is no information in the passage to confirm or contradict it

'Not Given' means the passage neither confirms nor contradicts the statement.

Question 115: When preparing for the 'Matching Headings' task, what does the strategy of 'paraphrasing the headings' primarily involve?

Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading. (Correct answer)
Translating the headings into your native language for better understanding.
Finding the exact heading phrase somewhere within the reading passage.
Rewriting each heading to be longer and more detailed.

Correct answer: Thinking of synonyms and different ways to express the idea in each heading.

Paraphrasing the headings involves thinking about the core meaning and considering synonyms or alternative phrasing. This is crucial because the text will likely use different words to express the same idea presented in the heading.

Question 116: Overusing memorised linking words like 'Moreover' at every sentence can harm which score?

Task 1 word count
Listening
Pronunciation
Coherence and Cohesion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Coherence and Cohesion

Mechanical, overused connectors are penalised under Coherence and Cohesion.

Question 117: Your overview sentence for a process diagram should state:

The number of stages and the main input/output of the process (Correct answer)
The date the process was designed and its industrial application
A comparison of this process with alternative manufacturing methods
Every individual step in precise chronological order

Correct answer: The number of stages and the main input/output of the process

An overview captures the big picture — how many stages there are and what goes in and comes out — without listing every detail.

Question 118: "Take the second turning on the left, not the first." Which turning is correct?

Second on the left (Correct answer)
First on the left
Second on the right
First on the right

Correct answer: Second on the left

The speaker corrects to the second turning on the left.

Question 119: In a 'discuss both views and give your opinion' essay, what must you include?

Both sides plus your own clear opinion (Correct answer)
Only your opinion
Neither side, just facts
Only the opposing view

Correct answer: Both sides plus your own clear opinion

This prompt requires discussing both perspectives and clearly stating your own view.

Question 120: For which specific IELTS question type is the phrase 'the benefits outweigh the drawbacks' most directly appropriate?

A discussion essay presenting two opinions
An opinion essay asking whether advantages outweigh disadvantages (Correct answer)
A standard advantages and disadvantages essay
A problem and solution essay

Correct answer: An opinion essay asking whether advantages outweigh disadvantages

This phrase directly answers a question that asks the candidate to evaluate whether advantages outweigh disadvantages, requiring a clear stance.

International English Language Testing System (IELTS)

IELTS is an international standardized test of English language proficiency for non-native English language speakers.

120

Questions

165 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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