ICVA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ICVA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following continuing education topics is most commonly mandated by state veterinary boards in addition to general CE hours? → Controlled substance/DEA compliance or veterinary jurisprudence
2. In the WOAH PVS pathway, which 'critical competency' assesses whether a country's veterinary authority can legally enforce animal health measures? → Veterinary legislation
3. Which clinical sign most strongly suggests Glässer's disease (Haemophilus parasuis) in nursery pigs? → Polyserositis with fibrinous pericarditis, peritonitis, and pleuritis
4. A rabbit undergoing ovariohysterectomy suddenly develops bradycardia under isoflurane. What is the most appropriate first intervention? → Reduce isoflurane and administer atropine or glycopyrrolate
5. A licensed veterinarian moves from Texas to California. What must they typically do to practice in California? → Apply for a California veterinary license through the state board
6. Which pathogen is the primary cause of Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS)? → Arterivirus
7. Which zoonotic helminth causes visceral larva migrans in children who ingest embryonated eggs from contaminated soil? → Toxocara canis
8. Which zoonotic bacterium causes cat scratch disease and is primarily transmitted to humans through cat scratches or bites? → Bartonella henselae
9. Which condition is the most common indication for performing a rumenotomy in cattle? → Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease)
10. Which surveillance system is used in the US to track zoonotic diseases at the human-animal-environment interface? → One Health Zoonotic Disease Prioritization
11. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in the US is most commonly transmitted to humans through which route? → Inhalation of aerosolized rodent urine, feces, or saliva
12. Which nutritional deficiency most commonly causes posterior paresis ('downer sow syndrome') in lactating sows? → Calcium and phosphorus imbalance
13. How do global veterinary standards impact animal welfare? → They ensure that animals receive consistent and high-quality care
14. Which diagnostic sample is preferred for confirming PRRS virus infection in a live pig? → Serum for ELISA antibody detection or PCR
15. Which antibody titer is used to screen dogs for Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) caused by Rickettsia rickettsii? → IFA for R. rickettsii
16. A cat presents with tremors, ataxia, and hyperthermia after ingesting a small amount of tea tree oil. What is the mechanism? → Terpene compounds causing CNS excitation and dermal absorption toxicity
17. Which condition is characterized by intermittent upward fixation of the patella in horses? → Locking stifle (medial patellar ligament entrapment)
18. What is the recommended body temperature range to maintain during anesthesia in most lizard species? → 25–35°C
19. Which of the following best describes the primary toxic effect of acetaminophen in cats, distinguishing it from the toxicity seen in most other species? → Profound methemoglobinemia leading to impaired oxygen transport.
20. Which analgesic class has demonstrated the least clinical efficacy in birds due to differences in opioid receptor distribution? → Mu-opioid agonists
21. Which of the following is an example of a 'restricted' veterinary license? → A license that permits practice only in a specific setting such as a research institution
22. On thoracic radiographs, a silhouette sign occurs when two structures of similar opacity are: → In direct contact with each other
23. What is the most appropriate analgesic protocol for post-surgical pain management in dairy cattle in the US? → Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) IV
24. Doppler ultrasonography in veterinary medicine is primarily used to assess: → Blood flow direction and velocity
25. Which route of administration results in the highest oral bioavailability of buprenorphine in cats? → Buccal/transmucosal
26. Which structure is most commonly injured in horses diagnosed with hindlimb proximal suspensory desmitis? → Origin of the suspensory ligament at the proximal palmar metacarpus
27. A horse with a high suspensory ligament injury (proximal suspensory desmitis) in the hindlimb is most accurately diagnosed using: → Ultrasonography with a linear high-frequency probe
28. Which step of the ECFVG certification process involves demonstrating hands-on clinical skills? → Clinical Proficiency Examination (CPE)
29. Which of the following is an example of a condition that could lead to a veterinary license being placed on probation rather than revoked? → A first-time record-keeping violation with no patient harm
30. Under most state practice acts, which activity generally requires a veterinary license? → Diagnosing a disease condition in an animal