AAPC ICD-10-CM Proficiency Assessment — Questions and Answers
Question 1: How is diabetes coded in ICD-10-CM?
- With codes from E08-E13 specifying the type of diabetes and complications using 4th-6th characters (Correct answer)
- Only as E10
- Only by body system affected
- With a single code
Correct answer: With codes from E08-E13 specifying the type of diabetes and complications using 4th-6th characters
Diabetes codes differentiate by type (Type 1=E10, Type 2=E11, drug-induced=E09, etc.) and complications (kidney, eye, neurological) through additional characters.
Question 2: How should you handle a situation where you lack expertise in a specific area?
- Make up an answer
- Pretend you know the answer
- Avoid the topic entirely
- Acknowledge the gap, research or consult with experts, and provide accurate information rather than guessing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Acknowledge the gap, research or consult with experts, and provide accurate information rather than guessing
Professional integrity requires honesty about knowledge gaps. Researching or consulting experts ensures accuracy and builds trust.
Question 3: What does the E code chapter cover in ICD-10-CM?
- Endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic diseases (Correct answer)
- External causes of injury
- Emergency codes
- Eye diseases
Correct answer: Endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic diseases
Chapter 4 (E00-E89) covers endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic diseases including diabetes, thyroid disorders, and malnutrition.
Question 4: The ICD-10-CM abbreviation 'NOS' is equivalent to which term?
- Not elsewhere classifiable
- Unspecified (Correct answer)
- See also
- With manifestation
Correct answer: Unspecified
NOS means 'not otherwise specified' and is equivalent to 'unspecified,' used when documentation lacks detail.
Question 5: A coder reviews a borderline diagnosis documented by the provider. Guidelines direct that it be coded as:
- A confirmed diagnosis (Correct answer)
- An uncertain diagnosis, so not coded
- History of the condition
- Always a Z code
Correct answer: A confirmed diagnosis
Borderline diagnoses are coded as confirmed unless a specific index entry directs otherwise.
Question 6: In etiology/manifestation coding, the manifestation code typically appears in the Tabular List with what convention?
- Bolded as primary
- In brackets and 'use additional code' (Correct answer)
- As an Excludes1 note
- With a 7th character 'S'
Correct answer: In brackets and 'use additional code'
Manifestation codes appear in brackets in the Alphabetic Index and carry a 'use additional code' note, and they may never be sequenced first.
Question 7: What is the most important factor for long-term success in this field?
- Continuous learning, practice, and adapting to changes in the industry (Correct answer)
- Having expensive equipment
- Knowing the right people
- Natural talent alone
Correct answer: Continuous learning, practice, and adapting to changes in the industry
Success in any professional field requires ongoing education, consistent practice, and the ability to adapt as the industry evolves with new technologies and methods.
Question 8: Which chapter of ICD-10-CM is used for codes beginning with the letter 'O'?
- Neoplasms
- Mental disorders
- Diseases of the eye
- Pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium
Chapter 15 (codes O00–O9A) covers pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium.
Question 9: What is the importance of documentation in professional work?
- It creates unnecessary paperwork
- Documentation provides a record of work done, decisions made, and processes followed, enabling consistency and accountability (Correct answer)
- Only managers need to document
- It is only for legal purposes
Correct answer: Documentation provides a record of work done, decisions made, and processes followed, enabling consistency and accountability
Good documentation supports quality control, knowledge transfer, troubleshooting, legal compliance, and continuous improvement.
Question 10: What codes are used for pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium?
- S codes
- P codes
- O codes (Chapter 15) (Correct answer)
- Z codes
Correct answer: O codes (Chapter 15)
Chapter 15 uses O codes (O00-O9A) for conditions related to pregnancy, labor, delivery, and the postpartum period.
Question 11: How do you handle test anxiety effectively?
- It cannot be managed
- Take medication only
- Prepare thoroughly, practice relaxation techniques, arrive early, and maintain a positive mindset (Correct answer)
- Ignore it
Correct answer: Prepare thoroughly, practice relaxation techniques, arrive early, and maintain a positive mindset
Test anxiety is best managed through a combination of thorough preparation (which builds confidence), relaxation techniques, and positive self-talk.
Question 12: Which of the following is an example of a long-term (current) drug therapy status Z code?
- Z00.00 – General health examination
- Z79.01 – Long-term (current) use of anticoagulants (Correct answer)
- Z20.822 – Contact with COVID-19
- Z87.891 – Personal history of nicotine dependence
Correct answer: Z79.01 – Long-term (current) use of anticoagulants
Z79 codes indicate the patient is currently receiving ongoing medication therapy, which may affect treatment decisions and drug interactions.
Question 13: What is a combination code in ICD-10-CM?
- A code for multiple patients
- Two codes combined into one
- A single code that classifies both the diagnosis and a common symptom, manifestation, or complication together (Correct answer)
- A merged billing code
Correct answer: A single code that classifies both the diagnosis and a common symptom, manifestation, or complication together
Combination codes classify two diagnoses or a diagnosis with a complication in a single code, reducing the need for multiple codes.
Question 14: External cause of morbidity codes in ICD-10-CM begin with which letters?
- G and H
- Q and R
- V, W, X, and Y (Correct answer)
- L and M
Correct answer: V, W, X, and Y
Chapter 20 external cause codes (V00–Y99) describe how an injury or condition occurred.
Question 15: What chapter covers diseases of the circulatory system?
- Chapter 7
- Chapter 9 (I codes) (Correct answer)
- Chapter 3
- Chapter 11
Correct answer: Chapter 9 (I codes)
Chapter 9 covers diseases of the circulatory system using codes I00-I99, including heart disease, hypertension, and cerebrovascular conditions.
Question 16: Under ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient is admitted for treatment of a complication of surgery, how should the complication be coded?
- Using a Z code exclusively
- As the principal diagnosis if it is the reason for admission (Correct answer)
- Never coded, only the original condition
- As a secondary diagnosis only
Correct answer: As the principal diagnosis if it is the reason for admission
A complication that occasions the admission is sequenced as the principal diagnosis.
Question 17: For a patient receiving therapy for an active malignancy and anemia due to the malignancy, the sequencing should be:
- Only the malignancy
- Anemia first, then the malignancy
- Malignancy first, then the anemia (Correct answer)
- Only the anemia
Correct answer: Malignancy first, then the anemia
When treating anemia associated with malignancy, the malignancy is sequenced first.
Question 18: What is the best way to prepare for a professional certification exam?
- Rely on work experience alone
- Watch videos only
- Study only the day before
- Create a study plan, use official materials, take practice tests, and study consistently over weeks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Create a study plan, use official materials, take practice tests, and study consistently over weeks
A structured study plan with official materials, consistent practice, and regular testing ensures thorough preparation and identifies knowledge gaps.
Question 19: What does the first character of an ICD-10-CM code represent?
- A letter (A-Z, except U) indicating the chapter/category of disease (Correct answer)
- The severity
- The provider type
- The body system
Correct answer: A letter (A-Z, except U) indicating the chapter/category of disease
The first character is always a letter that corresponds to a specific chapter of the ICD-10-CM classification, such as J for respiratory diseases.
Question 20: What does 'unspecified' mean in an ICD-10-CM code?
- The disease is unknown
- The code is invalid
- The patient refused diagnosis
- The documentation does not provide enough detail to assign a more specific code (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The documentation does not provide enough detail to assign a more specific code
Unspecified codes are used when clinical documentation lacks the detail needed for a more specific code. They should be avoided when more specific information is available.
Question 21: What is the purpose of continuing education in a profession?
- To increase tuition revenue for schools
- To collect certificates
- It is only for new professionals
- To maintain and expand knowledge, meet licensing requirements, and stay competitive in the field (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To maintain and expand knowledge, meet licensing requirements, and stay competitive in the field
Continuing education ensures professionals maintain current knowledge, meet regulatory requirements, and develop new skills for career advancement.
Question 22: What does 'code also' mean in ICD-10-CM?
- An error message
- An optional instruction
- Code again in another system
- An instruction that two codes may be needed together to fully describe a condition, with either code potentially sequenced first (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An instruction that two codes may be needed together to fully describe a condition, with either code potentially sequenced first
'Code also' indicates that both codes should be reported. Unlike 'code first,' sequencing depends on the circumstances of the encounter.
Question 23: What is the most effective way to study complex material?
- Read it once
- Copy notes word for word
- Break it into smaller sections, use active recall, teach concepts to others, and connect new information to what you already know (Correct answer)
- Highlight everything
Correct answer: Break it into smaller sections, use active recall, teach concepts to others, and connect new information to what you already know
Active learning strategies like self-testing, teaching, and making connections produce deeper understanding than passive reading or highlighting.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT a part of personal health information?
- C)Zip Code
- All of the above are PHI elements (Correct answer)
- License plate number
- URL
Correct answer: All of the above are PHI elements
Protected Health Information (PHI) under HIPAA includes any information that can be used to identify an individual and relates to their health status, the provision of healthcare, or payment for healthcare. A license plate number, URL, and zip code are all considered direct or indirect identifiers among the 18 elements specified by HIPAA that constitute PHI. Therefore, all the listed items are PHI elements.
Question 25: Which ICD-10-CM chapter covers diseases of the respiratory system?
- Chapter 10 (J codes) (Correct answer)
- Chapter 5 (F codes)
- Chapter 14 (N codes)
- Chapter 7 (H codes)
Correct answer: Chapter 10 (J codes)
Chapter 10 of ICD-10-CM covers diseases of the respiratory system using codes beginning with the letter J (J00-J99).
Question 26: What does 'laterality' mean in ICD-10-CM coding?
- Specifying which side of the body (right, left, or bilateral) is affected (Correct answer)
- The duration of disease
- The direction of a procedure
- The severity of illness
Correct answer: Specifying which side of the body (right, left, or bilateral) is affected
ICD-10-CM includes laterality to identify whether a condition affects the right side, left side, or both sides, adding clinical specificity.
Question 27: In an electronic health record program, which of the following standards are used to create standardized nomenclature?
- NADA PC
- ICD-10 CM
- CTNS EHR
- SNOMED CT (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SNOMED CT
SNOMED CT (Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine—Clinical Terms) is a comprehensive, multilingual clinical terminology that provides a standardized way to represent clinical information in electronic health records. It is used to create standardized nomenclature within EHR programs, enabling consistent documentation, data exchange, and analysis across different systems and healthcare providers. ICD-10-CM, in contrast, is primarily for diagnosis coding.
Question 28: What are external cause codes in ICD-10-CM?
- Insurance codes
- Emergency department codes
- Codes (V00-Y99) that describe the cause, intent, place, and activity associated with an injury or health condition (Correct answer)
- Hospital identification codes
Correct answer: Codes (V00-Y99) that describe the cause, intent, place, and activity associated with an injury or health condition
External cause codes provide additional information about how, where, and under what circumstances an injury or adverse effect occurred.
Question 29: What is the purpose of an 'Excludes1' note in ICD-10-CM?
- The conditions may be coded together if both exist
- It lists optional additional codes
- The two conditions can never be coded together (Correct answer)
- It indicates a manifestation code
Correct answer: The two conditions can never be coded together
An Excludes1 note means the excluded code should never be used at the same time as the code above it because the two conditions are mutually exclusive.
Question 30: What is the principal diagnosis?
- The first diagnosis listed
- The most expensive diagnosis
- The most severe condition
- The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for the patient's admission to the hospital (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for the patient's admission to the hospital
The principal diagnosis is determined after evaluation and is the condition that prompted the inpatient admission, which may differ from the admitting diagnosis.
Question 31: The abbreviation 'NOS' in ICD-10-CM is the equivalent of:
- Not otherwise sequenced
- Other specified
- Unspecified (Correct answer)
- Not elsewhere classifiable
Correct answer: Unspecified
NOS means 'not otherwise specified,' equivalent to unspecified.
Question 32: Can you code a suspected or probable diagnosis in outpatient settings?
- No, code only confirmed conditions or the signs/symptoms in outpatient settings (Correct answer)
- Only with physician approval
- Yes, always
- Only for cancer
Correct answer: No, code only confirmed conditions or the signs/symptoms in outpatient settings
In outpatient settings, do not code suspected, probable, or rule-out diagnoses. Instead, code the signs, symptoms, or conditions to the highest degree of certainty.
Question 33: What is the best approach to staying current in a rapidly evolving field?
- Wait for employer-provided training
- Staying current is not necessary
- Regularly read industry publications, attend workshops, take courses, and participate in professional communities (Correct answer)
- Read one book per year
Correct answer: Regularly read industry publications, attend workshops, take courses, and participate in professional communities
Multiple learning channels ensure comprehensive awareness of industry changes, new technologies, and evolving best practices.
Question 34: What does the ICD-10-CM convention 'Code first' instruct the coder to do?
- Report the most recent diagnosis first
- Always use the first code in the index
- Sequence the underlying etiology before the manifestation (Correct answer)
- Code only the first-listed symptom
Correct answer: Sequence the underlying etiology before the manifestation
'Code first' directs that the underlying condition be sequenced before the manifestation code.
Question 35: How many characters can an ICD-10-CM code have?
- 3-5
- Exactly 5
- 5-10
- 3-7 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 3-7
ICD-10-CM codes range from 3 to 7 characters, with the first three being the category and additional characters providing greater specificity.
Question 36: A patient returns for routine follow-up during the healing phase of a fractured wrist. Which seventh character is most appropriate?
- S (sequela)
- A (initial encounter)
- X (placeholder)
- D (subsequent encounter) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: D (subsequent encounter)
The 'D' character is used for subsequent encounters during the routine healing or recovery phase.
Question 37: What is a placeholder character 'x' used for in ICD-10-CM?
- To fill positions when a code requires more characters but has no valid value for intermediate positions (Correct answer)
- To mark codes as experimental
- To mark obsolete codes
- To indicate an uncertain diagnosis
Correct answer: To fill positions when a code requires more characters but has no valid value for intermediate positions
The placeholder 'x' fills empty character positions in codes that need a 7th character extension but do not have valid 4th, 5th, or 6th character options.
Question 38: Signs and symptoms integral to a confirmed disease process should be:
- Always coded in addition
- Coded as the principal diagnosis
- Not coded separately (Correct answer)
- Coded with a Z code
Correct answer: Not coded separately
Symptoms routinely associated with a confirmed diagnosis are not coded separately.
Question 39: For combination codes in ICD-10-CM, the coder should:
- Never use combination codes
- Always assign two separate codes
- Assign only the single combination code when it fully identifies both conditions (Correct answer)
- Assign the combination plus each individual code
Correct answer: Assign only the single combination code when it fully identifies both conditions
A single combination code is used when it captures both the diagnosis and its manifestation/complication.
Question 40: What makes effective communication important in professional settings?
- Only written communication matters
- It is not important if you have technical skills
- Clear communication prevents errors, builds client trust, improves teamwork, and ensures expectations are met (Correct answer)
- Only verbal communication matters
Correct answer: Clear communication prevents errors, builds client trust, improves teamwork, and ensures expectations are met
Effective communication across all channels prevents misunderstandings, builds relationships, and ensures everyone has the information needed to do their job well.
Question 41: When the same condition is described as both acute and chronic with separate index subentries, the coder should:
- Code both, sequencing the acute code first (Correct answer)
- Code a single combination code
- Code only the acute condition
- Code only the chronic condition
Correct answer: Code both, sequencing the acute code first
Both are coded with the acute (subacute) condition sequenced first.
Question 42: How should you approach problem-solving in a professional context?
- Ignore problems until they resolve themselves
- Always ask someone else
- Guess and check randomly
- Gather information, analyze the situation, consider multiple solutions, implement the best option, and evaluate results (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Gather information, analyze the situation, consider multiple solutions, implement the best option, and evaluate results
Systematic problem-solving involves understanding the problem fully, considering alternatives, implementing a solution, and reviewing the outcome for continuous improvement.
Question 43: What is the importance of ethics in professional practice?
- Ethics are just about following the law
- Ethical practice builds trust, protects clients, maintains professional standards, and ensures long-term career viability (Correct answer)
- Ethics are optional
- Ethics only apply to certain professions
Correct answer: Ethical practice builds trust, protects clients, maintains professional standards, and ensures long-term career viability
Professional ethics go beyond legal requirements to encompass honesty, integrity, confidentiality, and putting client interests first, which are fundamental to any trusted profession.
Question 44: External cause codes should be sequenced as:
- The principal diagnosis when the cause is clearly documented
- Mandatory only for inpatient hospital admissions
- Only for accidental injuries, not assaults or self-harm
- Secondary codes — they are never sequenced as the principal diagnosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Secondary codes — they are never sequenced as the principal diagnosis
Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, external cause codes are always supplemental secondary codes and may never be the principal or first-listed diagnosis.
Question 45: How do you evaluate the quality of your professional work?
- By how fast you complete it
- Quality does not matter if the work is done
- Only clients evaluate quality
- By measuring against established standards, gathering feedback, tracking outcomes, and comparing to best practices (Correct answer)
Correct answer: By measuring against established standards, gathering feedback, tracking outcomes, and comparing to best practices
Quality evaluation uses multiple metrics including professional standards, client satisfaction, outcome measurement, and comparison with industry best practices.
Question 46: In the Alphabetic Index, what do brackets [ ] around a code or term typically enclose?
- Billing amounts
- Synonyms, alternative wording, or explanatory phrases (Correct answer)
- Manufacturer notes
- Deleted codes
Correct answer: Synonyms, alternative wording, or explanatory phrases
Brackets enclose synonyms, alternative terms, or explanatory phrases in the index and tabular list.
Question 47: When two or more diagnoses equally meet the criteria for principal diagnosis, the guideline allows:
- Neither may be principal
- Either may be sequenced first unless circumstances dictate otherwise (Correct answer)
- The most expensive must be first
- The alphabetically first must be used
Correct answer: Either may be sequenced first unless circumstances dictate otherwise
When conditions equally qualify, either may be listed first unless guidelines direct otherwise.
Question 48: Where are injury codes found in ICD-10-CM?
- Chapter 19 (S and T codes) (Correct answer)
- A codes
- N codes
- J codes
Correct answer: Chapter 19 (S and T codes)
Chapter 19 covers injuries, poisoning, and certain other consequences of external causes, using S codes for body-region injuries and T codes for other trauma.
Question 49: When a code requires a seventh character but only has three to five characters, what must be used as a placeholder?
- A dash
- The letter Z
- A zero
- The letter X (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The letter X
The dummy placeholder 'X' fills empty character positions so the seventh character lands in the correct spot.
Question 50: What is the difference between ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS?
- CM is for diagnosis coding; PCS is for inpatient procedure coding (Correct answer)
- CM is for outpatient; PCS is for outpatient
- CM is older than PCS
- They are the same
Correct answer: CM is for diagnosis coding; PCS is for inpatient procedure coding
ICD-10-CM (Clinical Modification) codes diagnoses across all settings. ICD-10-PCS (Procedure Coding System) codes inpatient procedures in hospitals.
Question 51: A 'combination code' in ICD-10-CM is a single code that:
- Links a procedure to a diagnosis
- Classifies two diagnoses or a diagnosis with a manifestation (Correct answer)
- Combines two patient encounters
- Merges inpatient and outpatient data
Correct answer: Classifies two diagnoses or a diagnosis with a manifestation
A combination code is a single code used to classify two diagnoses, a diagnosis with an associated complication, or a diagnosis with an associated manifestation.
Question 52: What is the value of reviewing incorrect answers on practice tests?
- There is no value
- It only matters for the exact same questions
- It identifies knowledge gaps and helps you understand why the correct answer is right, improving future performance (Correct answer)
- It wastes time
Correct answer: It identifies knowledge gaps and helps you understand why the correct answer is right, improving future performance
Analyzing mistakes reveals specific knowledge gaps and misconceptions, allowing targeted study that directly addresses your weaknesses.
Question 53: What is the correct format for an ICD-10-CM code?
- All numbers
- Only letters
- Numbers then letters
- A letter followed by two numbers, then a decimal point, then up to four alphanumeric characters (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A letter followed by two numbers, then a decimal point, then up to four alphanumeric characters
ICD-10-CM codes start with a letter, followed by two numbers (the category), a decimal point, then up to four additional alphanumeric characters for specificity.
Question 54: Z codes in ICD-10-CM are used primarily to report:
- External causes of morbidity
- Manifestations of disease
- Factors influencing health status and contact with health services (Correct answer)
- Acute injuries only
Correct answer: Factors influencing health status and contact with health services
Z codes describe encounters for reasons other than disease, such as screenings or status.
Question 55: When a residual condition (sequela) requires coding but no specific sequela code exists, the coder assigns the:
- Acute injury code with 'A'
- Z code for aftercare
- Residual condition code followed by the cause code with 7th character 'S' (Correct answer)
- Cause code alone
Correct answer: Residual condition code followed by the cause code with 7th character 'S'
Code the residual first, then the original cause with the 'S' 7th character.
Question 56: What is the Excludes1 note in ICD-10-CM?
- A note indicating two conditions cannot occur together, so the codes should never be reported together (Correct answer)
- A list of included conditions
- An obsolete notation
- A list of related codes
Correct answer: A note indicating two conditions cannot occur together, so the codes should never be reported together
Excludes1 means 'not coded here.' The excluded condition and the code cannot be used together because the two conditions cannot coexist.
Question 57: What role does networking play in professional development?
- It is unnecessary
- Networking provides opportunities for learning, mentorship, referrals, and staying current with industry trends (Correct answer)
- It is only about finding jobs
- It is only for extroverts
Correct answer: Networking provides opportunities for learning, mentorship, referrals, and staying current with industry trends
Professional networking connects you with peers, mentors, and opportunities while keeping you informed about industry developments and best practices.
Question 58: For inpatient coding, a diagnosis documented as 'probable' or 'suspected' at discharge should be:
- Reported as a Z-code
- Coded as if it existed (Correct answer)
- Reported only as a symptom
- Omitted entirely
Correct answer: Coded as if it existed
Unlike outpatient rules, inpatient guidelines allow an uncertain diagnosis documented at discharge to be coded as if it were established.
Question 59: The 'Z' codes in ICD-10-CM are used primarily for what?
- Factors influencing health status and contact with health services (Correct answer)
- External causes of injury
- Poisonings
- Congenital malformations
Correct answer: Factors influencing health status and contact with health services
Z codes describe encounters for reasons other than disease, such as screenings, exams, and health status factors.
Question 60: What is sequencing in ICD-10-CM?
- The order in which diagnosis codes are listed, with the principal/first-listed diagnosis sequenced first (Correct answer)
- Numbering codes
- A random arrangement
- Putting codes in alphabetical order
Correct answer: The order in which diagnosis codes are listed, with the principal/first-listed diagnosis sequenced first
Sequencing determines which diagnosis is listed first (principal diagnosis for inpatient, first-listed for outpatient) followed by additional diagnoses in order of relevance.
Question 61: In the inpatient setting, the principal diagnosis is defined as the condition:
- Listed first by the physician
- Established after study to be chiefly responsible for admission (Correct answer)
- Treated most recently
- With the highest reimbursement
Correct answer: Established after study to be chiefly responsible for admission
The principal diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the admission after study.
Question 62: What is the best way to build credibility in a professional field?
- Working for free
- Demonstrating expertise through consistent quality work, obtaining certifications, and building a portfolio (Correct answer)
- Self-promotion only
- Having a large social media following
Correct answer: Demonstrating expertise through consistent quality work, obtaining certifications, and building a portfolio
Professional credibility is built through a track record of quality work, relevant certifications, and a portfolio that demonstrates your capabilities.
Question 63: What ICD-10-CM chapter covers diseases of the musculoskeletal system?
- Chapter 13 (M codes) (Correct answer)
- Chapter 5
- Chapter 19
- Chapter 10
Correct answer: Chapter 13 (M codes)
Chapter 13 covers diseases of the musculoskeletal system and connective tissue using M codes (M00-M99), including arthritis, back pain, and osteoporosis.
Question 64: Codes beginning with 'O' in ICD-10-CM are dedicated to which patient population?
- Elderly patients
- Newborns
- Trauma patients
- Pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pregnancy, childbirth, and the puerperium
Chapter 15 (O00–O9A) covers conditions related to pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period.
Question 65: An auditor verifies an admission for chemotherapy where the encounter is solely for the treatment. The first-listed code should be:
- The malignancy itself
- The appropriate Z code for the encounter (e.g., chemotherapy) (Correct answer)
- A symptom code
- An external cause code
Correct answer: The appropriate Z code for the encounter (e.g., chemotherapy)
When the encounter is only for chemotherapy, the relevant Z code is sequenced first, with the neoplasm coded secondarily.
Question 66: A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic kidney disease is best reported using:
- A single combination code from category E11 (Correct answer)
- A Z-code only
- Two unrelated R-codes
- An injury code
Correct answer: A single combination code from category E11
ICD-10-CM provides combination codes within category E11 that capture type 2 diabetes together with its associated complication such as chronic kidney disease.
Question 67: What ICD-10-CM category covers symptoms and signs not classified elsewhere?
- F codes
- R codes (Chapter 18) (Correct answer)
- Z codes
- S codes
Correct answer: R codes (Chapter 18)
Chapter 18 (R00-R99) covers symptoms, signs, and abnormal clinical and lab findings not elsewhere classified, used when a definitive diagnosis has not been established.
Question 68: What ICD-10-CM code range covers neoplasms?
- G00-G99
- E00-E89
- A00-B99
- C00-D49 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: C00-D49
Neoplasms (tumors/cancers) are classified in Chapter 2 using codes C00-D49, with C codes for malignant and D codes for benign/uncertain behavior.
Question 69: What ICD-10-CM chapter covers mental and behavioral disorders?
- Chapter 10
- Chapter 1
- Chapter 15
- Chapter 5 (F codes) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Chapter 5 (F codes)
Chapter 5 covers mental, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental disorders using F codes (F01-F99), including depression, anxiety, and substance use disorders.
Question 70: How should you manage test anxiety?
- Use preparation, deep breathing, positive self-talk, and arrive early to feel in control (Correct answer)
- Take medication only
- Ignore it
- Test anxiety cannot be managed
Correct answer: Use preparation, deep breathing, positive self-talk, and arrive early to feel in control
A combination of thorough preparation, relaxation techniques, positive visualization, and practical measures like early arrival helps manage test anxiety effectively.
Question 71: External cause codes (V, W, X, Y) are:
- Never used as a principal/first-listed diagnosis (Correct answer)
- Used only in outpatient surgery
- Required on every claim
- Always the principal diagnosis
Correct answer: Never used as a principal/first-listed diagnosis
External cause codes are always secondary and never reported as principal.
Question 72: What are Z codes used for in ICD-10-CM?
- Emergency codes
- Factors influencing health status and contact with health services, such as screenings, vaccinations, and history of conditions (Correct answer)
- Zombie-related conditions
- Zero-severity conditions
Correct answer: Factors influencing health status and contact with health services, such as screenings, vaccinations, and history of conditions
Z codes capture encounters not related to illness, including preventive care, screening, personal/family history, and post-procedural states.
Question 73: What does ICD-10 stand for?
- International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (Correct answer)
- Internal Coding Dictionary 10
- Integrated Classification of Diagnostics 10
- International Code of Diseases version 10
Correct answer: International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision
ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Classification of Diseases, maintained by the World Health Organization for classifying diseases and health conditions.
Question 74: What is the value of industry certifications?
- They are meaningless
- They guarantee employment
- They validate knowledge, demonstrate commitment to the profession, and may be required by employers or regulations (Correct answer)
- They replace experience
Correct answer: They validate knowledge, demonstrate commitment to the profession, and may be required by employers or regulations
Certifications provide third-party validation of your knowledge and skills, showing employers and clients that you meet recognized professional standards.
Question 75: What are 7th character extensions used for in ICD-10-CM?
- Error codes
- Billing amounts
- Providing additional information such as initial encounter, subsequent encounter, or sequela (Correct answer)
- Provider identification
Correct answer: Providing additional information such as initial encounter, subsequent encounter, or sequela
The 7th character often indicates the encounter type: A (initial), D (subsequent), or S (sequela), particularly for injury and fracture codes.
AAPC ICD-10-CM Proficiency Assessment
The AAPC ICD-10-CM Proficiency Assessment evaluates a medical coder's knowledge of ICD-10-CM format and structure, code groupings and categories, official coding guidelines, and accurate diagnosis code assignment.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds