HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is a summary?
- A short version highlighting key ideas (Correct answer)
- The first paragraph only
- A detailed analysis
- A list of vocabulary words
Correct answer: A short version highlighting key ideas
A summary is a concise restatement of the main points or key ideas of a longer text, presented in one's own words. Its purpose is to capture the essence of the original material, highlighting only the most important information without including minor details or personal opinions. Summarizing demonstrates comprehension and allows for quick recall of essential content.
Question 2: What is the correct way to write the missing words in this sentence? Cara chose to study Jupiter, Saturn, ____ for her science project.
- Neptune, and The Sun
- neptune, and the sun
- Neptune, and the sun
- Neptune, and the Sun (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Neptune, and the Sun
Planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune) are proper nouns and must always be capitalized. Additionally, 'Sun' is capitalized when referring to our specific star, especially when listed alongside other celestial bodies in an astronomical context. The conjunction 'and' and the article 'the' are not capitalized in this list.
Question 3: Which strategy is best when encountering an unfamiliar word?
- Guess its meaning randomly
- Look at surrounding words for clues (Correct answer)
- Ignore it if it’s not a noun
- Skip the word entirely
Correct answer: Look at surrounding words for clues
When encountering an unfamiliar word, the most effective strategy is to use context clues by looking at the surrounding words, sentences, and paragraphs. These clues often provide definitions, synonyms, antonyms, or examples that help readers deduce the word's meaning without interrupting their reading flow. This approach enhances comprehension and vocabulary development.
Question 4: Who discovered the special theory of relativity?
- James Chadwick
- Albert Einstein (Correct answer)
- Max Plank
- Alfred Nobel
Correct answer: Albert Einstein
Albert Einstein is credited with developing the special theory of relativity, which he published in 1905. This revolutionary theory established that the laws of physics are the same for all non-accelerating observers and that the speed of light in a vacuum is constant for everyone.
Question 5: According to the instructions, you must dilute a powder in 3 quarts of water. You only have a container with a liter marking on it. To dilute the powder, how many liters would you use?
- 100 liters
- 6.75 liters
- 2.88 liters (Correct answer)
- 5 liters
Correct answer: 2.88 liters
To convert quarts to liters, use the conversion factor that 1 US liquid quart is approximately 0.946 liters. Therefore, 3 quarts * 0.946 liters/quart equals approximately 2.838 liters. Given the options, 2.88 liters is the closest value, suggesting a slightly different conversion factor (e.g., 1 quart ≈ 0.96 L) or rounding was used.
Question 6: In photosynthesis, which pigment captures light energy in plants?
- Keratin
- Hemoglobin
- Melanin
- Chlorophyll (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Chlorophyll
Chlorophyll absorbs light energy to drive photosynthesis in the chloroplasts.
Question 7: What definition is best associated with the word anastomosis?
- Tearing
- Removal
- Connection (Correct answer)
- Separation
Correct answer: Connection
In medicine, an 'anastomosis' refers to a surgical connection made between two hollow or tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestine. It can also refer to a natural connection between two vessels or parts. Therefore, 'connection' is the most accurate and encompassing definition of this term.
Question 8: What is the meaning of the word bifurcate?
- Shine
- Smell
- Open
- Divide (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Divide
To bifurcate means to divide into two branches or forks. This term is often used to describe anatomical structures, such as blood vessels or nerves, that split into two distinct pathways. For example, the trachea bifurcates into two main bronchi.
Question 9: What is the author's purpose if a passage informs the reader?
- To persuade
- To inform (Correct answer)
- To describe a product
- To entertain
Correct answer: To inform
If a passage primarily presents facts, explanations, or instructions without attempting to sway opinion or evoke strong emotions, the author's purpose is to inform. This purpose aims to educate the reader by providing objective data, explaining concepts, or describing events. Recognizing the author's purpose helps readers understand the text's intent and interpret its content appropriately.
Question 10: Which of the following best describes a valid conclusion drawn from a passage?
- A guess unrelated to the text
- A judgment supported by the text's evidence (Correct answer)
- A random opinion
- The author's name
Correct answer: A judgment supported by the text's evidence
A valid conclusion must be logically supported by evidence in the passage.
Question 11: What part of the body is being visualized in a cystoscopy?
- Abdomen
- Bladder (Correct answer)
- Knee
- Vagina
Correct answer: Bladder
A cystoscopy is a medical procedure used to examine the inside of the bladder and urethra. A thin, flexible tube with a camera (cystoscope) is inserted through the urethra into the bladder, allowing a doctor to visualize these structures and diagnose conditions.
Question 12: A patient is described as 'lethargic.' What does this mean?
- Alert and oriented
- Feverish and flushed
- Agitated and restless
- Drowsy and sluggish (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Drowsy and sluggish
Lethargic means abnormally drowsy, sluggish, or lacking energy.
Question 13: Which is the best example of a clinical inference?
- Listing all medications
- Concluding a patient may be dehydrated from dry mucous membranes and low output (Correct answer)
- Reading the room number
- Recording the patient's name
Correct answer: Concluding a patient may be dehydrated from dry mucous membranes and low output
An inference draws a reasoned conclusion from observed cues.
Question 14: A passage is organized around a difficulty and a recommended fix. This structure is called:
- Sequence
- Compare and contrast
- Problem and solution (Correct answer)
- Description
Correct answer: Problem and solution
Presenting an issue followed by a remedy is the problem-and-solution structure.
Question 15: Read the following: 'The hypothalamus regulates body temperature through a negative feedback mechanism. When body temperature rises above the set point, vasodilation and sweating are triggered. When it falls below, vasoconstriction and shivering occur.' What is the author's primary purpose?
- To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation (Correct answer)
- To compare the hypothalamus to a thermostat
- To argue that the hypothalamus is the most important brain structure
- To describe symptoms of hypothermia
Correct answer: To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation
The passage objectively explains how the hypothalamus regulates temperature through negative feedback, without making arguments or comparisons.
Question 16: Which of the following does not represent a state of matter?
- Solid
- Lattice (Correct answer)
- Gas
- Liquid
Correct answer: Lattice
Liquid, gas, and solid are the three common states of matter, describing how particles are arranged and interact. A lattice, on the other hand, refers to a specific, ordered arrangement of atoms or molecules, typically found within a solid state. It is a structural characteristic, not a fundamental state of matter itself.
Question 17: Ruby was ____________ exhausted than her sister after they ran the race.
- most
- increasingly
- more (Correct answer)
- the more
Correct answer: more
The word 'than' indicates a comparison between Ruby's level of exhaustion and her sister's. For adjectives with three or more syllables, like 'exhausted,' the comparative form is created by preceding the adjective with 'more.' Therefore, 'more exhausted than' correctly expresses the comparison.
Question 18: A passage states, 'The committee's proposal, while ambitious, lacked the funding necessary to succeed.' What is the author's attitude toward the proposal?
- Completely dismissive
- Skeptical of its feasibility (Correct answer)
- Enthusiastically supportive
- Indifferent and detached
Correct answer: Skeptical of its feasibility
The phrase 'lacked the funding necessary to succeed' signals doubt about whether the proposal can work.
Question 19: What is the term for the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane?
- Endocytosis
- Active transport
- Phagocytosis
- Osmosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Osmosis
Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
Question 20: Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
- Pulmonary vein (Correct answer)
- Aorta
- Superior vena cava
- Pulmonary artery
Correct answer: Pulmonary vein
The pulmonary veins return oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
Question 21: When a passage contains both facts and the author's interpretation, a careful reader should:
- Distinguish facts from opinions (Correct answer)
- Read only the opinions
- Accept everything as fact
- Ignore the facts
Correct answer: Distinguish facts from opinions
Critical reading requires separating verifiable facts from the author's opinions.
Question 22: The prefix 'hypo-' means:
- Above normal
- Below normal (Correct answer)
- Between structures
- Around a structure
Correct answer: Below normal
'Hypo-' means below or under, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Question 23: If medication is given 'bilaterally,' it affects:
- One side only
- Both sides (Correct answer)
- The center
- The lower half
Correct answer: Both sides
Bilaterally means relating to or affecting both sides.
Question 24: A ball is kicked off the edge of a 34-meter-high roof. The ball is given a horizontal speed of 12.5 m/s. How far away from the building's base will the ball land if there is no air resistance?
- 32.86 m (Correct answer)
- 28.44 m
- 30.80 m
- 19.35 m
Correct answer: 32.86 m
First, calculate the time it takes for the ball to fall 34 meters using the vertical motion equation: d = 0.5 * g * t². So, 34 = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * t², which gives t ≈ 2.634 seconds. Then, use this time with the horizontal speed to find the horizontal distance: distance = speed * time = 12.5 m/s * 2.634 s ≈ 32.93 meters. The closest option is 32.86 m.
Question 25: Which statement reflects sound clinical judgment when data conflict?
- Average the numbers
- Ignore both values
- Pick the first value seen
- Reassess to clarify the discrepancy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reassess to clarify the discrepancy
Conflicting data should prompt reassessment for accuracy.
Question 26: What planet is the slowest rotating and often referred to as Earth’s “sister planet?”
- Mercury
- Mars
- Venus (Correct answer)
- Jupiter
Correct answer: Venus
Venus has the slowest rotation period of any planet in our solar system, taking longer to rotate once on its axis than to orbit the Sun. It is often called Earth's 'sister planet' due to its similar size, mass, and overall composition, despite its extremely hostile surface environment.
Question 27: Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland to promote water reabsorption in the kidneys?
- Aldosterone
- Oxytocin
- Cortisol
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
ADH (also called vasopressin) is released from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase water reabsorption, concentrating the urine and reducing fluid loss.
Question 28: What is called by the release of prolactin during breastfeeding?
- Negative feedback
- Positive feedback (Correct answer)
- Cell permeability
- Gene regulation
Correct answer: Positive feedback
The release of prolactin during breastfeeding is a classic example of a positive feedback loop. When an infant suckles, sensory nerves in the nipple send signals to the hypothalamus, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release prolactin. Prolactin then promotes milk production, and increased suckling leads to even more prolactin release, amplifying the response until the stimulus is removed.
Question 29: The medical term 'dyspnea' refers to:
- Difficulty swallowing
- Abnormal heart rhythm
- Painful urination
- Labored or difficult breathing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Labored or difficult breathing
The prefix 'dys-' means difficult or abnormal, and '-pnea' refers to breathing. Together, dyspnea describes shortness of breath or labored breathing.
Question 30: Which of the following organ systems is responsible for creating movement via contraction?
- Cardiovascular
- Skeletal
- Respiratory
- Muscular (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Muscular
The muscular system is specifically designed for generating movement through the contraction of muscle fibers. It includes skeletal muscles (for voluntary movement), smooth muscles (for involuntary movements in internal organs), and cardiac muscle (for pumping blood). This system enables locomotion, maintains posture, and facilitates the movement of substances within the body.
Question 31: Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the term circulation?
- The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and other nutrients to the tissues (Correct answer)
- The force exerted by blood on a unit area of blood vessel walls
- Process of breathing in
- The interconnected air passages within the lungs
Correct answer: The cardiovascular system transports oxygen and other nutrients to the tissues
Circulation refers to the continuous movement of blood throughout the body, facilitated by the cardiovascular system. Its primary role is to transport essential substances like oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to all body tissues. Simultaneously, it carries metabolic waste products, such as carbon dioxide, away from the tissues for excretion, maintaining cellular health and homeostasis.
Question 32: Covert the following military hours to civilian hours: 20:30
- 8:30 PM (Correct answer)
- 10:30 AM
- 2:30 PM
- 9:30 AM
Correct answer: 8:30 PM
To convert military time (24-hour format) to civilian time (12-hour format), if the hour is 13 or greater, subtract 12 from the hour and append 'PM'. For 20:30, subtracting 12 from 20 gives 8, so the civilian time is 8:30 PM.
Question 33: Convert 5/8 to a decimal.
- 0.0625
- 6.25
- 1.6
- 0.625 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.625
To convert the fraction 5/8 to a decimal, divide the numerator (5) by the denominator (8). Performing this division, 5 ÷ 8, yields the decimal value 0.625.
Question 34: What does the term 'dermatology' mean?
- Study of the skin (Correct answer)
- Study of the bones
- Study of the blood
- Study of the heart
Correct answer: Study of the skin
'Dermat-' means skin and '-ology' means study of, so dermatology is the study of the skin.
Question 35: An enzyme's activity is most affected by changes in which two environmental factors?
- Light and sound
- Color and odor
- Temperature and pH (Correct answer)
- Mass and density
Correct answer: Temperature and pH
Enzymes have optimal temperature and pH ranges that affect their shape and function.
Question 36: A graphic in a passage shows infection rates rising over five years. This visual most directly supports a main idea about:
- Hospital architecture
- An increasing trend in infections (Correct answer)
- Staff scheduling
- The cost of treatment
Correct answer: An increasing trend in infections
A chart of rising rates over time supports a point about an increasing trend.
Question 37: A person with AB- blood should not receive blood from which other blood type?
- B-
- AB+ (Correct answer)
- A-
- O-
Correct answer: AB+
A person with AB- blood has A and B antigens but lacks the Rh factor. They can safely receive blood from A-, B-, O-, and AB- donors. However, they cannot receive AB+ blood because it contains the Rh antigen, which their immune system would recognize as foreign and attack, leading to a severe transfusion reaction.
Question 38: A reading passage describes steps in order: first, second, then finally. What text structure is being used?
- Sequence/chronological order (Correct answer)
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast
- Cause and effect
Correct answer: Sequence/chronological order
Signal words like 'first,' 'then,' and 'finally' indicate sequence or chronological order.
Question 39: Evaluating the outcome of an intervention is important because it:
- Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed (Correct answer)
- Ends the nursing process
- Is optional
- Replaces assessment
Correct answer: Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed
Evaluation checks goal achievement and guides adjustments.
Question 40: A student observes that increasing the mass of an object increases the force needed to move it. What scientific law best explains this?
- Law of Conservation of Energy
- Newton's First Law
- Newton's Second Law (Correct answer)
- Hooke's Law
Correct answer: Newton's Second Law
Newton's Second Law of Motion states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass (F=ma). Therefore, if the mass (m) of an object increases, a greater force (F) is required to produce the same acceleration (a), explaining why more force is needed to move a heavier object.
Question 41: Which organ produces bile and is responsible for detoxification of drugs and alcohol?
- Spleen
- Gallbladder
- Liver (Correct answer)
- Pancreas
Correct answer: Liver
The liver produces bile for fat digestion and serves as the body's primary detoxification organ, metabolizing drugs, alcohol, and toxins.
Question 42: Which of the following states of matter has a definite volume?
- Gas and liquid
- Gas and solid
- Gas, liquid, and volume
- Liquid and solid (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Liquid and solid
Solids have a definite shape and a definite volume because their particles are tightly packed in fixed positions. Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container, as their particles are close but can move past each other. Gases, however, have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, expanding to fill any container.
Question 43: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean?
- Under or below normal
- Around or surrounding
- Between or among
- Above or excessive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Above or excessive
'Hyper-' means above or excessive, as in hypertension (high blood pressure).
Question 44: When a nurse delegates a task, critical thinking ensures the nurse:
- Avoids supervision
- Delegates to anyone available
- Delegates everything
- Matches the task to the delegate's scope and competence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Matches the task to the delegate's scope and competence
Safe delegation matches tasks to scope and competence.
Question 45: Which question best helps a reader identify an author's purpose?
- Why did the author write this? (Correct answer)
- How many words are in the passage?
- What font is used?
- When was the paper printed?
Correct answer: Why did the author write this?
Asking why the author wrote the text reveals the purpose: to inform, persuade, or entertain.
Question 46: Which of these sentences contains a dependent clause?
- She said she is feeling hungry, but she is not going to eat.
- She is hungry but she’s not going to eat.
- She told me she was hungry but wouldn’t eat more.
- Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat.
A dependent clause contains a subject and a verb but cannot stand alone as a complete sentence because it begins with a subordinating conjunction. In option B, 'Although she is hungry' is a dependent clause, introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'although,' which makes it reliant on the independent clause 'she is not going to eat' for complete meaning.
Question 47: Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
- Cerebrum
- Cerebellum (Correct answer)
- Medulla oblongata
- Hypothalamus
Correct answer: Cerebellum
The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and maintains balance.
Question 48: 1 liter contains how many milliliters?
- 10
- 1000 (Correct answer)
- 300
- 2000
Correct answer: 1000
The metric system is based on powers of 10 for unit conversions. A milliliter (mL) is defined as one-thousandth of a liter (L). Therefore, there are exactly 1000 milliliters in 1 liter.
Question 49: A passage describes the same event from a doctor's and a patient's view. This contrast helps the reader understand:
- The font choices
- The exact time of day
- The author's address
- Different perspectives on the event (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Different perspectives on the event
Presenting two viewpoints helps readers grasp differing perspectives on the event.
Question 50: My dearest friend was in a terrible automobile accident last Sunday night that left him hurt ____________.
- baddest
- worst
- badly (Correct answer)
- bad
Correct answer: badly
'Badly' is an adverb that correctly modifies the verb 'hurt,' describing the extent or manner of the injury. 'Bad' is an adjective and should not be used to modify a verb. Therefore, 'hurt badly' is the grammatically correct way to express the severity of the injury.
Question 51: What does the suffix '-ology' mean?
- Disease of
- Study of (Correct answer)
- Pain in
- Surgical removal
Correct answer: Study of
'-Ology' means the study of, as in cardiology (study of the heart).
Question 52: What is the best way to define homeostasis?
- the process by which the body breaks down glucose to provide energy to power other cellular activities
- a mechanism through which the body maintains a steady internal environment in the face of changes in internal and external circumstances (Correct answer)
- a mechanism through which the organism maintains its genetic composition despite the fact that various cells perform distinct activities
- the process through which the body reduces and responds to microbes such as bacteria and viruses
Correct answer: a mechanism through which the body maintains a steady internal environment in the face of changes in internal and external circumstances
Homeostasis is the fundamental biological process by which living organisms actively maintain a stable internal environment, such as body temperature, pH, and fluid balance, despite external changes. This definition accurately describes the body's crucial ability to regulate its internal conditions to ensure proper physiological functioning.
Question 53: The term 'flaccid' refers to muscles that are:
- Tense and rigid
- Limp and weak (Correct answer)
- Strong and firm
- Twitching
Correct answer: Limp and weak
Flaccid means soft, limp, and lacking firmness or tone.
Question 54: It is possible for an object to show two different types of motion at the same time.
- Force
- Acceleration
- Scalar quantity
- Project Motion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Project Motion
Projectile motion describes the path an object takes when launched into the air and is only subject to gravity. In this type of motion, the object simultaneously exhibits two independent types of motion: constant horizontal velocity (ignoring air resistance) and vertical motion under constant acceleration due to gravity. This demonstrates how an object can show two different types of motion at the same time.
Question 55: Which sentence uses the apostrophe correctly?
- The patient's chart is updated. (Correct answer)
- The patients chart is updated.
- The patients' chart's are updated.
- The patient's' chart is updated.
Correct answer: The patient's chart is updated.
A singular possessive adds apostrophe + s, so "patient's" is correct.
Question 56: Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to which of the following?
- Endometriosis (Correct answer)
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Menorrhagia
Correct answer: Endometriosis
Chocolate cysts, also known as endometriomas, are a common manifestation of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition where tissue similar to the uterine lining (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, often on the ovaries. These cysts are filled with old, dark, thick blood, which gives them their characteristic 'chocolate' appearance.
Question 57: What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10^-4 M?
- 14
- 10
- -4
- 4 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4
pH equals the negative log of [H+], so -log(1x10^-4) = 4.
Question 58: Which one of the following elements is liquid at room temperature?
- Magnesium
- Mercury (Correct answer)
- Manganese
- Zinc
Correct answer: Mercury
Among the given options, Mercury (Hg) is the only element that is liquid at standard room temperature and pressure. Manganese, Magnesium, and Zinc are all solid metals under these conditions.
Question 59: Which of the following statements about a negatively charged particle is correct?
- There are more electrons than protons in it. (Correct answer)
- It is empty of electrons.
- It has the same amount of protons and electrons.
- There are more protons than electrons in it.
Correct answer: There are more electrons than protons in it.
An atom is electrically neutral when it has an equal number of protons (positive charge) and electrons (negative charge). For a particle to be negatively charged, it must have an excess of negative charges. Therefore, a negatively charged particle has more electrons than protons.
Question 60: How many teaspoons are there in 5 tablespoons?
- 0.6 Tsps
- 1.5 Tsps
- \t15 Tsps. (Correct answer)
- 1.67 Tsps.
Correct answer: \t15 Tsps.
To convert tablespoons to teaspoons, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 tablespoon (tbsp) is equal to 3 teaspoons (tsp). Therefore, to find the number of teaspoons in 5 tablespoons, you multiply 5 by 3. This calculation yields 15 teaspoons.
Question 61: A nurse reads a study claiming a new wound care product heals burns 50% faster. The study was funded by the product manufacturer and had only 12 participants. What is the most appropriate response?
- Recommend the product to patients who ask about it
- Dismiss the study entirely because it was industry-funded
- Seek additional independent studies with larger sample sizes before changing practice (Correct answer)
- Immediately adopt the new product for all burn patients
Correct answer: Seek additional independent studies with larger sample sizes before changing practice
Critical thinking requires evaluating evidence quality. A small, industry-funded study needs corroboration from larger, independent research before changing clinical practice.
Question 62: Which biomolecule serves as the primary long-term energy storage in animals?
- Cellulose
- Glucose
- Fats (lipids) (Correct answer)
- Glycogen
Correct answer: Fats (lipids)
Lipids store the most energy per gram for long-term reserves in animals.
Question 63: Inductive reasoning in clinical practice involves:
- Applying a general rule to a case
- Forming a general conclusion from specific observations (Correct answer)
- Ignoring patient data
- Following orders without thought
Correct answer: Forming a general conclusion from specific observations
Inductive reasoning builds general conclusions from specific cues.
Question 64: Lisa prepares soup by combining spices in a saucepan of boiling water and stirring until the spices are completely dissolved. She then adds a variety of diced veggies. What is the solute in her mixture?
- Spices (Correct answer)
- Water
- Heat
- Vegetables
Correct answer: Spices
In a solution, the solute is the substance that gets dissolved, and the solvent is the substance that does the dissolving. In Lisa's soup, the spices are dissolved in the boiling water. Therefore, the spices are the solute in this mixture.
Question 65: A ball is thrown straight up. What is the direction of its acceleration at the top of its path?
- Upward
- Forward
- Zero
- Downward (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Downward
At the very top of its path, when a ball is thrown straight up, its instantaneous vertical velocity is zero, but it is still under the influence of gravity. The force of gravity continuously pulls the ball downward, resulting in a constant downward acceleration (approximately 9.8 m/s² on Earth), which causes it to fall back down.
Question 66: Which of the following is a function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
- Protein synthesis and modification (Correct answer)
- Lipid digestion
- DNA replication
- ATP production
Correct answer: Protein synthesis and modification
The rough ER, studded with ribosomes, synthesizes and processes proteins.
Question 67: In a medical journal abstract: 'This randomized controlled trial (n=500) found that early mobilization after hip replacement surgery reduced hospital stays by an average of 1.8 days (p<0.001) compared to standard care protocols.' What does 'p<0.001' indicate to the reader?
- The sample size was too small for valid conclusions
- The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance (Correct answer)
- The intervention reduced costs by 0.1%
- The results are not clinically important
Correct answer: The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance
A p-value less than 0.001 indicates very high statistical significance, meaning there is less than a 0.1% probability the results occurred by chance.
Question 68: What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together in a double helix?
- Covalent bonds
- Hydrogen bonds (Correct answer)
- Peptide bonds
- Ionic bonds
Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds
Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs (A-T and G-C) hold the two strands of the DNA double helix together.
Question 69: All of the following factors influence the pace of a chemical reaction except?
- Temperature
- Surface area
- Amount of mass lost (Correct answer)
- Presence of catalysts
Correct answer: Amount of mass lost
The pace or rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by factors such as the presence of catalysts, the surface area of reactants, and the temperature. The 'amount of mass lost' is not a factor influencing the reaction rate; rather, it would be a measurement of the extent of a reaction, and mass is conserved in chemical reactions.
Question 70: In a kilogram, how many grams are there?
- 1000 grams (Correct answer)
- 200 grams
- 20 grams
- 10 grams
Correct answer: 1000 grams
In the metric system, the prefix 'kilo-' signifies 1,000 units. Thus, one kilogram is equivalent to 1,000 grams. This is a standard conversion for mass within the metric system.
Question 71: A passage says a new policy 'sparked outrage among employees.' The word 'sparked' suggests the policy:
- Triggered a strong reaction (Correct answer)
- Was forgotten quickly
- Was quietly accepted
- Saved money
Correct answer: Triggered a strong reaction
'Sparked outrage' indicates the policy triggered a strong negative reaction.
Question 72: A shoe company sends out 7 trucks loaded with nursing shoes that cost the company $1,572 per truck. If they send out 750 boxes per truck, what would be the profit if the cost per box is $ 125.40?
- 647,346.00 (Correct answer)
- 45,357.60
- 79,490.40
- 614,400.00
Correct answer: 647,346.00
First, calculate the total cost for the company: 7 trucks * $1,572/truck = $11,004. Next, determine the total number of boxes: 7 trucks * 750 boxes/truck = 5,250 boxes. Then, calculate the total revenue from selling the boxes: 5,250 boxes * $125.40/box = $658,350. Finally, subtract the total cost from the total revenue to find the profit: $658,350 - $11,004 = $647,346.
Question 73: A reader concludes that a character is nervous because the text describes 'trembling hands and a shaky voice.' This is an example of:
- Counting syllables
- Identifying the title
- Drawing an inference (Correct answer)
- Stating a direct fact
Correct answer: Drawing an inference
Using described physical details to conclude the character's emotion is making an inference.
Question 74: In 'The benign tumor required monitoring but posed no immediate danger,' the word 'benign' most nearly means:
- Aggressive
- Contagious
- Harmless (Correct answer)
- Painful
Correct answer: Harmless
Posing 'no immediate danger' clarifies that 'benign' means harmless.
Question 75: The functional unit of the kidney is called the:
- Nephron (Correct answer)
- Neuron
- Sarcomere
- Alveolus
Correct answer: Nephron
The nephron filters blood and forms urine in the kidney.
Question 76: If a writer wants to appear objective, the writing should be free of:
- Accurate facts
- Clear organization
- Biased or emotional language (Correct answer)
- Supporting evidence
Correct answer: Biased or emotional language
Objective writing avoids bias and emotional appeals, relying on facts.
Question 77: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- Kevin prays at St. Mary’s Church fervently for his sister’s salvation.
- None of these are grammatically correct.
- Kevin prays for his sister’s salvation at St. Mary’s Church, fervently.
- Kevin prays fervently at St. Mary’s Church for his sister’s salvation. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Kevin prays fervently at St. Mary’s Church for his sister’s salvation.
When multiple adverbial phrases are present, the general order for clarity and natural flow is often manner, place, then time. In this sentence, 'fervently' describes *how* Kevin prays (manner), 'at St. Mary’s Church' describes *where* he prays (place), and 'for his sister’s salvation' describes *why* he prays (purpose). Placing 'fervently' directly after the verb 'prays' and before the other prepositional phrases creates the most grammatically correct and natural-sounding sentence structure.
Question 78: Which of the following is the closest definition to the word postulate?
- Disagree
- Claim (Correct answer)
- Gather
- Move
Correct answer: Claim
To 'postulate' means to suggest or assume the existence, fact, or truth of something as a basis for reasoning, discussion, or belief. It is essentially to put forward a theory or claim, often without definitive proof. Therefore, 'claim' is the closest definition, as it involves asserting something as true or factual.
Question 79: A solution that contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute is said to be what?
- Concentrated
- Dilute
- Saturated (Correct answer)
- Unsaturated
Correct answer: Saturated
A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a specific temperature. At this point, no more solute can dissolve, and any additional solute added will typically remain undissolved or precipitate out. This state represents an equilibrium between dissolved and undissolved solute.
Question 80: What part of the cell regulates what enters and leaves the cell?
- Cell wall
- Nucleus
- Cytoplasm
- Cell membrane (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cell membrane
The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, acts as a selectively permeable barrier that encloses the cell's contents. Its critical function is to control which substances can enter and exit the cell, thereby maintaining the cell's internal environment and facilitating communication with its surroundings.
Question 81: If 0.5 moles of NaCl are dissolved in 2.0 liters of water, what is the molarity of the solution?
- 0.25 M (Correct answer)
- 0.50 M
- 1.00 M
- 2.50 M
Correct answer: 0.25 M
Molarity (M) = moles of solute ÷ liters of solution. 0.5 mol ÷ 2.0 L = 0.25 M.
Question 82: What is the molarity of an aqueous solution containing 0.40 moles of sugar in 5 liters of water?
- 8.0 M
- 400.0 M
- 0.08 M (Correct answer)
- 0.04 M
Correct answer: 0.08 M
Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution. To calculate the molarity, you divide the given moles of sugar (0.40 moles) by the volume of water in liters (5 liters). Therefore, 0.40 moles / 5 L = 0.08 M.
Question 83: \tConvert 2\/3 to a decimal
- 0.2222(repeating)
- 0.3333 (repeating)
- 0.6666 (repeating) (Correct answer)
- 1.5
Correct answer: 0.6666 (repeating)
To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 2/3, divide 2 by 3. This division results in a repeating decimal, 0.6666..., where the 6 continues infinitely.
Question 84: What is the tone of a passage?
- The number of paragraphs
- The length of the passage
- The text's font style
- The author’s attitude or mood (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The author’s attitude or mood
The tone of a passage refers to the author's attitude or emotional stance towards the subject matter or the audience. It is conveyed through specific word choices, sentence structure, and overall writing style, influencing how the reader perceives the text's message. Recognizing the tone helps readers understand the author's perspective and the underlying mood of the writing.
Question 85: What does the prefix 'osteo-' refer to?
- Bone (Correct answer)
- Blood vessel
- Muscle
- Joint
Correct answer: Bone
'Osteo-' means bone, as in osteoporosis (reduction in bone density).
Question 86: Divide and simplify: ÷ \/
- 16
- 2 2\/8
- 2 1\/4 (Correct answer)
- 12 2\/3
Correct answer: 2 1\/4
To divide fractions, you multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction. Assuming the fractions are 9/10 and 2/5, the operation becomes 9/10 * 5/2. Multiply the numerators (9*5=45) and the denominators (10*2=20) to get 45/20. Simplifying this improper fraction gives 9/4, which converts to the mixed number 2 1/4.
Question 87: Which of the following is the best definition of the word languid?
- Talkative
- Warm
- Sluggish (Correct answer)
- Depressed
Correct answer: Sluggish
The word 'languid' describes a person or manner that is slow and relaxed, or lacking in vigor or energy. It suggests a state of weariness, listlessness, or a general lack of enthusiasm. Therefore, 'sluggish' is the best definition, as it implies a lack of energy and slow movement.
Question 88: A push or a pull on an item is defined as _________.
- Force (Correct answer)
- Vector quantity
- Velocity
- Average speed
Correct answer: Force
Force is defined as a push or a pull that can cause an object to accelerate, change its velocity, or deform. It is a vector quantity, possessing both magnitude and direction. Forces are fundamental to understanding motion and interactions in physics.
Question 89: If a wound is 'suppurating,' it is:
- Healing cleanly
- Drying out
- Bleeding heavily
- Discharging pus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Discharging pus
Suppurating means forming or discharging pus.
Question 90: Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation?
- Ribosome
- Mitochondria (Correct answer)
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi apparatus
Correct answer: Mitochondria
Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell, producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration.
Question 91: Which detail would best support the main idea that 'regular handwashing prevents illness'?
- A list of unrelated diseases
- A description of soap colors
- The history of a hospital building
- A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers
Data linking handwashing to fewer infections directly supports the main idea.
Question 92: A passage describes a research study: 'Participants who received the experimental drug showed a 40% reduction in symptoms compared to the placebo group. However, 15% of participants experienced significant side effects including nausea and dizziness.' Which statement represents an inference from this passage?
- Some participants experienced nausea
- Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks (Correct answer)
- The drug reduced symptoms by 40%
- Fifteen percent of participants had side effects
Correct answer: Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks
An inference goes beyond what is explicitly stated. The benefit-risk assessment is logically implied but not directly stated in the passage.
Question 93: What is the closest definition of the word occlude?
- To close tightly (Correct answer)
- To leave out
- To forget
- To revisit
Correct answer: To close tightly
To occlude means to stop, close up, or block an opening or passage. In a medical context, it often refers to the blockage of a blood vessel or duct, preventing the flow of blood or other fluids. For example, a blood clot can occlude an artery.
Question 94: Dr. Henry has his nursing staff line up at 4:30PM for the annual meeting. What would that be in military time?
- 2030
- 4030
- 0430
- 1630 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1630
To convert regular time to military time for any hour in the afternoon (P.M.), you add 12 to the hour. For 4:30 P.M., add 12 to 4, which equals 16. The minutes remain the same. Therefore, 4:30 P.M. in military time is 1630.
Question 95: The term 'tachycardia' means:
- Irregular heart rhythm
- Abnormally slow heart rate
- Abnormally fast heart rate (Correct answer)
- Absent heartbeat
Correct answer: Abnormally fast heart rate
'Tachy-' means fast and 'cardia' means heart, so tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate.
Question 96: Which of the following is not true of synovial joints?
- They are the most moveable joint type in the body.
- They are the most common joint in the body.
- They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column. (Correct answer)
- They have a fluid-filled capsule that surrounds their articulating surface.
Correct answer: They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Synovial joints are characterized by a fluid-filled capsule, articular cartilage, and are highly movable, such as the knee or shoulder. Intervertebral discs, however, are cartilaginous joints (specifically symphyses) that allow for limited movement and provide shock absorption between vertebrae. Therefore, synovial joints are not found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Question 97: The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is -9.8 m/s². Which part of this integer provides direction information, converting it to a vector quantity?
- We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration. (Correct answer)
- The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is upward, therefore we know it's a vector quantity.
- Because the negative sign indicates the magnitude of the acceleration, we know it's a vector quantity.
- Because the seconds are squared in the units, we know it's a vector quantity.
Correct answer: We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration.
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that has both magnitude (size) and direction. The value -9.8 m/s² for acceleration due to gravity includes a negative sign, which specifically indicates the direction of this acceleration. By convention, the negative sign signifies that the acceleration is directed downwards, towards the center of the Earth, thus providing directional information.
Question 98: The term 'benign' in medical terminology means:
- Cancerous and spreading
- Of unknown origin
- Requiring immediate treatment
- Not harmful or not cancerous (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Not harmful or not cancerous
'Benign' means not harmful, not cancerous, or not threatening to health, as opposed to 'malignant' which indicates cancerous or harmful.
Question 99: When a care plan states a patient is 'ambulatory,' it means the patient is:
- Scheduled for surgery
- Able to walk (Correct answer)
- Confined to bed rest
- Receiving intravenous fluids
Correct answer: Able to walk
'Ambulatory' derives from the Latin 'ambulare,' meaning to walk. An ambulatory patient is capable of walking and does not require a stretcher or bed transport.
Question 100: Which of the following is true of gas particles?
- They are generally stationary.
- The distance separating particles is small.
- They do not have mass.
- They exert little to no force on one another. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: They exert little to no force on one another.
According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, gas particles are in constant, random motion and are widely separated. They are considered to have negligible volume and exert very weak or negligible attractive or repulsive forces on one another. This allows them to move freely and independently within their container.
Question 101: When summarizing a passage, the reader should include which of the following?
- Personal opinions about the topic
- Only the first sentence
- The main idea and key supporting points (Correct answer)
- Every minor detail
Correct answer: The main idea and key supporting points
A good summary captures the central idea and the most important supporting points concisely.
Question 102: How many grams in 450 milligrams?
- 4.5 grams
- 450 grams
- 45 grams
- 0.45 grams (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.45 grams
To convert milligrams to grams, you need to know that 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams. Therefore, to convert 450 milligrams to grams, you divide 450 by 1000. This calculation yields 0.45 grams.
Question 103: A patient education brochure says, 'Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.' What is the primary purpose of this statement?
- To persuade the reader to buy
- To give instructions (Correct answer)
- To entertain the reader
- To describe a scene
Correct answer: To give instructions
The sentence directs the reader on how to take the medication, making it instructional.
Question 104: What is the name of the process by which a solid changes directly into a gas?
- Melting
- Evaporation
- Sublimation (Correct answer)
- Condensation
Correct answer: Sublimation
Sublimation is the direct transition of a solid to a gas without becoming liquid.
Question 105: What does 'erythro-' mean?
- White
- Blue
- Red (Correct answer)
- Yellow
Correct answer: Red
'Erythro-' means red, as in erythrocytes (red blood cells) and erythema (skin redness).
Question 106: How many types of basic tissues does a human have?
- 25
- 14
- 8
- 4 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4
The human body is organized into four fundamental types of tissues, each with specialized structures and functions. These are epithelial tissue (for covering and lining), connective tissue (for support and binding), muscle tissue (for movement), and nervous tissue (for communication and control). These basic tissues combine to form organs and organ systems.
Question 107: Which statement best describes an exothermic chemical reaction?
- It requires a catalyst to release energy.
- It releases heat energy to the surroundings. (Correct answer)
- It absorbs heat energy from the surroundings.
- It only occurs at temperatures above 100 °C.
Correct answer: It releases heat energy to the surroundings.
In an exothermic reaction, the products have less energy than the reactants, so the excess energy is released as heat into the surroundings (e.g., combustion).
Question 108: Brian ___________ up ten minutes after his alarm was supposed to go off.
- awoke
- woke (Correct answer)
- woken
- awakened
Correct answer: woke
'Woke' is the simple past tense of the verb 'to wake,' which is appropriate for a completed action in the past. The phrasal verb 'woke up' is a common and natural way to express this. 'Woken' is the past participle and requires an auxiliary verb (e.g., 'had woken'). 'Awakened' is also correct but 'woke' is more common in this context.
Question 109: Which of the following statements is a declarative sentence?
- Complete the prescription.
- Is the pharmacy open at this time?
- Before greeting a patient, wash your hands.
- It's a bit dark outside today. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It's a bit dark outside today.
A declarative sentence makes a statement or expresses a fact or opinion. 'It's a bit dark outside today' is a statement about the current conditions. Options A and D are imperative sentences (commands), and option B is an interrogative sentence (a question).
Question 110: In degrees Celsius, a typical human body temperature is
- 35 degrees
- 38 degrees
- 33 degrees
- 37 degrees (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 37 degrees
The typical normal human body temperature is approximately 37 degrees Celsius (or 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit). This is the average temperature at which the body's metabolic processes function optimally. Slight variations can occur, but 37°C is the widely accepted standard.
Question 111: Unstable nuclei, given enough time, will:
- None of the above
- decay into a stable form (Correct answer)
- degrade into a further unstable form
- evolve
Correct answer: decay into a stable form
Unstable nuclei are radioactive and undergo nuclear decay to achieve a more stable configuration. This process involves emitting particles or energy until the nucleus reaches a stable state, often transforming into a different element. Therefore, they naturally decay into a stable form over time.
Question 112: What is the role of enzymes in biological reactions?
- Slow down reactions
- Act as catalysts (Correct answer)
- Provide energy for reactions
- Break down DNA
Correct answer: Act as catalysts
Enzymes are biological catalysts, meaning they significantly speed up the rate of biochemical reactions without being consumed in the process. They achieve this by lowering the activation energy required for a reaction to occur, making metabolic processes efficient and viable at physiological temperatures.
Question 113: What is the closest definition of the word sinuous?
- Thin
- Mischievous
- Supple (Correct answer)
- Slender
Correct answer: Supple
Sinuous means having many curves and turns, or winding. It also implies flexibility and grace, making 'supple' a close synonym. A sinuous movement or shape is often fluid and elegant, like a snake moving.
Question 114: The suffix '-ectomy' refers to:
- Inflammation
- Disease of
- Surgical removal (Correct answer)
- Incision into
Correct answer: Surgical removal
'-Ectomy' comes from Greek and means surgical removal, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix).
Question 115: Which question best reflects evaluating the reliability of a source of clinical information?
- Did a coworker mention it?
- Is the website attractive?
- Is the information current and evidence-based? (Correct answer)
- Is the information easy to read?
Correct answer: Is the information current and evidence-based?
Reliable clinical information must be current and supported by evidence.
Question 116: If Angel ________________ the module like she was supposed to, she would have known what was on the exam.
- will have read
- would have read
- had read (Correct answer)
- shouldn’t have read
Correct answer: had read
This sentence uses the third conditional structure, which describes a hypothetical situation in the past and its hypothetical result. The 'if' clause requires the past perfect tense ('had read') to indicate a condition that did not occur in the past. The main clause then uses 'would have known' to express the consequence.
Question 117: Which of the following is the best definition of the word incongruent?
- Incompatible (Correct answer)
- Discontented
- Discouraged
- Sinister
Correct answer: Incompatible
The word 'incongruent' means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. It describes things that are inconsistent, unsuitable, or do not fit well together. Therefore, 'incompatible' is the best definition, as it signifies a lack of suitability or agreement between things.
Question 118: What is the best way to define "predispose"?
- To make susceptible (Correct answer)
- To show interest
- To be cautious of bias
- To dispose an item before using
Correct answer: To make susceptible
To predispose someone means to make them liable or inclined to a specified attitude, action, or condition. In a medical context, it means to make someone more susceptible or vulnerable to developing a particular disease or condition. For example, genetics can predispose an individual to certain illnesses.
Question 119: Which is the most reasonable hypothesis if two closely related species show different traits?
- They adapted to different environments (Correct answer)
- They evolved from different ancestors
- They are unrelated species
- They mutated at the same time
Correct answer: They adapted to different environments
Even closely related species can develop different traits if they adapt to distinct environmental conditions or ecological niches. Natural selection favors characteristics that enhance survival and reproduction in a particular environment, leading to the divergence of traits over time as species specialize.
Question 120: Which electrolyte is most critical for cardiac muscle contraction and maintaining normal heart rhythm?
- Chloride
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Potassium (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Potassium
Potassium is essential for cardiac muscle function, and abnormal levels (hypokalemia or hyperkalemia) can cause life-threatening arrhythmias.
Question 121: What is the closest definition of deficiency?
- Absence (Correct answer)
- Clarity
- Powerful
- Plenty
Correct answer: Absence
Deficiency refers to a lack or shortage of something essential. In a medical context, it often describes an inadequate supply of a nutrient, vitamin, or hormone necessary for proper bodily function. For example, an iron deficiency means there is an absence of sufficient iron.
Question 122: A nurse documents that a patient is 'febrile.' This term means the patient has:
- Difficulty breathing
- Decreased urine output
- Swelling in the extremities
- An elevated body temperature (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An elevated body temperature
'Febrile' comes from the Latin 'febris,' meaning fever. A febrile patient has a body temperature above the normal range (above 38°C / 100.4°F).
Question 123: A nurse anticipates a potential complication before it occurs. This proactive thinking is called:
- Passive observation
- Reactive care
- Routine charting
- Anticipatory clinical reasoning (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Anticipatory clinical reasoning
Anticipating complications reflects anticipatory clinical reasoning.
Question 124: A ball is at the top of a hill. Which factor, or factors, is responsible for its potential energy?
- Its position and its mass (Correct answer)
- Its mass
- Its acceleration and its position
- Its circular shape
Correct answer: Its position and its mass
Gravitational potential energy (PE) is determined by an object's mass (m), its height or position (h) relative to a reference point, and the acceleration due to gravity (g). The formula PE = mgh clearly shows that both the object's mass and its vertical position are directly responsible for its potential energy.
Question 125: During meiosis, genetic diversity is increased by the exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes. What is this process called?
- Cytokinesis
- Nondisjunction
- Independent assortment
- Crossing over (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Crossing over
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material at points called chiasmata.
Question 126: To what does the word salpingo refer?
- A tube (Correct answer)
- The spleen
- A bone
- An artery
Correct answer: A tube
The prefix 'salpingo-' is derived from the Greek word 'salpinx,' meaning 'trumpet' or 'tube.' In medical terminology, it specifically refers to a tube, most commonly the fallopian tube (e.g., salpingectomy for removal of a fallopian tube) or sometimes the Eustachian tube.
Question 127: Aimee was ____________ about the natural science in fifth grade.
- learned
- taught (Correct answer)
- teached
- learnt
Correct answer: taught
'Taught' is the correct past participle of the verb 'to teach,' used here in the passive voice ('was taught') to indicate that Aimee received instruction. 'Learned' is the past tense/participle of 'to learn,' meaning to acquire knowledge oneself. 'Learnt' is an older or British English form, and 'teached' is grammatically incorrect.
Question 128: Which of the following is not a property of water?
- High surface tension
- Density of liquid form is less than solid form (Correct answer)
- Can absorb/release large quantities of heat without large temperature change.
- High boiling point compared to other hydrogen compounds
Correct answer: Density of liquid form is less than solid form
The correct answer is that the density of liquid water is *greater* than its solid form (ice), which is an unusual property. Most substances become denser when they solidify. Water's unique hydrogen bonding causes ice to form an open, crystalline structure that is less dense than liquid water, allowing ice to float.
Question 129: Joy learned a new song to play on the guitar, and it sounds ____________.
- Beautifully
- More beautiful
- Loveliest
- Lovely (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lovely
The verb 'sounds' in this sentence is a linking verb, which connects the subject ('it,' referring to the song) to a word that describes or renames the subject. Linking verbs should be followed by an adjective, not an adverb. 'Lovely' is an adjective that correctly describes the quality of the song.
Question 130: Which of the following is the best definition of an author's 'tone'?
- The number of supporting details
- The sequence of events
- The author's attitude toward the subject (Correct answer)
- The main idea of the text
Correct answer: The author's attitude toward the subject
Tone refers to the writer's attitude or emotional stance toward the topic.
Question 131: Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?
- Having finished her charting, she clocked out for the night.
- Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief. (Correct answer)
- After reviewing the labs, the doctor ordered a new medication.
- Running down the hallway, the nurse reached the patient in time.
Correct answer: Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief.
In 'Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief,' the modifier 'exhausted from the long shift' incorrectly modifies 'break room' rather than a person. A break room cannot be exhausted. The sentence should read: 'Exhausted from the long shift, she found some relief in the break room.'
Question 132: To 'palpate' an area means to:
- Tap it sharply
- Examine by touch (Correct answer)
- Listen with a stethoscope
- Look closely at it
Correct answer: Examine by touch
Palpate means to examine by feeling with the hands or fingers.
Question 133: Gas exchange between the blood and body tissues occurs at which level of the vascular system?
- Venules
- Capillaries (Correct answer)
- Arterioles
- Arteries
Correct answer: Capillaries
Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels with walls only one cell thick, allowing gas, nutrient, and waste exchange between blood and tissues.
Question 134: Which is the best example of analyzing cues for clustering?
- Reading the chart aloud
- Listing data alphabetically
- Grouping related signs and symptoms to identify a pattern (Correct answer)
- Recording vital signs only
Correct answer: Grouping related signs and symptoms to identify a pattern
Clustering groups related cues to reveal meaningful patterns.
Question 135: What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?
- Forming the ribosomal subunits
- Splicing introns from mRNA
- Carrying the genetic code from the nucleus
- Delivering amino acids to the ribosome (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Delivering amino acids to the ribosome
Transfer RNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosome during translation, matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon.
Question 136: In 'Her explanation was lucid, leaving no room for confusion,' the word 'lucid' means:
- Loud and forceful
- Long and detailed
- Confusing and vague
- Clear and easy to understand (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Clear and easy to understand
'Leaving no room for confusion' shows that 'lucid' means clear and understandable.
Question 137: In a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous parents (AaBb), what is the phenotypic ratio of offspring?
- 3:1
- 1:2:1
- 1:1
- 9:3:3:1 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 9:3:3:1
A cross of two AaBb individuals yields the classic 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.
Question 138: The average speed of a high velocity train is 200 kilometers per hour. The distance between Paris and Naples is 7,346 km (1 mile = 1.609 km). How long will the trip take? (Round to the nearest whole number).
- 37 hours (Correct answer)
- 38 hours
- 36.73 hours
- 3.8 hours
Correct answer: 37 hours
To find the time taken for the trip, divide the total distance by the average speed. The distance is 7,346 km and the speed is 200 km/hour. So, Time = 7,346 km / 200 km/hour = 36.73 hours. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the trip will take 37 hours.
Question 139: What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration [H+] of 1 x 10^-4 M?
- 14
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 10
- 2
Correct answer: 4
pH = -log[H+] = -log(1 x 10^-4) = 4. This solution is acidic since the pH is below 7.
Question 140: What is the topic sentence of a paragraph?
- The last sentence only
- The shortest sentence
- The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea (Correct answer)
- Any sentence with a date
Correct answer: The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea
A topic sentence introduces the central idea that the rest of the paragraph supports.
Question 141: Why does a helium balloon rise in air?
- It has magnetic properties
- It repels gravity
- It heats up the air around it
- It is lighter than air (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It is lighter than air
A helium balloon rises because helium gas is less dense than the surrounding air. According to Archimedes' principle, an object immersed in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Since the helium balloon displaces a volume of air that weighs more than the balloon itself (including the helium), it experiences a net upward force, causing it to rise.
Question 142: A passage states: 'The pediatric nurse must consider developmental stages when assessing pain. Neonates may exhibit facial grimacing and increased heart rate. Toddlers may cry and cling to caregivers. School-age children can often use numeric pain scales.' Which statement best summarizes the passage?
- Neonates experience more pain than older children
- School-age children are the most reliable reporters of pain
- Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level (Correct answer)
- Pain assessment tools are the same across all age groups
Correct answer: Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level
The passage demonstrates that different age groups express pain differently, requiring developmentally appropriate assessment approaches.
Question 143: The word 'prognosis' refers to:
- The prevention of a disease
- The cause of a disease
- The predicted outcome of a disease (Correct answer)
- The identification of a disease
Correct answer: The predicted outcome of a disease
'Prognosis' refers to the predicted course and outcome of a disease or condition, including the chance of recovery.
Question 144: Convert 5\/8 to a decimal
- 0.0625
- 1.6
- 6.25
- 0.625 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.625
To convert the fraction 5/8 to a decimal, divide the numerator (5) by the denominator (8). Performing this division, 5 ÷ 8 equals 0.625.
Question 145: 27 students attended a HESI session in the Math Lab if 8 out of 11 were females, how many were male? (Round to a whole number)
- 17
- 15
- 7 males (Correct answer)
- 3 males
Correct answer: 7 males
First, determine the proportion of male students. If 8 out of 11 students were females, then 11 - 8 = 3 out of 11 students were males. To find the number of male students, multiply this proportion by the total number of students: (3/11) * 27. This calculation yields 81/11, which is approximately 7.36. Rounding to the nearest whole number, there were 7 male students.
Question 146: How do you represent 7\/40 as a percentage?
- 17.5% (Correct answer)
- 17%
- 20%
- 22%
Correct answer: 17.5%
To convert a fraction to a percentage, divide the numerator by the denominator and then multiply the result by 100. For the fraction 7/40, dividing 7 by 40 gives 0.175. Multiplying 0.175 by 100 results in 17.5%.
Question 147: Based on a passage: 'Nurse practitioners (NPs) have prescriptive authority in all 50 states, though scope of practice varies. In full-practice states, NPs can evaluate, diagnose, and treat patients independently. In restricted-practice states, NPs must maintain a collaborative agreement with a physician.' What is the main idea of this passage?
- NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state (Correct answer)
- Physician collaboration improves patient outcomes
- Full-practice states have better healthcare than restricted-practice states
- Nurse practitioners should have full practice authority everywhere
Correct answer: NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state
The main idea summarizes the central point: NPs have prescriptive authority everywhere, but the scope of independent practice varies by state regulation.
Question 148: What is the most abundant element in the universe?
- Hydrogen (Correct answer)
- Helium
- Oxygen
- Nitrogen
Correct answer: Hydrogen
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the entire universe, making up approximately 75% of its baryonic mass. It is the fundamental building block of stars and is prevalent in interstellar gas and dust clouds.
Question 149: A subatomic particle is which of the following in relation to an atom?
- Smaller (Correct answer)
- Faster
- Bigger
Correct answer: Smaller
A subatomic particle is, by definition, any particle that is smaller than an atom. Atoms are composed of these fundamental particles, such as protons, neutrons, and electrons. Therefore, these constituent parts are inherently smaller than the complete atom.
Question 150: Which kind of circulation is connected with the right side of the heart?
- Ventricular circulation
- Myocardial circulation
- Pulmonary circulation (Correct answer)
- Systemic circulation
Correct answer: Pulmonary circulation
The right side of the heart is responsible for receiving deoxygenated blood from the body and pumping it to the lungs. This specific circulatory pathway, which involves the heart sending blood to the lungs for oxygenation and then receiving it back, is known as pulmonary circulation. Systemic circulation, conversely, involves the left side of the heart pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
Question 151: What is meant by the word optic?
- The ear or hearing
- The mouth or tasting
- The eye or vision (Correct answer)
- The nose or smelling
Correct answer: The eye or vision
The word 'optic' is derived from the Greek word 'optikos,' meaning 'of or for sight.' It is consistently used in medical and anatomical contexts to refer to the eye or the sense of vision. Examples include the optic nerve, which transmits visual information, and optics, the scientific study of light and vision.
Question 152: A patient's lab results show a critically low potassium level, but the patient reports feeling fine. What should the nurse do first?
- Verify the lab results by checking for possible errors and reassessing the patient (Correct answer)
- Reassure the patient and document that they feel fine
- Immediately administer potassium supplements
- Ignore the lab value since the patient is asymptomatic
Correct answer: Verify the lab results by checking for possible errors and reassessing the patient
Critical thinking requires verifying unexpected findings before acting. Lab errors occur, and hypokalemia can be asymptomatic initially while still posing cardiac risks.
Question 153: Which of the following is not produced by an exocrine gland?
- Saliva
- Milk
- Adrenaline (Correct answer)
- Digestive enzymes
Correct answer: Adrenaline
Exocrine glands secrete their products, such as milk, digestive enzymes, or saliva, into ducts that lead to an external surface or internal cavity. Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, which are endocrine glands. Endocrine glands release their secretions (hormones) directly into the bloodstream, without using ducts.
Question 154: Add 4\/5 + 3\/15 (reduced to lowest terms)
- 7\/15
- 1\/15
- 12\/15
- 1 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1
To add fractions, they must have a common denominator. For 4/5 + 3/15, the least common denominator is 15. Convert 4/5 to an equivalent fraction with a denominator of 15 by multiplying both the numerator and denominator by 3, which gives 12/15. Now add the fractions: 12/15 + 3/15 = 15/15. Finally, reduce the fraction to its lowest terms, which is 1.
Question 155: Which of the following words refers to being near to the body's trunk?
- Superficial
- None of the above
- Distal
- Proximal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Proximal
In anatomical terminology, 'proximal' describes a position that is closer to the point of origin or attachment of a body part to the trunk. For example, the shoulder is proximal to the elbow, and the elbow is proximal to the wrist. This term is used to indicate relative closeness along a limb or structure.
Question 156: Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production in eukaryotic cells?
- Lysosome
- Ribosome
- Golgi apparatus
- Mitochondria (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Mitochondria
Mitochondria generate most cellular ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
Question 157: How fast does sound travel through a vacuum?
- 25 m/s
- 0 m/s (Correct answer)
- 222 m/s
- 331.4 m/s
Correct answer: 0 m/s
Sound is a mechanical wave, meaning it requires a medium (like air, water, or solids) to transmit its vibrations. A vacuum is a space devoid of matter, so there are no particles to vibrate and carry the sound waves. Therefore, sound cannot travel through a vacuum, resulting in a speed of 0 m/s.
Question 158: Which process converts glucose into pyruvate in the cytoplasm without requiring oxygen?
- Krebs cycle
- Glycolysis (Correct answer)
- Electron transport chain
- Photosynthesis
Correct answer: Glycolysis
Glycolysis breaks glucose into two pyruvate molecules in the cytosol anaerobically.
Question 159: Which process allows a cell to engulf large particles by wrapping its membrane around them?
- Translation
- Diffusion
- Osmosis
- Phagocytosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Phagocytosis
Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis where the cell engulfs large solid particles.
Question 160: Subtract: 3 1 \/ 2 - 2 2\/3
- 1 1\/5
- 5\/16
- 5\/6 (Correct answer)
- 6\/5
Correct answer: 5\/6
To subtract mixed numbers, first convert them into improper fractions. 3 1/2 becomes 7/2 and 2 2/3 becomes 8/3. Find a common denominator, which is 6, so 7/2 becomes 21/6 and 8/3 becomes 16/6. Subtracting these gives 21/6 - 16/6 = 5/6.
Question 161: In a passage about wound healing: 'The inflammatory phase, lasting 1-6 days, involves vascular response and cellular defense. Subsequently, the proliferative phase spans days 3-21, characterized by granulation tissue formation. Finally, the maturation phase may continue for up to 2 years.' What organizational pattern does this passage use?
- Compare and contrast
- Cause and effect
- Problem and solution
- Chronological/sequential order (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Chronological/sequential order
The passage organizes information in time-based sequential order, using temporal markers like 'subsequently' and 'finally' to describe phases in order.
Question 162: After my car was repaired, it ____________ again.
- None of the above
- ran good
- ran well (Correct answer)
- ran more well
Correct answer: ran well
'Well' is an adverb that correctly modifies the verb 'ran,' describing the manner in which the car performed. 'Good' is an adjective and should not be used to modify a verb. Therefore, 'ran well' is the grammatically correct and appropriate phrasing.
Question 163: Subtract 2\/ − 6\/ (Enter numerical value only).
- 2 8\/10
- 7 5\/13
- 2 17\/21 (Correct answer)
- 7 8\/10
Correct answer: 2 17\/21
The question 'Subtract 2/ - 6/' is incomplete, but assuming it refers to a subtraction of mixed numbers that results in 2 17/21, the general process involves finding a common denominator for the fractions, converting mixed numbers to improper fractions if necessary for borrowing, and then subtracting the numerators and whole numbers. For example, if the problem was 6 1/7 - 3 1/3, you would convert to 6 3/21 - 3 7/21, then borrow to get 5 24/21 - 3 7/21, resulting in 2 17/21.
Question 164: A quantity that describes the rate at which an object's position changes over time and must be represented in both magnitude and direction of motion.
- Vector quantity (Correct answer)
- Average Velocity
- Scalar Quantity
- Acceleration
Correct answer: Vector quantity
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that requires both magnitude (size) and direction for its complete description. The definition provided, 'rate at which an object's position changes over time and must be represented in both magnitude and direction of motion,' perfectly describes a vector quantity, such as velocity or acceleration.
Question 165: Which of the following is NOT a digestive system function?
- Absorbing nutrients into blood
- Performing gas exchange (Correct answer)
- Enzymatically breaking down food
- Get rid of unabsorbed waste
Correct answer: Performing gas exchange
Performing gas exchange (the intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide) is the primary function of the respiratory system, specifically the lungs. The digestive system is responsible for the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food, absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and elimination of unabsorbed waste, but not for gas exchange.
Question 166: What is the meaning of incision?
- Fracture
- Injection
- Closure
- Cut (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cut
An 'incision' is a surgical cut made in skin or flesh, typically during an operation or medical procedure. It is a precise opening created by a surgeon's instrument. Therefore, 'cut' is the most direct and accurate definition of an incision.
Question 167: What is the closest definition of diagnosis?
- Comment
- Complication
- Explanation (Correct answer)
- Alias
Correct answer: Explanation
In a medical context, a diagnosis is the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms. It involves interpreting signs and symptoms to provide an explanation for a patient's condition. This explanation guides treatment and prognosis.
Question 168: What does 'cardio-' mean?
- Blood
- Heart (Correct answer)
- Brain
- Lung
Correct answer: Heart
'Cardio-' refers to the heart, as in cardiology (study of the heart) and cardiovascular (heart and blood vessels).
Question 169: What does the prefix 'hypo-' indicate?
- Above normal
- Around
- Below normal (Correct answer)
- Against
Correct answer: Below normal
The prefix 'hypo-' means below, under, or less than normal, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypotension (low blood pressure).
Question 170: In an exothermic reaction, what happens to energy?
- Energy is converted entirely to matter
- Energy remains unchanged
- Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
- Energy is released to the surroundings (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Energy is released to the surroundings
Exothermic reactions release energy (usually as heat) to the surroundings, resulting in a negative enthalpy change (ΔH < 0).
Question 171: What is the best definition of the word dichotomy?
- Division (Correct answer)
- Truncation
- Achievement
- Trepidation
Correct answer: Division
Dichotomy refers to a division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different. It highlights a sharp separation or contrast between two distinct parts, ideas, or categories. For example, the dichotomy between good and evil.
Question 172: A passage reads: 'Florence Nightingale's environmental theory emphasized that clean air, clean water, proper drainage, cleanliness, and light were essential for patient recovery. While these concepts seem obvious today, they were revolutionary in the mid-1800s when germ theory had not yet been established.' What can be inferred about the historical context?
- Germ theory was established before Nightingale's work
- Florence Nightingale discovered germ theory
- Nightingale's theory is no longer relevant to modern nursing
- Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for
If Nightingale's advocacy for cleanliness was 'revolutionary,' it can be inferred that these conditions were not standard in hospitals of that era.
Question 173: What is the closest definition of the word cauterize?
- Repair
- Insert
- Burn (Correct answer)
- Cut
Correct answer: Burn
To 'cauterize' means to burn the skin or flesh of a wound with a heated instrument or caustic substance, typically to stop bleeding or prevent infection. The primary action involved in this medical procedure is burning tissue. Therefore, 'burn' is the most direct and accurate definition.
Question 174: Multiply and reduced to lowest terms 5\/13 x 3 3\/8
- 5\/9
- 104\/45
- 1 31\/104 (Correct answer)
- 45\/104
Correct answer: 1 31\/104
To multiply 5/13 by 3 3/8, first convert the mixed number to an improper fraction: 3 3/8 becomes (3*8 + 3)/8 = 27/8. Now multiply the fractions: (5/13) * (27/8) = (5*27) / (13*8) = 135/104. Convert this improper fraction back to a mixed number by dividing 135 by 104, which gives 1 with a remainder of 31, resulting in 1 31/104.
Question 175: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- Carefully wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap. (Correct answer)
- Wash, carefully, the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
- Wash the baby with carefully unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
- Wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap, carefully.
Correct answer: Carefully wash the baby with unscented, hypoallergenic soap.
Adverbs of manner, such as 'carefully,' should generally be placed close to the verb they modify to ensure clarity and proper emphasis. In this imperative sentence, 'carefully' modifies the verb 'wash.' Placing it at the beginning of the sentence or directly before the verb 'wash' is grammatically correct and creates a natural flow, emphasizing the manner in which the action should be performed.
Question 176: The word 'edema' in a patient's chart most accurately describes:
- Excessive bleeding
- A skin rash or irritation
- Abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling (Correct answer)
- Muscle weakness or wasting
Correct answer: Abnormal accumulation of fluid causing swelling
Edema refers to the buildup of excess fluid in the body's tissues, resulting in visible swelling. It commonly occurs in the ankles, feet, or hands.
Question 177: The average speed of a high velocity train is 200 kilometers per hour. The distance between Paris and Naples is 7,346 km (1 mile = 1.609 km). How long will the trip take? (Round to the nearest whole number).
- 38 hours
- 37 hours (Correct answer)
- 36.73 hours
- 3.8 hours
Correct answer: 37 hours
To find the time the trip will take, use the formula Time = Distance / Speed. The distance is 7,346 km and the speed is 200 km/h. Divide 7,346 by 200, which equals 36.73 hours. Rounding 36.73 to the nearest whole number gives 37 hours. The information about miles to kilometers is extraneous for this calculation.
Question 178: Which sentence states a fact rather than an opinion?
- Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level. (Correct answer)
- The movie was too long and boring.
- Everyone should exercise more often.
- Summer is the best season of the year.
Correct answer: Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level.
A boiling point is a measurable, verifiable fact, while the others express judgments.
Question 179: Read the following: 'Patients with chronic heart failure should limit sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Foods high in sodium include processed meats, canned soups, and fast food. Reading nutrition labels and choosing fresh, unprocessed foods can help patients manage their sodium consumption.' This passage is written for which audience?
- Pharmaceutical researchers developing heart failure drugs
- Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home (Correct answer)
- Cardiologists specializing in heart failure research
- Hospital administrators creating dietary policies
Correct answer: Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home
The practical, plain-language advice about reading labels and food choices indicates the intended audience is patients and caregivers managing the condition at home.
Question 180: Ligaments connect which two structures?
- Muscle to bone
- Tendon to bone
- Bone to bone (Correct answer)
- Muscle to muscle
Correct answer: Bone to bone
Ligaments are strong, fibrous bands of connective tissue that primarily connect bones to other bones. Their main function is to stabilize joints, limit excessive movement, and prevent dislocations. In contrast, tendons connect muscles to bones.
Question 181: What is the molarity of a solution containing 58.5 grams of NaCl dissolved in enough water to make 2 liters of solution? (Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)
- 0.25 M
- 1.0 M
- 2.0 M
- 0.5 M (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.5 M
Molarity = moles of solute / liters of solution. Moles of NaCl = 58.5g / 58.5g/mol = 1 mol. Molarity = 1 mol / 2 L = 0.5 M.
Question 182: How many valence electrons does an oxygen atom (atomic number 8) have?
- 8
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 4
- 2
Correct answer: 6
Oxygen has the electron configuration 2, 6 — meaning 2 electrons in the first shell and 6 in the second (valence) shell.
Question 183: What is the meaning of the word acute?
- Permanent
- Quick (Correct answer)
- Tempered
- Chronic
Correct answer: Quick
In a medical context, 'acute' describes a condition or illness that has a sudden onset and a short, severe course. It implies a rapid development and often a quick resolution, as opposed to 'chronic,' which refers to a long-lasting condition. For example, acute pain comes on quickly.
Question 184: If a specific reversible process reached equilibrium, what would happen if more reactants were added?
- Nothing, because the reaction has reached equilibrium.
- The reaction would heat up
- The equilibrium position would move, resulting in the formation of more reactants.
- The equilibrium would change in favor of the formation of additional products. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The equilibrium would change in favor of the formation of additional products.
This scenario is described by Le Chatelier's Principle, which states that if a change of condition is applied to a system in equilibrium, the system will shift in a direction that relieves the stress. Adding more reactants is a stress, so the equilibrium will shift to consume these reactants. This results in the formation of additional products to re-establish equilibrium.
Question 185: The suffix '-algia' means:
- Inflammation
- Surgical removal
- Pain (Correct answer)
- Disease
Correct answer: Pain
'-Algia' means pain, as in neuralgia (nerve pain) or myalgia (muscle pain).
Question 186: Which type of cellular transport requires energy in the form of ATP?
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport (Correct answer)
- Osmosis
- Simple diffusion
Correct answer: Active transport
Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient using ATP.
Question 187: Ratio and proportion: 0.5:20:: x:200
- x= 5 (Correct answer)
- x= 4
- x= 50
- x = 25
Correct answer: x= 5
To solve a ratio and proportion problem like 0.5:20::x:200, you can set it up as a fraction: 0.5/20 = x/200. Cross-multiply to solve for x: 0.5 * 200 = 20 * x. This simplifies to 100 = 20x, and dividing both sides by 20 yields x = 5.
Question 188: Which process describes the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration?
- Active transport
- Exocytosis
- Facilitated diffusion
- Osmosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Osmosis
Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane toward the region of higher solute concentration.
Question 189: Which of the following causes cramps during strenuous exercise?
- Lactate (Correct answer)
- Glucose
- Protein
- Pyruvate
Correct answer: Lactate
During strenuous exercise, when oxygen supply to muscles is insufficient, cells switch to anaerobic respiration, producing lactate (lactic acid) as a byproduct. While lactate itself is not the direct cause of cramps, its accumulation and the associated drop in pH within muscle cells contribute to muscle fatigue, soreness, and can play a role in the sensation of cramping.
Question 190: Which transition word signals that an example is coming?
- Nevertheless
- For instance (Correct answer)
- Although
- Meanwhile
Correct answer: For instance
'For instance' introduces an example that illustrates a point.
Question 191: What is the usage of scientific notation?
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with larger numbers.
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with both tiny and large quantities. (Correct answer)
- The plan is to make it easier to deal with fewer numbers.
- There is no point.
Correct answer: The plan is to make it easier to deal with both tiny and large quantities.
Scientific notation is a mathematical tool used to express very large or very small numbers in a more concise and manageable form. By representing numbers as a product of a coefficient and a power of 10, it simplifies calculations and comparisons involving extreme magnitudes, making them easier to read and understand.
Question 192: Convert the fraction into decimals 7\/4=175% (Enter numerical value only).
- 175
- 17.5
- 1.75 (Correct answer)
- .175
Correct answer: 1.75
To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 7/4, divide 7 by 4. The result of this division is 1.75. (The 175% is the decimal multiplied by 100, indicating the percentage equivalent).
Question 193: The suffix '-scopy' means:
- Disease process
- Visual examination (Correct answer)
- Surgical removal
- Surgical incision
Correct answer: Visual examination
'-Scopy' means visual examination, as in endoscopy (visual examination of the interior of the body).
Question 194: A nurse observes that a colleague frequently skips hand hygiene between patient rooms. Applying critical thinking, what should the nurse do?
- Begin documenting every instance for future disciplinary action
- Ignore it since confrontation might damage the working relationship
- Report the colleague directly to hospital administration
- Address the behavior privately with the colleague, emphasizing infection prevention evidence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Address the behavior privately with the colleague, emphasizing infection prevention evidence
Addressing the issue directly and professionally with evidence-based reasoning balances patient safety with collegial respect.
Question 195: Identify the sentence with correct parallel structure.
- The nurse enjoys teaching patients, conducting research, and to write reports.
- The nurse enjoys teaching patients, to conduct research, and writing reports.
- The nurse enjoys teaching patients, conducting research, and writing reports. (Correct answer)
- The nurse enjoys to teach patients, conducting research, and writing reports.
Correct answer: The nurse enjoys teaching patients, conducting research, and writing reports.
Parallel structure requires that items in a list or series use the same grammatical form. All three activities use gerunds (-ing form): teaching, conducting, writing.
Question 196: The medical term 'hepatitis' refers to inflammation of the:
- Liver (Correct answer)
- Heart
- Kidney
- Lung
Correct answer: Liver
'Hepat-' is the root for liver, so hepatitis means inflammation of the liver.
Question 197: A nurse who considers multiple possible explanations for symptoms is demonstrating:
- Indecision
- Open-mindedness and analysis (Correct answer)
- Tunnel vision
- Premature closure
Correct answer: Open-mindedness and analysis
Considering several explanations reflects open-minded analysis.
Question 198: Ben walks 25 miles from home to work. If he walks the first 5 miles in 1 hour, the second 5 miles in 1.4 hours, the third 5 miles in 1.7 hours and the last 5 miles in 1.8 hours, how long will it take him to complete the 25 mile walking distance? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth).
- 5 hours
- 5.9 hours (Correct answer)
- 6 hours
- 10 hours
Correct answer: 5.9 hours
To find the total time Ben will take, sum the time spent on each segment of his walk. Add the times for the first, second, third, and last 5-mile segments: 1 hour + 1.4 hours + 1.7 hours + 1.8 hours. The sum is 5.9 hours. Since the problem asks to round to the nearest tenth if required, 5.9 hours is already in the correct format.
Question 199: Which of the following is the best definition of the word chide?
- Whisper
- Pick
- Yell
- Scold (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Scold
To 'chide' means to express disapproval of or to scold someone gently. It implies a mild rebuke or reprimand, often to correct behavior or express dissatisfaction. Therefore, 'scold' is the most appropriate definition, conveying the act of reprimanding someone.
Question 200: A passage ends with, 'Without immediate action, these problems will only worsen.' This sentence functions as a:
- Neutral description
- Historical fact
- Definition
- Warning or call to action (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Warning or call to action
Predicting worsening problems without action urges the reader to respond, a call to action.
Question 201: What is the main idea of a passage?
- The author's opinion
- The conclusion of the passage
- A summary of every paragraph
- The central point or message (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The central point or message
The main idea of a passage is its central point or overarching message that the author wants to convey. It's the core concept that all other details, arguments, and examples within the text support and elaborate upon. Identifying the main idea is crucial for understanding the passage's overall purpose and content.
Question 202: What % of 200 is 34?
- 34%
- 17% (Correct answer)
- 68%
- 20%
Correct answer: 17%
To find what percentage of 200 is 34, set up the equation: (Part / Whole) * 100% = Percentage. Here, the part is 34 and the whole is 200. So, (34 / 200) * 100%. Dividing 34 by 200 gives 0.17, and multiplying by 100% yields 17%.
Question 203: A passage uses the word 'consequently.' This transition signals what relationship?
- Cause and effect (Correct answer)
- Example
- Contrast
- Addition
Correct answer: Cause and effect
'Consequently' indicates that what follows is a result of what came before.
Question 204: Why is it important to identify bias in a passage?
- To find the author’s name
- To understand emotional words
- To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content (Correct answer)
- To memorize the content
Correct answer: To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content
Identifying bias in a passage is critical because it reveals the author's potential leanings, prejudices, or one-sided perspectives, which can influence the information presented. Recognizing bias allows readers to critically evaluate the content's objectivity, question its reliability, and determine the trustworthiness of the information. This critical assessment is essential for forming well-informed and balanced opinions.
Question 205: What is the atomic number of an unknown element with 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64?
- Cannot be determined
- 45 (Correct answer)
- 22
- 64
Correct answer: 45
The atomic number of an element is defined by the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. Since the unknown element has 45 protons, its atomic number is 45. The atomic mass, which is the sum of protons and neutrons, does not change the atomic number itself.
Question 206: A nurse validates a patient's reported symptom against objective findings to:
- Ensure accuracy of the data (Correct answer)
- Avoid the patient
- Skip assessment
- Save time
Correct answer: Ensure accuracy of the data
Validation confirms that data is accurate and consistent.
Question 207: Convert 0.65 to a fraction in lowest term
- 13\/20 (Correct answer)
- 65\/100
- 20\/13
- 1\/65
Correct answer: 13\/20
To convert the decimal 0.65 to a fraction in lowest terms, first write it as a fraction over 100: 65/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 5. This reduces the fraction to 13/20.
Question 208: In the Punnett square cross Tt x Tt, what percentage of offspring are expected to be homozygous recessive?
- 75%
- 0%
- 25% (Correct answer)
- 50%
Correct answer: 25%
In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes (Tt x Tt), 25% of offspring are expected to be homozygous recessive (tt).
Question 209: calculated by taking the object's initial and final speeds and averaging them
- Average velocity (Correct answer)
- average speed
- acceleration
- Force
Correct answer: Average velocity
Average velocity is calculated by taking the displacement (change in position) over time. While the question's phrasing mentions 'initial and final speeds and averaging them,' which is a simplified way to think about average velocity in certain contexts (like constant acceleration), it most closely aligns with the concept of average velocity, which considers the overall change in position over time, encompassing both speed and direction. Average speed, in contrast, is typically total distance divided by total time.
Question 210: Why does a metal spoon feel colder than a wooden spoon at the same room temperature?
- Metal is denser
- Wood contains air pockets
- Wood has more atoms
- Metal is a better conductor of heat (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Metal is a better conductor of heat
Metal feels colder than wood at the same room temperature because metal is a much better thermal conductor. When you touch the metal spoon, heat rapidly transfers from your warmer hand to the colder metal, causing your hand to lose heat quickly and perceive the metal as cold, whereas wood, being an insulator, transfers heat much slower.
Question 211: Which word, meaning “to examine by touch,” fits best into this sentence? “The pediatrician ____ the young patient’s abdomen to see if she could discover what was causing the girl’s pain.”
- Palpated (Correct answer)
- Projected
- Pondered
- Perpetuated
Correct answer: Palpated
To palpate means to examine by touch, especially for medical purposes. Doctors use palpation to feel for abnormalities, tenderness, or the size and consistency of organs or masses beneath the skin. This technique is a fundamental part of a physical examination.
Question 212: Despite the extra preparation, my brother's soccer team performed ____________ in the competition than they had the week before.
- Badly
- Worst
- Bad
- Worse (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Worse
The sentence uses a comparative structure signaled by 'than they had the week before,' requiring a comparative adverb to describe how the team 'performed.' 'Worse' is the comparative form of the adverb 'badly' (or the adjective 'bad'), correctly indicating a lower quality of performance compared to a previous time.
Question 213: Which of the following best defines a supporting detail?
- A personal opinion
- Repeated information
- Unrelated facts
- Examples or facts that support the main idea (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Examples or facts that support the main idea
A supporting detail is a specific piece of information, such as an example, fact, statistic, or description, that serves to elaborate on and provide evidence for the main idea of a passage. These details strengthen the author's argument or explanation, making the central point more understandable, credible, and convincing. Without them, the main idea would lack substantiation.
Question 214: A passage discusses hand hygiene compliance: 'Despite strong evidence that proper hand washing reduces infection rates by up to 50%, compliance rates among healthcare workers remain between 40-60%.' The word 'despite' in this context indicates:
- A chronological sequence
- A cause-and-effect relationship
- Agreement between the two ideas
- A contrast between evidence and behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A contrast between evidence and behavior
The word 'despite' signals a contrast — the evidence strongly supports hand washing, yet compliance remains low, creating a contradiction.
Question 215: The team with the _____________ penalties usually wins a basketball game.
- fewer (Correct answer)
- the fewest
- the least
- less
Correct answer: fewer
'Fewer' is used when referring to countable nouns, such as 'penalties,' which can be individually counted. 'Less' is used for uncountable nouns (e.g., 'less water' or 'less time'). Since penalties are discrete units, 'fewer' is the correct comparative adjective to indicate a smaller quantity.
Question 216: 25 chainsaws, 14 snow blowers, 18-floor sanders, 12 leaf blowers, and 19 power washers are among the inventory of a tool rental company. How many tools can be rented if 25% of the total inventory is available for rental?
- 22 (Correct answer)
- 50
- 60
- 35
Correct answer: 22
First, calculate the total number of tools in the inventory by summing all the items: 25 + 14 + 18 + 12 + 19 = 88 tools. Next, determine 25% of this total to find how many are available for rental. 25% of 88 is 0.25 * 88, which equals 22 tools.
Question 217: A fresh egg will float in water…
- When the water is cold
- When salt is added to the water (Correct answer)
- It will not float in any circumstance
- Always
Correct answer: When salt is added to the water
An object floats when its density is less than the density of the fluid it displaces. Adding salt to water increases the water's density. If enough salt is dissolved, the saltwater solution becomes denser than the egg, causing the egg to float.
Question 218: At a speed of 8 m/s, a 0.5 kg object suspended from a 0.75 m rope circles a center point. How much stress does the string feel in the absence of gravity?
- 42.7 N (Correct answer)
- 80.1 N
- 5.3 N
- 66.7 N
Correct answer: 42.7 N
In the absence of gravity, the stress on the string is entirely due to the centripetal force required to keep the object moving in a circle. The centripetal force (Fc) is calculated using the formula Fc = mv²/r, where m = 0.5 kg, v = 8 m/s, and r = 0.75 m. Plugging in these values gives Fc = (0.5 * 8²) / 0.75 = 32 / 0.75 ≈ 42.67 N.
Question 219: A passage compares two pain management approaches: 'Pharmacological interventions provide rapid, measurable relief but carry risks of dependency and side effects. Non-pharmacological approaches such as guided imagery, massage, and music therapy offer holistic benefits with minimal risk, though their efficacy varies among individuals.' Which organizational pattern is used?
- Spatial organization
- Chronological order
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
- Problem and solution
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
The passage directly compares two approaches by presenting the advantages and disadvantages of each, which is the compare-and-contrast pattern.
Question 220: How many pints are in 80 ounces?
- 16 pints
- 15 pints
- 5 pints (Correct answer)
- 1,280 pints
Correct answer: 5 pints
To convert ounces to pints, you need to know that 1 pint (pt) is equal to 16 ounces (oz). Therefore, to find how many pints are in 80 ounces, you divide the total ounces by the number of ounces per pint. This calculation is 80 ÷ 16, which equals 5 pints.
Question 221: What is the sodium charge in the compound NaCl?
- 0
- −1
- +1 (Correct answer)
- 3
Correct answer: +1
In the ionic compound NaCl (sodium chloride), sodium (Na) is an alkali metal in Group 1 of the periodic table, meaning it readily loses one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration. When sodium loses an electron, it forms a cation with a charge of +1 (Na+).
Question 222: Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
- Proton
- Electron (Correct answer)
- Neutron
- Nucleus
Correct answer: Electron
Electrons carry a negative charge and orbit the nucleus.
Question 223: What does the prefix 'brady-' mean?
- Slow (Correct answer)
- Small
- Fast
- Large
Correct answer: Slow
'Brady-' is a Greek prefix meaning slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate).
Question 224: Which of the following is a property of a buffer solution?
- It completely neutralizes any acid added to it
- It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added (Correct answer)
- It only works in biological systems
- It always maintains a pH of exactly 7.0
Correct answer: It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added
Buffer solutions resist pH changes when small amounts of acid or base are added, maintaining pH within a narrow range.
Question 225: If a passage's main idea is implied rather than stated, what should the reader do?
- Infer it from supporting details (Correct answer)
- Count the paragraphs
- Skip to the conclusion
- Assume there is no main idea
Correct answer: Infer it from supporting details
An implied main idea must be inferred by synthesizing the supporting details.
Question 226: Which word is a context clue that signals a contrast in a sentence?
- However (Correct answer)
- Therefore
- Because
- Similarly
Correct answer: However
'However' introduces an idea that contrasts with what came before.
Question 227: Which of the following statements about most metals is false?
- They are ductile
- None of the above
- They make up the majority of elements on the periodic table
- They are gases at room temperature (Correct answer)
Correct answer: They are gases at room temperature
Most metals are known for properties like ductility, malleability, and being good conductors of heat and electricity. They constitute the majority of elements on the periodic table and are typically solid at room temperature, with mercury being a notable exception. Therefore, the statement that they are gases at room temperature is false.
Question 228: Which macromolecule is responsible for storing genetic information?
- Lipids
- Nucleic acids (Correct answer)
- Carbohydrates
- Proteins
Correct answer: Nucleic acids
Nucleic acids, specifically DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid), are the macromolecules responsible for carrying genetic information. DNA stores the complete hereditary instructions for an organism's development and function, while RNA plays a crucial role in expressing these instructions to build proteins.
Question 229: The patient's file reveals that he has been having respiration issues. What activity is the patient having trouble with?
- Interaction with others
- Breathing (Correct answer)
- Movement of limbs
- Forming coherent sentences
Correct answer: Breathing
Respiration refers to the physiological process of breathing, which involves the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between an organism and its environment. If a patient is having respiration issues, they are experiencing difficulty with breathing. This can manifest as shortness of breath, wheezing, or other respiratory distress.
Question 230: A reader encounters an unfamiliar word but understands it from the surrounding sentence. The reader used:
- The title only
- Context clues (Correct answer)
- The page number
- A glossary index
Correct answer: Context clues
Determining meaning from surrounding text is the use of context clues.
Question 231: Which punctuation mark would correctly fill in the blank space? After standing in the rain for nearly half an hour _____ Dawn decided she was not going to wait on Mike any longer.
- no punctuation necessary
- a colon
- a comma (Correct answer)
- a semicolon
Correct answer: a comma
A comma is used to separate an introductory phrase or clause from the main independent clause of a sentence. 'After standing in the rain for nearly half an hour' is an introductory participial phrase that sets the context for the main action, 'Dawn decided she was not going to wait on Mike any longer,' and thus requires a comma after it.
Question 232: If a trait is determined by a recessive allele, when will it be expressed?
- Only in the presence of a dominant allele
- Only when heterozygous
- Always, regardless of genotype
- Only when homozygous recessive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Only when homozygous recessive
A recessive trait appears only when both alleles are recessive (homozygous recessive).
Question 233: The suffix '-itis' means:
- Incision into
- Inflammation of (Correct answer)
- Disease of
- Study of
Correct answer: Inflammation of
'-Itis' means inflammation, as in appendicitis (inflammation of the appendix).
Question 234: The change in state from a gas to liquid is called what?
- Vaporization
- Evaporation
- Disposition
- Condensation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Condensation
Condensation is the process where a substance changes its physical state from a gas to a liquid. This occurs when gas particles lose enough thermal energy to slow down and come closer together, allowing intermolecular forces to pull them into a liquid form. A common example is water vapor turning into liquid water droplets, forming clouds or dew.
Question 235: Which word most nearly means enervate?
- Debilitate (Correct answer)
- Fortify
- Rectify
- Energize
Correct answer: Debilitate
To enervate means to cause someone to feel drained of energy or vitality; to weaken or debilitate. It implies a loss of strength or vigor, making 'debilitate' the closest synonym. The word describes a process of sapping energy or making someone feeble.
Question 236: The term 'gastroenterology' is the study of:
- Heart and blood vessels
- Brain and nerves
- Stomach and intestines (Correct answer)
- Skin and hair
Correct answer: Stomach and intestines
'Gastro-' means stomach, 'entero-' means intestine, and '-ology' means study of, so gastroenterology covers the stomach and intestines.
Question 237: A doctor advises a patient to reduce their intake of diet soda by 25%... <br> The patient currently consumes four 12 oz. diet Coke cans per day. If the patient cuts his soda intake by 25%, how many ounces of diet soda may he drink?
- 30 oz
- 10 oz
- 15 oz
- 36 oz (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 36 oz
The patient currently consumes 4 cans * 12 oz/can = 48 ounces of diet soda per day. To reduce intake by 25%, calculate 25% of 48 oz, which is 0.25 * 48 = 12 oz. Subtract this reduction from the original intake: 48 oz - 12 oz = 36 oz. Alternatively, the patient will drink 75% of their original intake: 0.75 * 48 oz = 36 oz.
Question 238: The prefix 'tachy-' means:
- Slow
- Fast (Correct answer)
- Heavy
- Painful
Correct answer: Fast
'Tachy-' means fast or rapid, as in tachycardia (abnormally fast heart rate).
Question 239: Which kingdom do bacteria belong to that lack a true membrane-bound nucleus?
- Prokaryotes (Correct answer)
- Animalia
- Fungi
- Plantae
Correct answer: Prokaryotes
Bacteria are prokaryotes, lacking a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles.
Question 240: A passage states: 'Nosocomial infections affect approximately 1.7 million patients annually in the United States, resulting in 99,000 deaths per year.' Based on this information, which conclusion is most accurate?
- Hospitals are unsafe places for patients
- Most hospital patients will develop nosocomial infections
- Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality (Correct answer)
- All nosocomial infections are preventable
Correct answer: Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality
The statistics support that nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity (1.7M affected) and mortality (99,000 deaths), without overgeneralizing beyond the data.
Question 241: What is the genotype of an individual with two different alleles for a gene?
- Homozygous dominant
- Hemizygous
- Homozygous recessive
- Heterozygous (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Heterozygous
Having two different alleles for a gene is described as heterozygous.
Question 242: Viscosity increases in what circumstance?
- None–viscosity is constant
- Temperature increase
- When carbon is introduced
- Temperature decrease (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Temperature decrease
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. When temperature decreases, the kinetic energy of the fluid's particles also decreases, causing them to move slower and experience stronger intermolecular forces. This increased resistance to movement among particles leads to an increase in the fluid's viscosity.
Question 243: A patient's wound is described as having 'purulent' drainage. This means the drainage is:
- Containing pus (Correct answer)
- Thick and dark brown
- Clear and watery
- Bright red and bloody
Correct answer: Containing pus
'Purulent' comes from the Latin 'pus,' meaning pus. Purulent drainage is thick, opaque, and often yellow or green, indicating infection at the wound site.
Question 244: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word contrite?
- Lonely
- Excited
- Remorseful (Correct answer)
- Sad
Correct answer: Remorseful
The word 'contrite' describes feeling or expressing deep regret or penitence for wrongdoing. It implies a sense of sorrow and guilt for one's actions. Therefore, 'remorseful' is the most fitting synonym, conveying a similar feeling of regret and sorrow for past actions.
Question 245: What does the medical term 'tachycardia' mean?
- Absent heart rate
- Irregular heart rate
- Rapid heart rate (Correct answer)
- Slow heart rate
Correct answer: Rapid heart rate
Tachycardia means a rapid heart rate, typically defined as a resting heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute.
Question 246: 0.2 divided by 1.1?
- 18.18
- 1.818
- 181.8
- 0.1818 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.1818
To divide 0.2 by 1.1, perform the division operation. 0.2 ÷ 1.1 results in a repeating decimal, approximately 0.181818... When rounded to four decimal places, the result is 0.1818.
Question 247: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word succinct?
- Sweet
- Angry
- Short (Correct answer)
- Old
Correct answer: Short
The word 'succinct' means expressed clearly and precisely in few words; concise. It emphasizes brevity and clarity in communication, getting straight to the point without unnecessary detail. Therefore, 'short' is the most direct and accurate definition, implying conciseness.
Question 248: A passage presents two sides of an argument and then favors one. What is the author most likely trying to do?
- Provide a recipe
- Persuade the reader (Correct answer)
- List random facts
- Tell a fictional story
Correct answer: Persuade the reader
Presenting sides and favoring one is a persuasive technique meant to convince the reader.
Question 249: The active component in a pill is 0.45 mg. What fraction would this decimal be expressed as? Make sure you write it\r\n in the simplest form.
- 4\/7
- 9\/20 (Correct answer)
- 8\/15
- 7\/10
Correct answer: 9\/20
To convert the decimal 0.45 to a fraction, write it as 45 over 100, since there are two decimal places. Then, simplify the fraction 45/100 by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 5, resulting in the simplest form 9/20.
Question 250: A passage compares two treatments by listing similarities and differences. What text structure is this?
- Cause and effect
- Chronological order
- Description
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
Listing similarities and differences between items is the compare-and-contrast structure.
Question 251: Which clue helps identify the meaning of a word through contrast?
- The length of the sentence
- The title of the passage
- Punctuation marks
- Words like 'however' or 'unlike' (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Words like 'however' or 'unlike'
Words like 'however,' 'unlike,' 'but,' 'in contrast,' or 'on the other hand' are crucial contrast clues that help identify the meaning of an unfamiliar word. These signal words indicate that the information following them will present an opposite or different idea from what was previously stated. By understanding this opposition, readers can infer the meaning of the unknown term.
Question 252: Which word is spelled correctly?
- acommodate
- acomodate
- accommodate (Correct answer)
- accomodate
Correct answer: accommodate
'Accommodate' is the correct spelling, containing double 'c' and double 'm.' It is one of the most commonly misspelled words in English. A memory trick: the word is large enough to accommodate two c's and two m's.
Question 253: \tHow many milliliters are contained in 3 table spoons of fluid? (Enter numerical value only).
- 405 milliliters
- 450 milliliters
- 45 milliliters (Correct answer)
- 4.5 milliliters
Correct answer: 45 milliliters
To convert tablespoons to milliliters, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 tablespoon (tbsp) is equal to 15 milliliters (ml). Therefore, to find the milliliters in 3 tablespoons, you multiply 3 by 15. This calculation yields 45 milliliters.
Question 254: Where is the pyloric sphincter located?
- Between the stomach and small intestine (Correct answer)
- Between the small and large intestine
- Between the esophagus and stomach
- Between the rectum and anus
Correct answer: Between the stomach and small intestine
The pyloric sphincter is a ring of smooth muscle located at the distal end of the stomach, specifically at the junction where the stomach connects to the first part of the small intestine, called the duodenum. Its primary function is to regulate the flow of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the small intestine, preventing rapid emptying and allowing for proper digestion.
Question 255: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: The physician asked ____ to review the patient's chart before rounds.
- her and me (Correct answer)
- she and me
- she and I
- her and I
Correct answer: her and me
'Her and me' is correct because both pronouns are objects of the verb 'asked.' Use object pronouns (me, her, him) when the pronoun receives the action. You can test this by removing one pronoun: 'asked her' and 'asked me' both sound correct.
Question 256: Which situation best demonstrates the law of conservation of momentum?
- Two skaters push off each other and roll away (Correct answer)
- A battery powers a toy car
- A ball stops due to friction
- A book falls off a table
Correct answer: Two skaters push off each other and roll away
The law of conservation of momentum states that in a closed system, the total momentum remains constant. When two skaters push off each other, they exert equal and opposite forces (Newton's Third Law), resulting in equal and opposite changes in their individual momenta, but the total momentum of the two-skater system before and after the push remains conserved.
Question 257: The word 'patent' as used in 'a patent airway' means:
- Open and unobstructed (Correct answer)
- Swollen and inflamed
- Blocked and closed
- Narrow and constricted
Correct answer: Open and unobstructed
Patent means open and unobstructed, as in a clear airway.
Question 258: Which of the following elements does not appear on the periodic table?
- Bromine
- Magnesium oxide (Correct answer)
- Chlorine
- Phosphorous
Correct answer: Magnesium oxide
The periodic table lists all known chemical elements. Chlorine, Bromine, and Phosphorous are all individual elements found on this table. Magnesium oxide (MgO), however, is a chemical compound formed from the elements Magnesium (Mg) and Oxygen (O), not an element itself, and thus does not appear on the periodic table.
Question 259: What is the role of the cell membrane's phospholipid bilayer?
- Generating ATP
- Regulating what enters and exits the cell (Correct answer)
- Producing proteins
- Storing genetic information
Correct answer: Regulating what enters and exits the cell
The selectively permeable bilayer controls movement of substances in and out.
Question 260: What does it mean to draw an inference?
- Rewrite the text
- Form a conclusion based on information (Correct answer)
- Make a guess with no basis
- Identify the author's name
Correct answer: Form a conclusion based on information
To draw an inference means to form a conclusion or make an educated guess based on the information explicitly provided in the text, combined with one's own prior knowledge and reasoning. It involves 'reading between the lines' to understand implied meanings or consequences that are not directly stated by the author. This skill is crucial for deeper comprehension and critical thinking.
Question 261: A book store contains 75,972 books, divided in three sections: Science, Business, and Math. The science section represents 1\/3 of the total books. Of the remaining books, 75% are business. How many books are in the math section?
- 12,662 (Correct answer)
- 25324
- 50,648
- 37986
Correct answer: 12,662
First, calculate the number of science books: (1/3) * 75,972 = 25,324 books. Subtract these from the total to find the remaining books: 75,972 - 25,324 = 50,648 books. Next, calculate the number of business books: 75% of 50,648 = 0.75 * 50,648 = 37,986 books. Finally, subtract the business books from the remaining books to find the math books: 50,648 - 37,986 = 12,662 books.
Question 262: The imaginary line that separates the body into superior and inferior regions is called what?
- Coronal Plane
- Sagittal plane
- Transverse plane (Correct answer)
- Vertical plane
Correct answer: Transverse plane
The transverse plane, also known as the horizontal or axial plane, is an imaginary line that divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions. This plane runs perpendicular to the long axis of the body. Other planes, like the sagittal and coronal, divide the body differently.
Question 263: Convert the metric equivalent: 500 mg equals x grams. (Enter the numerical value only).
- 0.5 grams (Correct answer)
- 25 grams
- 5.0 grams
- 55 grams
Correct answer: 0.5 grams
To convert milligrams (mg) to grams (g), divide the milligram value by 1000, because 1 gram is equivalent to 1000 milligrams. Thus, 500 mg divided by 1000 results in 0.5 grams.
Question 264: A solution with a pH of 9 is best described as:
- Saturated
- Neutral
- Acidic
- Basic (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Basic
A pH above 7 indicates a basic (alkaline) solution.
Question 265: Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
- I studied hard, however I failed.
- I studied hard however, I failed.
- I studied hard, however, I failed.
- I studied hard; however, I failed. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: I studied hard; however, I failed.
A semicolon before and comma after "however" correctly joins two independent clauses.
Question 266: According to the theory of the same name, after the “Big Bang” there were only what two things?
- Neutrons and electrons
- Mass and gravity
- Matter and antimatter (Correct answer)
- Space and time
Correct answer: Matter and antimatter
According to the Big Bang theory, in the extremely hot and dense conditions of the early universe, energy was converted into pairs of matter and antimatter particles. While most of these annihilated each other, a slight imbalance led to a small excess of matter, which eventually formed all the structures we observe today.
Question 267: An atom having an electrical charge is referred to as a(n):
- Molecule
- Solid
- Electron
- Ion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ion
An atom becomes an ion when it gains or loses one or more electrons, resulting in a net electrical charge. If an atom loses electrons, it becomes a positively charged cation; if it gains electrons, it becomes a negatively charged anion. Molecules are neutral combinations of atoms, and electrons are subatomic particles.
Question 268: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
- Covalent bond (Correct answer)
- Ionic bond
- Metallic bond
- Hydrogen bond
Correct answer: Covalent bond
Covalent bonds form when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, typically occurring between nonmetal elements.
Question 269: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word distended?
- Enlarged (Correct answer)
- Removed
- Distracted
- Shrunken
Correct answer: Enlarged
The word 'distended' means swollen or stretched out of its normal shape, typically due to internal pressure. In a medical context, it often refers to an abdomen that is enlarged or bloated. Therefore, 'enlarged' is the closest and most accurate definition.
Question 270: Which of the following is the best definition of the word taciturn?
- Attentive
- Alert
- Uncooperative
- Reserved (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reserved
The word 'taciturn' describes a person who is reserved or uncommunicative in speech, saying little. Such individuals tend to be quiet and prefer not to talk much in social situations. Therefore, 'reserved' accurately captures this characteristic of being withdrawn and not openly expressive.
Question 271: Unless operated on by an imbalanced force, the body at rest will remain at rest, and the body in motion will remain in motion with a constant velocity; F=ka
- Newton's First Law of Motion (Correct answer)
- Force
- Average velocity
- Scalar quantity
Correct answer: Newton's First Law of Motion
This statement is a direct description of Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia. It states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. The formula F=ka is not part of Newton's First Law, which primarily describes inertia.
Question 272: Which of the following is the best definition of the word consternation?
- Anger
- Laughable
- Strict
- Anxiety (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Anxiety
The word 'consternation' refers to a feeling of anxiety or dismay, typically at something unexpected. It describes a sense of alarm or dread that can arise from a sudden, unsettling event or situation. Therefore, 'anxiety' is the best definition, reflecting a state of unease or worry.
Question 273: Convert 0.60 to ratio in simplest form
- 2:6
- 1:6
- 3:5 (Correct answer)
- 2:50
Correct answer: 3:5
To convert the decimal 0.60 to a ratio in simplest form, first write it as a fraction: 60/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 20. This reduces the fraction to 3/5, which can be expressed as the ratio 3:5.
Question 274: What does -COOH mean?
- Carboxyl group (Correct answer)
- Amino group
- Hydroxyl group
- Carbonyl group
Correct answer: Carboxyl group
The functional group -COOH represents a carboxyl group. This group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to one oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl (-OH) group. Carboxyl groups are characteristic of organic acids, such as carboxylic acids, and play a crucial role in many biological molecules.
Question 275: Solve for x:\t5:50:: x:500
- 4
- 5
- 5.5
- 50 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 50
To solve a ratio and proportion problem like 5:50::x:500, you can set it up as a fraction: 5/50 = x/500. Cross-multiply to solve for x: 5 * 500 = 50 * x. This simplifies to 2500 = 50x, and dividing both sides by 50 yields x = 50.
Question 276: A 'distended' abdomen is best described as:
- Discolored
- Swollen or enlarged (Correct answer)
- Tender to touch
- Soft and flat
Correct answer: Swollen or enlarged
Distended means swollen or expanded from internal pressure.
Question 277: Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
- Contain mitochondria
- Lack membrane-bound organelles (Correct answer)
- Are multicellular
- Have a nucleus
Correct answer: Lack membrane-bound organelles
Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria and archaea, are characterized by their simpler cellular organization compared to eukaryotic cells. A key distinguishing feature is their lack of a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria or the Golgi apparatus; their genetic material is typically found in a nucleoid region.
Question 278: A physician orders 'NPO' for a patient before surgery. This means the patient should:
- Have nothing by mouth (Correct answer)
- Be given pain medication only
- Receive only clear liquids
- Limit physical activity
Correct answer: Have nothing by mouth
NPO stands for the Latin 'nil per os,' meaning 'nothing by mouth.' Patients are placed on NPO status before procedures or surgery to prevent aspiration.
Question 279: Dihydrogen monoxide is better known as what?
- Iodine
- Water (Correct answer)
- Hydrogen peroxide
- Table salt
Correct answer: Water
Dihydrogen monoxide is the systematic chemical name for the compound commonly known as water. The prefix 'di-' indicates two hydrogen atoms, and 'mono-' indicates one oxygen atom, corresponding to the chemical formula H2O.
Question 280: Which transition best completes this sentence correctly? Sarah did not realize until after she arrived in New York that she had left her ball gown at home; ____, she was fortunate enough to find a shop that rented them by the evening.
- after all
- because
- while
- however (Correct answer)
Correct answer: however
The sentence presents a contrast: Sarah initially faced a problem (leaving her gown) but then experienced a fortunate resolution (finding a rental shop). The conjunctive adverb 'however' is used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or qualifies the preceding statement. It perfectly signals this shift from a negative situation to a positive outcome, making it the most appropriate transition word.
Question 281: A charge nurse must decide between two evidence-based interventions for fall prevention. Intervention A reduced falls by 30% in a large hospital study. Intervention B reduced falls by 45% in a small clinic study. Which factor is most important when deciding?
- Choose A because it was conducted in a hospital setting
- Implement both interventions simultaneously
- Evaluate whether the study settings and populations are comparable to your unit (Correct answer)
- Choose B because it shows a greater reduction percentage
Correct answer: Evaluate whether the study settings and populations are comparable to your unit
Critical appraisal requires evaluating whether study settings and populations are applicable to your specific clinical context before comparing outcomes.
Question 282: A passage reads: 'While antibiotics have saved countless lives since their discovery, their overuse has led to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA. Public health experts warn that without significant changes in prescribing practices, we may enter a post-antibiotic era.' The tone of this passage is best described as:
- Optimistic and encouraging
- Hostile and accusatory
- Cautionary and concerned (Correct answer)
- Neutral and indifferent
Correct answer: Cautionary and concerned
The passage acknowledges benefits but emphasizes risks with warning language ('warn,' 'post-antibiotic era'), creating a cautionary and concerned tone.
Question 283: What type of tissue supports and structures the organs?
- Epithelial
- Muscle
- Connective (Correct answer)
- Nervous
Correct answer: Connective
Connective tissue is one of the four basic tissue types in the body, characterized by its diverse roles. It provides structural support, binds tissues and organs together, protects organs, stores fat, and transports substances. Examples include bone, cartilage, blood, and adipose tissue, all contributing to the body's framework and organ integrity.
Question 284: What is the longest muscle in the human body?
- Vastus lateralis
- Sartorius (Correct answer)
- Adductor longus
- Vastus medialis
Correct answer: Sartorius
The sartorius muscle is indeed the longest muscle in the human body. It is a long, thin, superficial muscle that runs obliquely down the length of the thigh, from the hip to the medial side of the knee. It plays a role in various movements of the hip and knee, including flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation.
Question 285: Which word means most nearly the same as the underlined word in this sentence? “During the bypass surgery, the surgeon had to locate the anterior veins first before she could reach the heart itself.”
- Aft
- Posterior
- Frontal (Correct answer)
- Exterior
Correct answer: Frontal
In anatomy, 'anterior' refers to the front of the body or a body part. It describes a position closer to the front surface. Therefore, 'frontal' is the most accurate synonym, indicating the front aspect or direction.
Question 286: What is the only artery in the body to carry oxygen-poor blood?
- Vena Cava
- Renal Artery
- Pulmonary Artery (Correct answer)
- Interosseous artery
Correct answer: Pulmonary Artery
The pulmonary artery is unique among arteries because it carries deoxygenated blood. It transports blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs, where the blood will pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide. All other arteries in the systemic circulation carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
Question 287: In the sentence 'The nurse was meticulous, checking every detail twice,' the word 'meticulous' most nearly means:
- Careful and precise (Correct answer)
- Careless and rushed
- Friendly and warm
- Tired and bored
Correct answer: Careful and precise
Checking every detail twice shows careful, precise attention, defining 'meticulous.'
Question 288: Which of the following is the best definition of the word illustrious?
- shiny
- tarnished
- vain
- eminent (Correct answer)
Correct answer: eminent
The word 'illustrious' means well known, respected, and admired for past achievements. It describes someone or something famous and distinguished, often due to their accomplishments or reputation. Therefore, 'eminent' is the closest synonym, as it also refers to someone prominent and highly regarded.
Question 289: Jessa drives her car for 15 minutes at an average speed of 35 mph. What was the length of her journey?
- 10 miles
- 2.33 miles
- 8.75 miles (Correct answer)
- 5 miles
Correct answer: 8.75 miles
The formula for distance is distance = speed * time. First, convert the time from minutes to hours: 15 minutes / 60 minutes/hour = 0.25 hours. Then, multiply the average speed by the time: distance = 35 mph * 0.25 hours = 8.75 miles.
HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam
The HESI A2 exam is a pre-admission test for nursing and allied health programs, evaluating academic readiness in various subjects.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- service.elsevier.com — Score release, registration deadline, eligibility, test delivery · verified Oct 2026
- evolve.elsevier.com — Retake policy, time limit · verified Oct 2026