HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam â Questions and Answers
Question 1: Evaluating the outcome of an intervention is important because it:
- Replaces assessment
- Ends the nursing process
- Is optional
- Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Determines whether goals were met and if changes are needed
Evaluation checks goal achievement and guides adjustments.
Question 2: Which structure contains the genetic material in a eukaryotic cell?
- Vacuole
- Cell wall
- Cytoplasm
- Nucleus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Nucleus
The nucleus houses and protects the cell's DNA.
Question 3: The suffix '-algia' means:
- Pain (Correct answer)
- Inflammation
- Surgical removal
- Disease
Correct answer: Pain
'-Algia' means pain, as in neuralgia (nerve pain) or myalgia (muscle pain).
Question 4: What is the closest definition of diagnosis?
- Comment
- Complication
- Alias
- Explanation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Explanation
In a medical context, a diagnosis is the identification of the nature of an illness or other problem by examination of the symptoms. It involves interpreting signs and symptoms to provide an explanation for a patient's condition. This explanation guides treatment and prognosis.
Question 5: An atom having an electrical charge is referred to as a(n):
- Solid
- Ion (Correct answer)
- Electron
- Molecule
Correct answer: Ion
An atom becomes an ion when it gains or loses one or more electrons, resulting in a net electrical charge. If an atom loses electrons, it becomes a positively charged cation; if it gains electrons, it becomes a negatively charged anion. Molecules are neutral combinations of atoms, and electrons are subatomic particles.
Question 6: Solve for x:\t5:50:: x:500
- 4
- 5
- 50 (Correct answer)
- 5.5
Correct answer: 50
To solve a ratio and proportion problem like 5:50::x:500, you can set it up as a fraction: 5/50 = x/500. Cross-multiply to solve for x: 5 * 500 = 50 * x. This simplifies to 2500 = 50x, and dividing both sides by 50 yields x = 50.
Question 7: The term 'tachycardia' means:
- Abnormally slow heart rate
- Irregular heart rhythm
- Abnormally fast heart rate (Correct answer)
- Absent heartbeat
Correct answer: Abnormally fast heart rate
'Tachy-' means fast and 'cardia' means heart, so tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rate.
Question 8: Which of the following is a function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
- Lipid digestion
- ATP production
- DNA replication
- Protein synthesis and modification (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Protein synthesis and modification
The rough ER, studded with ribosomes, synthesizes and processes proteins.
Question 9: Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
- I studied hard, however, I failed.
- I studied hard, however I failed.
- I studied hard however, I failed.
- I studied hard; however, I failed. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: I studied hard; however, I failed.
A semicolon before and comma after "however" correctly joins two independent clauses.
Question 10: A passage reads: 'Florence Nightingale's environmental theory emphasized that clean air, clean water, proper drainage, cleanliness, and light were essential for patient recovery. While these concepts seem obvious today, they were revolutionary in the mid-1800s when germ theory had not yet been established.' What can be inferred about the historical context?
- Florence Nightingale discovered germ theory
- Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for (Correct answer)
- Germ theory was established before Nightingale's work
- Nightingale's theory is no longer relevant to modern nursing
Correct answer: Hospital conditions in the 1800s likely lacked the environmental elements Nightingale advocated for
If Nightingale's advocacy for cleanliness was 'revolutionary,' it can be inferred that these conditions were not standard in hospitals of that era.
Question 11: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- She don't have her ID.
- She not have her ID.
- She doesn't has her ID.
- She doesn't have her ID. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: She doesn't have her ID.
The singular subject "she" takes "doesn't have," which is correct.
Question 12: Which transition word signals that an example is coming?
- Meanwhile
- Although
- For instance (Correct answer)
- Nevertheless
Correct answer: For instance
'For instance' introduces an example that illustrates a point.
Question 13: Which of the following best describes a valid conclusion drawn from a passage?
- A judgment supported by the text's evidence (Correct answer)
- A guess unrelated to the text
- The author's name
- A random opinion
Correct answer: A judgment supported by the text's evidence
A valid conclusion must be logically supported by evidence in the passage.
Question 14: A car dealer sells ten different brands of automobiles. The dealer's typical daily sales are: <br> Honda has two versions, each of which sells 20 units per day. <br> Toyota has three models, each of which sells 15 units every day. <br> Kia has only one model, but it sells seven per day. <br> Ford has four models and sells six of each per day. <br> How many automobiles are sold every day in total?
- 100
- 50
- 35
- 116 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 116
To find the total number of automobiles sold daily, calculate the sales for each brand and sum them up. Honda sells 2 versions * 20 units/version = 40 units. Toyota sells 3 models * 15 units/model = 45 units. Kia sells 1 model * 7 units/model = 7 units. Ford sells 4 models * 6 units/model = 24 units. Adding these totals: 40 + 45 + 7 + 24 = 116 automobiles sold daily.
Question 15: What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?
- Carrying the genetic code from the nucleus
- Delivering amino acids to the ribosome (Correct answer)
- Splicing introns from mRNA
- Forming the ribosomal subunits
Correct answer: Delivering amino acids to the ribosome
Transfer RNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosome during translation, matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon.
Question 16: Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland to promote water reabsorption in the kidneys?
- Aldosterone
- Cortisol
- Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (Correct answer)
- Oxytocin
Correct answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
ADH (also called vasopressin) is released from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase water reabsorption, concentrating the urine and reducing fluid loss.
Question 17: What is the best definition of the word dichotomy?
- Truncation
- Division (Correct answer)
- Achievement
- Trepidation
Correct answer: Division
Dichotomy refers to a division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different. It highlights a sharp separation or contrast between two distinct parts, ideas, or categories. For example, the dichotomy between good and evil.
Question 18: A graphic in a passage shows infection rates rising over five years. This visual most directly supports a main idea about:
- Hospital architecture
- An increasing trend in infections (Correct answer)
- Staff scheduling
- The cost of treatment
Correct answer: An increasing trend in infections
A chart of rising rates over time supports a point about an increasing trend.
Question 19: What is the term for the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane?
- Endocytosis
- Osmosis (Correct answer)
- Phagocytosis
- Active transport
Correct answer: Osmosis
Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
Question 20: Which of the following is the closest definition to the word postulate?
- Claim (Correct answer)
- Gather
- Move
- Disagree
Correct answer: Claim
To 'postulate' means to suggest or assume the existence, fact, or truth of something as a basis for reasoning, discussion, or belief. It is essentially to put forward a theory or claim, often without definitive proof. Therefore, 'claim' is the closest definition, as it involves asserting something as true or factual.
Question 21: What is the best definition of the word obstinate?
- Stubborn (Correct answer)
- Angry
- Careless
- Passive
Correct answer: Stubborn
The word 'obstinate' describes someone who is stubbornly refusing to change one's opinion or chosen course of action, despite attempts to persuade them. It implies a strong resistance to persuasion or change, often due to a fixed mindset. Therefore, 'stubborn' is the most direct and accurate synonym.
Question 22: What is the atomic number of an unknown element with 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64?
- Cannot be determined
- 45 (Correct answer)
- 64
- 22
Correct answer: 45
The atomic number of an element is defined by the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. Since the unknown element has 45 protons, its atomic number is 45. The atomic mass, which is the sum of protons and neutrons, does not change the atomic number itself.
Question 23: What % of 200 is 34?
- 17% (Correct answer)
- 68%
- 20%
- 34%
Correct answer: 17%
To find what percentage of 200 is 34, set up the equation: (Part / Whole) * 100% = Percentage. Here, the part is 34 and the whole is 200. So, (34 / 200) * 100%. Dividing 34 by 200 gives 0.17, and multiplying by 100% yields 17%.
Question 24: Gas exchange between the blood and body tissues occurs at which level of the vascular system?
- Arteries
- Arterioles
- Venules
- Capillaries (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Capillaries
Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels with walls only one cell thick, allowing gas, nutrient, and waste exchange between blood and tissues.
Question 25: The suffix '-itis' means:
- Incision into
- Inflammation of (Correct answer)
- Disease of
- Study of
Correct answer: Inflammation of
'-Itis' means inflammation, as in appendicitis (inflammation of the appendix).
Question 26: For the day, a patient on a clear diet consumes the following: <br>\r\n2 quarts water <br>\r\n1 clear soup serving (8 oz.) <br>\r\n1 cup of coffee (8 oz.) <br>\r\nHis drainage bag shows 1,000 mL for the previous day, according to a nurse who is checking his intake and output. <br>\r\nWhat is his milliliter deficit?
- 500 mL
- 350 mL
- 440 mL (Correct answer)
- 550 mL
Correct answer: 440 mL
To calculate the milliliter deficit, first convert all intake to milliliters. Using standard medical conversions (1 oz = 30 mL and 1 pint = 16 oz), we can infer that '2 quarts' in the problem likely intended to be '2 pints' for the given answer to be correct. If we assume '2 pints' of water (32 oz), the intake is: 960 mL (2 pints x 16 oz/pint x 30 mL/oz) + 240 mL (8 oz soup x 30 mL/oz) + 240 mL (8 oz coffee x 30 mL/oz) = 1440 mL total intake. The deficit is then calculated by subtracting the output from the intake: 1440 mL (intake) - 1000 mL (output) = 440 mL. This represents a net positive balance of 440 mL, often referred to as a deficit if the context implies a target or simply the difference.
Question 27: Why is it important to have a control group in a biological experiment?
- To eliminate human error
- To increase sample size
- To serve as a baseline for comparison (Correct answer)
- To test all variables at once
Correct answer: To serve as a baseline for comparison
A control group in a biological experiment is essential because it provides a baseline for comparison. This group does not receive the experimental treatment or manipulation, allowing researchers to isolate the effect of the independent variable and determine if observed changes in the experimental group are truly due to the treatment.
Question 28: How many teaspoons are there in 5 tablespoons?
- 1.5 Tsps
- \t15 Tsps. (Correct answer)
- 0.6 Tsps
- 1.67 Tsps.
Correct answer: \t15 Tsps.
To convert tablespoons to teaspoons, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 tablespoon (tbsp) is equal to 3 teaspoons (tsp). Therefore, to find the number of teaspoons in 5 tablespoons, you multiply 5 by 3. This calculation yields 15 teaspoons.
Question 29: Dihydrogen monoxide is better known as what?
- Table salt
- Hydrogen peroxide
- Water (Correct answer)
- Iodine
Correct answer: Water
Dihydrogen monoxide is the systematic chemical name for the compound commonly known as water. The prefix 'di-' indicates two hydrogen atoms, and 'mono-' indicates one oxygen atom, corresponding to the chemical formula H2O.
Question 30: Which question best helps a reader identify an author's purpose?
- What font is used?
- When was the paper printed?
- Why did the author write this? (Correct answer)
- How many words are in the passage?
Correct answer: Why did the author write this?
Asking why the author wrote the text reveals the purpose: to inform, persuade, or entertain.
Question 31: A passage says a new policy 'sparked outrage among employees.' The word 'sparked' suggests the policy:
- Was quietly accepted
- Triggered a strong reaction (Correct answer)
- Was forgotten quickly
- Saved money
Correct answer: Triggered a strong reaction
'Sparked outrage' indicates the policy triggered a strong negative reaction.
Question 32: Read the following: 'Patients with chronic heart failure should limit sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Foods high in sodium include processed meats, canned soups, and fast food. Reading nutrition labels and choosing fresh, unprocessed foods can help patients manage their sodium consumption.' This passage is written for which audience?
- Cardiologists specializing in heart failure research
- Hospital administrators creating dietary policies
- Pharmaceutical researchers developing heart failure drugs
- Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Patients and their caregivers managing heart failure at home
The practical, plain-language advice about reading labels and food choices indicates the intended audience is patients and caregivers managing the condition at home.
Question 33: A passage uses the word 'consequently.' This transition signals what relationship?
- Cause and effect (Correct answer)
- Addition
- Contrast
- Example
Correct answer: Cause and effect
'Consequently' indicates that what follows is a result of what came before.
Question 34: The term 'gastroenterology' is the study of:
- Stomach and intestines (Correct answer)
- Heart and blood vessels
- Skin and hair
- Brain and nerves
Correct answer: Stomach and intestines
'Gastro-' means stomach, 'entero-' means intestine, and '-ology' means study of, so gastroenterology covers the stomach and intestines.
Question 35: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean?
- Between or among
- Under or below normal
- Around or surrounding
- Above or excessive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Above or excessive
'Hyper-' means above or excessive, as in hypertension (high blood pressure).
Question 36: A passage compares two pain management approaches: 'Pharmacological interventions provide rapid, measurable relief but carry risks of dependency and side effects. Non-pharmacological approaches such as guided imagery, massage, and music therapy offer holistic benefits with minimal risk, though their efficacy varies among individuals.' Which organizational pattern is used?
- Spatial organization
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
- Chronological order
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
The passage directly compares two approaches by presenting the advantages and disadvantages of each, which is the compare-and-contrast pattern.
Question 37: Add: 5 2\/3 + 4\/7
- 1 2\/5
- 6 5\/21 (Correct answer)
- 5 26\/21
- 21\/131
Correct answer: 6 5\/21
To add 5 2/3 and 4/7, first find a common denominator for the fractions, which is 21. Convert 2/3 to 14/21 and 4/7 to 12/21. Add the fractions: 14/21 + 12/21 = 26/21. Convert 26/21 to a mixed number, which is 1 5/21. Finally, add this to the whole number part of the original mixed number: 5 + 1 5/21 = 6 5/21.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT a digestive system function?
- Performing gas exchange (Correct answer)
- Absorbing nutrients into blood
- Enzymatically breaking down food
- Get rid of unabsorbed waste
Correct answer: Performing gas exchange
Performing gas exchange (the intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide) is the primary function of the respiratory system, specifically the lungs. The digestive system is responsible for the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food, absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and elimination of unabsorbed waste, but not for gas exchange.
Question 39: How many grams in 450 milligrams?
- 0.45 grams (Correct answer)
- 4.5 grams
- 45 grams
- 450 grams
Correct answer: 0.45 grams
To convert milligrams to grams, you need to know that 1 gram is equal to 1000 milligrams. Therefore, to convert 450 milligrams to grams, you divide 450 by 1000. This calculation yields 0.45 grams.
Question 40: Which phase of the cell cycle involves the actual division of the cytoplasm into two daughter cells?
- S phase
- G2 phase
- Metaphase
- Cytokinesis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cytokinesis
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division where the cytoplasm splits, producing two separate daughter cells.
Question 41: There are 200 ounces in 6 liters. How many milliliters (ml) are in 6 liters? (Enter numerical value only).
- 6,100 milliliters
- 6,000 milliliters (Correct answer)
- 6 milliliters
- 60,000 milliliters
Correct answer: 6,000 milliliters
To convert liters to milliliters, you use the standard conversion factor where 1 liter (L) is equal to 1,000 milliliters (ml). Therefore, to find the milliliters in 6 liters, you multiply 6 by 1,000. This calculation yields 6,000 milliliters.
Question 42: Divide and simplify: á \/
- 12 2\/3
- 2 1\/4 (Correct answer)
- 16
- 2 2\/8
Correct answer: 2 1\/4
To divide fractions, you multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction. Assuming the fractions are 9/10 and 2/5, the operation becomes 9/10 * 5/2. Multiply the numerators (9*5=45) and the denominators (10*2=20) to get 45/20. Simplifying this improper fraction gives 9/4, which converts to the mixed number 2 1/4.
Question 43: What is the definition of freezing point?
- Point at which a gas turns to a solid
- Point at which a gas turns to a liquid.
- Point at which a liquid turns to a gas
- Point at which a liquid turns to a solid (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Point at which a liquid turns to a solid
Freezing point is the specific temperature at which a substance transitions from its liquid state to its solid state. At this temperature, the kinetic energy of the molecules decreases enough for them to arrange into a fixed, ordered structure. This is the inverse process of melting.
Question 44: What is the best definition of the word superfluous?
- Unnecessary (Correct answer)
- Extraordinary
- Shallow
- Shameful
Correct answer: Unnecessary
The word 'superfluous' means being more than is sufficient or required; excessive. It describes something that is not needed, is redundant, or serves no useful purpose. Therefore, 'unnecessary' is the most accurate definition, indicating something that is extra or not essential.
Question 45: In the formula H2O, the subscript 2 indicates:
- Two oxygen atoms
- A charge of +2
- Two hydrogen atoms (Correct answer)
- Two water molecules
Correct answer: Two hydrogen atoms
The subscript 2 shows there are two hydrogen atoms in each water molecule.
Question 46: The patient's file reveals that he has been having respiration issues. What activity is the patient having trouble with?
- Breathing (Correct answer)
- Forming coherent sentences
- Interaction with others
- Movement of limbs
Correct answer: Breathing
Respiration refers to the physiological process of breathing, which involves the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between an organism and its environment. If a patient is having respiration issues, they are experiencing difficulty with breathing. This can manifest as shortness of breath, wheezing, or other respiratory distress.
Question 47: It is possible for an object to show two different types of motion at the same time.
- Acceleration
- Scalar quantity
- Project Motion (Correct answer)
- Force
Correct answer: Project Motion
Projectile motion is a classic example where an object exhibits two types of motion simultaneously: constant horizontal velocity (ignoring air resistance) and vertical acceleration due due to gravity. This combination of independent horizontal and vertical movements allows an object to follow a parabolic path, demonstrating two distinct motions at once.
Question 48: On the ice, a hockey puck comes to a slow stop. The puck has a mass of 0.5 kg and a friction force of 2.3 N between it and the ice. What is the puck's rate of acceleration?
- -4.2 m/s²
- -4.6 m/s² (Correct answer)
- 4.2 m/s²
- 4.6 m/s²
Correct answer: -4.6 m/s²
According to Newton's Second Law, Force (F) = mass (m) * acceleration (a). We are given the friction force (F) as 2.3 N and the mass (m) as 0.5 kg. To find acceleration, rearrange the formula to a = F/m. So, a = 2.3 N / 0.5 kg = 4.6 m/s². Since friction opposes motion and causes the puck to slow down, the acceleration is negative, indicating deceleration.
Question 49: Which of the following is not a property of water?
- Can absorb/release large quantities of heat without large temperature change.
- High surface tension
- High boiling point compared to other hydrogen compounds
- Density of liquid form is less than solid form (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Density of liquid form is less than solid form
The correct answer is that the density of liquid water is *greater* than its solid form (ice), which is an unusual property. Most substances become denser when they solidify. Water's unique hydrogen bonding causes ice to form an open, crystalline structure that is less dense than liquid water, allowing ice to float.
Question 50: The change in state from a gas to liquid is called what?
- Condensation (Correct answer)
- Vaporization
- Evaporation
- Disposition
Correct answer: Condensation
Condensation is the process where a substance changes its physical state from a gas to a liquid. This occurs when gas particles lose enough thermal energy to slow down and come closer together, allowing intermolecular forces to pull them into a liquid form. A common example is water vapor turning into liquid water droplets, forming clouds or dew.
Question 51: The imaginary line that separates the body into superior and inferior regions is called what?
- Coronal Plane
- Transverse plane (Correct answer)
- Vertical plane
- Sagittal plane
Correct answer: Transverse plane
The transverse plane, also known as the horizontal or axial plane, is an imaginary line that divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions. This plane runs perpendicular to the long axis of the body. Other planes, like the sagittal and coronal, divide the body differently.
Question 52: Which macromolecule serves as the primary long-term energy storage molecule in animals?
- Starch
- Triglycerides (Correct answer)
- Glycogen
- Cellulose
Correct answer: Triglycerides
Triglycerides (fats) are the primary long-term energy storage molecules in animals, storing more energy per gram than carbohydrates.
Question 53: In a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous parents (AaBb), what is the phenotypic ratio of offspring?
- 3:1
- 9:3:3:1 (Correct answer)
- 1:1
- 1:2:1
Correct answer: 9:3:3:1
A cross of two AaBb individuals yields the classic 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.
Question 54: In a passage about wound healing: 'The inflammatory phase, lasting 1-6 days, involves vascular response and cellular defense. Subsequently, the proliferative phase spans days 3-21, characterized by granulation tissue formation. Finally, the maturation phase may continue for up to 2 years.' What organizational pattern does this passage use?
- Problem and solution
- Chronological/sequential order (Correct answer)
- Cause and effect
- Compare and contrast
Correct answer: Chronological/sequential order
The passage organizes information in time-based sequential order, using temporal markers like 'subsequently' and 'finally' to describe phases in order.
Question 55: Which type of joint allows the greatest range of motion in multiple directions?
- Hinge joint
- Pivot joint
- Saddle joint
- Ball-and-socket joint (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ball-and-socket joint
Ball-and-socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder, allow movement in multiple planes including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation, making them the most mobile joint type in the body.
Question 56: What does 'cardio-' mean?
- Lung
- Blood
- Brain
- Heart (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Heart
'Cardio-' refers to the heart, as in cardiology (study of the heart) and cardiovascular (heart and blood vessels).
Question 57: What is the role of the cell membrane's phospholipid bilayer?
- Producing proteins
- Regulating what enters and exits the cell (Correct answer)
- Generating ATP
- Storing genetic information
Correct answer: Regulating what enters and exits the cell
The selectively permeable bilayer controls movement of substances in and out.
Question 58: Covert the following military hours to civilian hours: 20:30
- 9:30 AM
- 8:30 PM (Correct answer)
- 2:30 PM
- 10:30 AM
Correct answer: 8:30 PM
To convert military time (24-hour format) to civilian time (12-hour format), if the hour is 13 or greater, subtract 12 from the hour and append 'PM'. For 20:30, subtracting 12 from 20 gives 8, so the civilian time is 8:30 PM.
Question 59: Which sentence correctly uses a semicolon?
- The patient; was stable and ready for discharge.
- The patient was stable; because the medication was effective.
- The patient was stable; however, the lab results were pending. (Correct answer)
- The patient was stable; and ready for discharge.
Correct answer: The patient was stable; however, the lab results were pending.
A semicolon correctly joins two independent clauses. When followed by a conjunctive adverb like 'however,' the semicolon replaces the period between the clauses.
Question 60: A reading passage describes steps in order: first, second, then finally. What text structure is being used?
- Cause and effect
- Sequence/chronological order (Correct answer)
- Problem and solution
- Compare and contrast
Correct answer: Sequence/chronological order
Signal words like 'first,' 'then,' and 'finally' indicate sequence or chronological order.
Question 61: What is the only artery in the body to carry oxygen-poor blood?
- Renal Artery
- Interosseous artery
- Vena Cava
- Pulmonary Artery (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pulmonary Artery
The pulmonary artery is unique among arteries because it carries deoxygenated blood. It transports blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs, where the blood will pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide. All other arteries in the systemic circulation carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
Question 62: Which word means most nearly the same as the underlined word in this sentence? âDuring the bypass surgery, the surgeon had to locate the anterior veins first before she could reach the heart itself.â
- Aft
- Posterior
- Exterior
- Frontal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Frontal
In anatomy, 'anterior' refers to the front of the body or a body part. It describes a position closer to the front surface. Therefore, 'frontal' is the most accurate synonym, indicating the front aspect or direction.
Question 63: What type of reaction occurs when an acid reacts with a base to produce water and a salt?
- Neutralization (Correct answer)
- Synthesis
- Oxidation-reduction
- Decomposition
Correct answer: Neutralization
A neutralization reaction occurs when an acid and a base combine to form water and a salt, typically bringing the pH closer to 7.
Question 64: What definition is best associated with the word anastomosis?
- Tearing
- Separation
- Removal
- Connection (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Connection
In medicine, an 'anastomosis' refers to a surgical connection made between two hollow or tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestine. It can also refer to a natural connection between two vessels or parts. Therefore, 'connection' is the most accurate and encompassing definition of this term.
Question 65: A nurse notices a patient's blood pressure dropped from 120/80 to 90/60 after a new medication. What critical thinking step should occur FIRST?
- Tell the patient it is normal
- Document and continue with other tasks
- Increase the medication dose
- Recognize and analyze the change as a potential cue (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Recognize and analyze the change as a potential cue
Recognizing and analyzing a significant cue is the first step before acting.
Question 66: A patient's wound is described as having 'purulent' drainage. This means the drainage is:
- Bright red and bloody
- Containing pus (Correct answer)
- Clear and watery
- Thick and dark brown
Correct answer: Containing pus
'Purulent' comes from the Latin 'pus,' meaning pus. Purulent drainage is thick, opaque, and often yellow or green, indicating infection at the wound site.
Question 67: According to the instructions, you must dilute a powder in 3 quarts of water. You only have a container with a liter marking on it. To dilute the powder, how many liters would you use?
- 5 liters
- 6.75 liters
- 100 liters
- 2.88 liters (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2.88 liters
To convert quarts to liters, use the conversion factor that 1 US liquid quart is approximately 0.946 liters. Therefore, 3 quarts * 0.946 liters/quart equals approximately 2.838 liters. Given the options, 2.88 liters is the closest value, suggesting a slightly different conversion factor (e.g., 1 quart â 0.96 L) or rounding was used.
Question 68: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word distended?
- Removed
- Shrunken
- Distracted
- Enlarged (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Enlarged
The word 'distended' means swollen or stretched out of its normal shape, typically due to internal pressure. In a medical context, it often refers to an abdomen that is enlarged or bloated. Therefore, 'enlarged' is the closest and most accurate definition.
Question 69: What is a summary?
- The first paragraph only
- A list of vocabulary words
- A detailed analysis
- A short version highlighting key ideas (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A short version highlighting key ideas
A summary is a concise restatement of the main points or key ideas of a longer text, presented in one's own words. Its purpose is to capture the essence of the original material, highlighting only the most important information without including minor details or personal opinions. Summarizing demonstrates comprehension and allows for quick recall of essential content.
Question 70: A recent online survey published that a hospital needs 9 nurses for every 45 patients. How many nurses a hospital would need in order to take care of 255 patients?
- 49 nurses
- 255 nurses
- 51 nurses (Correct answer)
- 55 nurses
Correct answer: 51 nurses
The hospital needs 9 nurses for every 45 patients, which simplifies to a ratio of 1 nurse for every 5 patients (9/45 = 1/5). To find out how many nurses are needed for 255 patients, set up a proportion: 1 nurse / 5 patients = x nurses / 255 patients. Solve for x by multiplying 255 by (1/5), which gives 51 nurses.
Question 71: 1 liter contains how many milliliters?
- 1000 (Correct answer)
- 300
- 2000
- 10
Correct answer: 1000
The metric system is based on powers of 10 for unit conversions. A milliliter (mL) is defined as one-thousandth of a liter (L). Therefore, there are exactly 1000 milliliters in 1 liter.
Question 72: What is the best way to define "predispose"?
- To show interest
- To dispose an item before using
- To be cautious of bias
- To make susceptible (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To make susceptible
To predispose someone means to make them liable or inclined to a specified attitude, action, or condition. In a medical context, it means to make someone more susceptible or vulnerable to developing a particular disease or condition. For example, genetics can predispose an individual to certain illnesses.
Question 73: What is the genotype of an individual with two different alleles for a gene?
- Heterozygous (Correct answer)
- Homozygous recessive
- Hemizygous
- Homozygous dominant
Correct answer: Heterozygous
Having two different alleles for a gene is described as heterozygous.
Question 74: A subatomic particle is which of the following in relation to an atom?
- Bigger
- Faster
- Smaller (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Smaller
A subatomic particle is, by definition, any particle that is smaller than an atom. Atoms are composed of these fundamental particles, such as protons, neutrons, and electrons. Therefore, these constituent parts are inherently smaller than the complete atom.
Question 75: What is the meaning of the word acute?
- Permanent
- Tempered
- Quick (Correct answer)
- Chronic
Correct answer: Quick
In a medical context, 'acute' describes a condition or illness that has a sudden onset and a short, severe course. It implies a rapid development and often a quick resolution, as opposed to 'chronic,' which refers to a long-lasting condition. For example, acute pain comes on quickly.
Question 76: A passage states: 'The pediatric nurse must consider developmental stages when assessing pain. Neonates may exhibit facial grimacing and increased heart rate. Toddlers may cry and cling to caregivers. School-age children can often use numeric pain scales.' Which statement best summarizes the passage?
- Neonates experience more pain than older children
- Pain assessment tools are the same across all age groups
- School-age children are the most reliable reporters of pain
- Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pain assessment in children must be adapted to developmental level
The passage demonstrates that different age groups express pain differently, requiring developmentally appropriate assessment approaches.
Question 77: A passage presents two sides of an argument and then favors one. What is the author most likely trying to do?
- Persuade the reader (Correct answer)
- List random facts
- Tell a fictional story
- Provide a recipe
Correct answer: Persuade the reader
Presenting sides and favoring one is a persuasive technique meant to convince the reader.
Question 78: Where is the pyloric sphincter located?
- Between the esophagus and stomach
- Between the stomach and small intestine (Correct answer)
- Between the rectum and anus
- Between the small and large intestine
Correct answer: Between the stomach and small intestine
The pyloric sphincter is a ring of smooth muscle located at the distal end of the stomach, specifically at the junction where the stomach connects to the first part of the small intestine, called the duodenum. Its primary function is to regulate the flow of partially digested food (chyme) from the stomach into the small intestine, preventing rapid emptying and allowing for proper digestion.
Question 79: Which term describes the maintenance of a stable internal environment?
- Homeostasis (Correct answer)
- Equilibrium
- Metabolism
- Diffusion
Correct answer: Homeostasis
Homeostasis refers to an organism's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite external fluctuations. This dynamic equilibrium is crucial for survival and involves various regulatory mechanisms that control physiological factors like body temperature, pH, and blood glucose levels within narrow limits.
Question 80: Which word most nearly means enervate?
- Energize
- Fortify
- Rectify
- Debilitate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Debilitate
To enervate means to cause someone to feel drained of energy or vitality; to weaken or debilitate. It implies a loss of strength or vigor, making 'debilitate' the closest synonym. The word describes a process of sapping energy or making someone feeble.
Question 81: A passage ends with, 'Without immediate action, these problems will only worsen.' This sentence functions as a:
- Historical fact
- Neutral description
- Definition
- Warning or call to action (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Warning or call to action
Predicting worsening problems without action urges the reader to respond, a call to action.
Question 82: 330 is 165% of what number
- 150
- 200 (Correct answer)
- 545
- 20
Correct answer: 200
To find the number when 330 is 165% of it, set up the equation: 330 = 165% * x. Convert the percentage to a decimal by dividing by 100, so 165% becomes 1.65. The equation is now 330 = 1.65 * x. Divide 330 by 1.65 to solve for x, which yields x = 200.
Question 83: Which of the following is a property of a buffer solution?
- It always maintains a pH of exactly 7.0
- It only works in biological systems
- It completely neutralizes any acid added to it
- It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added
Buffer solutions resist pH changes when small amounts of acid or base are added, maintaining pH within a narrow range.
Question 84: A passage states: 'Nosocomial infections affect approximately 1.7 million patients annually in the United States, resulting in 99,000 deaths per year.' Based on this information, which conclusion is most accurate?
- Hospitals are unsafe places for patients
- Most hospital patients will develop nosocomial infections
- All nosocomial infections are preventable
- Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality
The statistics support that nosocomial infections are a significant cause of morbidity (1.7M affected) and mortality (99,000 deaths), without overgeneralizing beyond the data.
Question 85: What is the closest definition of deficiency?
- Absence (Correct answer)
- Powerful
- Clarity
- Plenty
Correct answer: Absence
Deficiency refers to a lack or shortage of something essential. In a medical context, it often describes an inadequate supply of a nutrient, vitamin, or hormone necessary for proper bodily function. For example, an iron deficiency means there is an absence of sufficient iron.
Question 86: Two atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons are called:
- Isomers
- Ions
- Allotropes
- Isotopes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Isotopes
Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same atomic number/protons) that differ in their number of neutrons, giving them different mass numbers.
Question 87: A 'distended' abdomen is best described as:
- Swollen or enlarged (Correct answer)
- Soft and flat
- Discolored
- Tender to touch
Correct answer: Swollen or enlarged
Distended means swollen or expanded from internal pressure.
Question 88: Which statement reflects prioritizing using Maslow's hierarchy?
- Ignoring physiological needs
- Treating emotional needs before airway
- Addressing oxygenation before addressing self-esteem needs (Correct answer)
- Treating all needs equally at once
Correct answer: Addressing oxygenation before addressing self-esteem needs
Physiological needs like oxygenation take priority over higher-level needs.
Question 89: What is the topic sentence of a paragraph?
- The last sentence only
- The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea (Correct answer)
- Any sentence with a date
- The shortest sentence
Correct answer: The sentence that states the paragraph's main idea
A topic sentence introduces the central idea that the rest of the paragraph supports.
Question 90: It is possible for an object to show two different types of motion at the same time.
- Scalar quantity
- Acceleration
- Project Motion (Correct answer)
- Force
Correct answer: Project Motion
Projectile motion describes the path an object takes when launched into the air and is only subject to gravity. In this type of motion, the object simultaneously exhibits two independent types of motion: constant horizontal velocity (ignoring air resistance) and vertical motion under constant acceleration due to gravity. This demonstrates how an object can show two different types of motion at the same time.
Question 91: If 0.5 moles of NaCl are dissolved in 2.0 liters of water, what is the molarity of the solution?
- 2.50 M
- 0.50 M
- 1.00 M
- 0.25 M (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.25 M
Molarity (M) = moles of solute á liters of solution. 0.5 mol á 2.0 L = 0.25 M.
Question 92: Which detail would best support the main idea that 'regular handwashing prevents illness'?
- A list of unrelated diseases
- A description of soap colors
- A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers (Correct answer)
- The history of a hospital building
Correct answer: A study showing fewer infections among frequent handwashers
Data linking handwashing to fewer infections directly supports the main idea.
Question 93: How many liters are in 300 milliliters?
- 0.3 liters (Correct answer)
- 30 liters
- 3 liters
- 0.03 liters
Correct answer: 0.3 liters
The conversion factor between milliliters and liters is 1000, meaning 1 liter equals 1000 milliliters. To convert 300 milliliters to liters, divide 300 by 1000. This calculation yields 0.3 liters.
Question 94: Reactions that absorb heat are called what?
- Combustion
- Exothermic
- Thermal
- Endothermic (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Endothermic
Endothermic reactions are chemical processes that absorb heat energy from their surroundings. This absorption of heat causes the temperature of the surroundings to decrease, making them feel cooler. The energy absorbed is stored within the chemical bonds of the products.
Question 95: In a military hospital, a nurse's shift runs from 1400 to 2100. When does the nurse start and finish her shift?
- 3 pm to 10 pm
- 3am to 8 pm
- 10 am to 3 pm
- 2 pm to 9 pm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2 pm to 9 pm
To convert military time to civilian time, subtract 12 from any hour greater than 12 and designate it as PM. Therefore, 1400 becomes 2 PM (14 - 12 = 2), and 2100 becomes 9 PM (21 - 12 = 9), meaning the nurse's shift is from 2 PM to 9 PM.
Question 96: Using the Lewis-dot structure model, how many dots would carbon have?
- 2
- 6
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 8
Correct answer: 4
The Lewis-dot structure model represents an atom's valence electrons as dots around its symbol. Carbon is in Group 14 of the periodic table, meaning it has 4 valence electrons. Therefore, carbon would have 4 dots in its Lewis-dot structure.
Question 97: A patient education brochure says, 'Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.' What is the primary purpose of this statement?
- To persuade the reader to buy
- To describe a scene
- To give instructions (Correct answer)
- To entertain the reader
Correct answer: To give instructions
The sentence directs the reader on how to take the medication, making it instructional.
Question 98: A student observes a plant bending toward a light source. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
- Phototropism (Correct answer)
- Respiration
- Gravitropism
- Photosynthesis
Correct answer: Phototropism
Phototropism is the growth response of a plant in response to a light stimulus. When a plant bends toward a light source, it is exhibiting positive phototropism, a mechanism that helps it maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.
Question 99: Kath's car went from 0 to 60 miles per hour in 2.5 seconds. What was the car's rate of acceleration?
- 25 m/s²
- -26 m/s²
- 0 m/s²
- 24 m/s² (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 24 m/s²
Acceleration is calculated as the change in velocity divided by the time taken. If we assume the question intended for the final velocity to be 60 m/s (as 60 mph is approximately 26.82 m/s), then dividing 60 m/s by 2.5 seconds gives an acceleration of 24 m/s². This calculation aligns with the provided correct answer, suggesting a potential simplification or unit interpretation in the question.
Question 100: Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to which of the following?
- Endometriosis (Correct answer)
- Pelvic inflammatory disease
- Menorrhagia
- Ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: Endometriosis
Chocolate cysts, also known as endometriomas, are a common manifestation of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition where tissue similar to the uterine lining (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, often on the ovaries. These cysts are filled with old, dark, thick blood, which gives them their characteristic 'chocolate' appearance.
Question 101: In a medical journal abstract: 'This randomized controlled trial (n=500) found that early mobilization after hip replacement surgery reduced hospital stays by an average of 1.8 days (p<0.001) compared to standard care protocols.' What does 'p<0.001' indicate to the reader?
- The sample size was too small for valid conclusions
- The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance (Correct answer)
- The results are not clinically important
- The intervention reduced costs by 0.1%
Correct answer: The finding is statistically significant and unlikely due to chance
A p-value less than 0.001 indicates very high statistical significance, meaning there is less than a 0.1% probability the results occurred by chance.
Question 102: Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes responsible for producing pigment?
- Stratum spinosum
- Stratum basale (Correct answer)
- Stratum granulosum
- Stratum corneum
Correct answer: Stratum basale
Melanocytes are located in the stratum basale (deepest layer of the epidermis), where they produce melanin and transfer it to surrounding keratinocytes to provide skin color and UV protection.
Question 103: Which of the following does not represent a state of matter?
- Lattice (Correct answer)
- Solid
- Gas
- Liquid
Correct answer: Lattice
Liquid, gas, and solid are the three common states of matter, describing how particles are arranged and interact. A lattice, on the other hand, refers to a specific, ordered arrangement of atoms or molecules, typically found within a solid state. It is a structural characteristic, not a fundamental state of matter itself.
Question 104: Which of the following does the diaphragm perform during exhalation?
- Contracts and lifts
- Relaxes and lifts (Correct answer)
- Does not move
- Relaxes and lowers
Correct answer: Relaxes and lifts
During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards, or lifts, into the thoracic cavity. This upward movement decreases the volume of the chest cavity, which in turn increases the pressure within the lungs, forcing air out. In contrast, during inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens.
Question 105: Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?
- Mitochondrion
- Lysosome
- Ribosome (Correct answer)
- Golgi apparatus
Correct answer: Ribosome
Ribosomes are essential cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis, a process also known as translation. They read the genetic code carried by messenger RNA (mRNA) and use this information to assemble amino acids into specific protein chains, which then fold into functional proteins.
Question 106: In its simplest form, express 0.125 as a fraction.
- 1\/10
- 1\/30
- 1\/15
- 1\/8 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1\/8
To express the decimal 0.125 as a fraction, write it as 125 over 1000, since there are three decimal places. Then, simplify the fraction 125/1000 by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 125, resulting in the simplest form 1/8.
Question 107: The medical term 'hepatitis' refers to inflammation of the:
- Kidney
- Liver (Correct answer)
- Heart
- Lung
Correct answer: Liver
'Hepat-' is the root for liver, so hepatitis means inflammation of the liver.
Question 108: \tConvert 2\/3 to a decimal
- 0.2222(repeating)
- 0.6666 (repeating) (Correct answer)
- 0.3333 (repeating)
- 1.5
Correct answer: 0.6666 (repeating)
To convert a fraction to a decimal, divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 2/3, divide 2 by 3. This division results in a repeating decimal, 0.6666..., where the 6 continues infinitely.
Question 109: Which of these sentences contains a dependent clause?
- She is hungry but sheâs not going to eat.
- Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat. (Correct answer)
- She said she is feeling hungry, but she is not going to eat.
- She told me she was hungry but wouldnât eat more.
Correct answer: Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat.
A dependent clause contains a subject and a verb but cannot stand alone as a complete sentence because it begins with a subordinating conjunction. In option B, 'Although she is hungry' is a dependent clause, introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'although,' which makes it reliant on the independent clause 'she is not going to eat' for complete meaning.
Question 110: What is the author's purpose if a passage informs the reader?
- To persuade
- To entertain
- To inform (Correct answer)
- To describe a product
Correct answer: To inform
If a passage primarily presents facts, explanations, or instructions without attempting to sway opinion or evoke strong emotions, the author's purpose is to inform. This purpose aims to educate the reader by providing objective data, explaining concepts, or describing events. Recognizing the author's purpose helps readers understand the text's intent and interpret its content appropriately.
Question 111: A ball is kicked off the edge of a 34-meter-high roof. The ball is given a horizontal speed of 12.5 m/s. How far away from the building's base will the ball land if there is no air resistance?
- 32.86 m (Correct answer)
- 28.44 m
- 30.80 m
- 19.35 m
Correct answer: 32.86 m
First, calculate the time it takes for the ball to fall 34 meters using the vertical motion equation: d = 0.5 * g * t². So, 34 = 0.5 * 9.8 m/s² * t², which gives t â 2.634 seconds. Then, use this time with the horizontal speed to find the horizontal distance: distance = speed * time = 12.5 m/s * 2.634 s â 32.93 meters. The closest option is 32.86 m.
Question 112: A passage is organized around a difficulty and a recommended fix. This structure is called:
- Problem and solution (Correct answer)
- Compare and contrast
- Description
- Sequence
Correct answer: Problem and solution
Presenting an issue followed by a remedy is the problem-and-solution structure.
Question 113: What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
- Genetic information storage
- Cell division
- Energy production (Correct answer)
- Protein synthesis
Correct answer: Energy production
The primary function of the mitochondria in a cell is energy production. Often called the 'powerhouses' of the cell, mitochondria generate most of the chemical energy needed to power the cell's biochemical reactions. They achieve this through cellular respiration, converting nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the main energy currency used by the cell for various functions.
Question 114: What is the body's biggest organ?
- stomach
- skin (Correct answer)
- brain
- lungs
Correct answer: skin
The skin is the largest organ of the human body, both in terms of surface area and weight. It forms a protective barrier against the environment, regulates body temperature, and performs various sensory and metabolic functions. While the lungs, stomach, and brain are vital organs, they are not as large as the skin.
Question 115: A nursing team disagrees about the best approach to reduce hospital-acquired infections. Which action best demonstrates critical thinking?
- Defer to the most senior nurse's opinion
- Conduct a review of current evidence and guidelines on infection prevention (Correct answer)
- Continue current practices to avoid conflict
- Vote to determine the majority preference
Correct answer: Conduct a review of current evidence and guidelines on infection prevention
Critical thinking involves basing decisions on evidence rather than seniority, popularity, or conflict avoidance.
Question 116: What is the main idea of a passage?
- A summary of every paragraph
- The author's opinion
- The conclusion of the passage
- The central point or message (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The central point or message
The main idea of a passage is its central point or overarching message that the author wants to convey. It's the core concept that all other details, arguments, and examples within the text support and elaborate upon. Identifying the main idea is crucial for understanding the passage's overall purpose and content.
Question 117: What gas is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis?
- Nitrogen
- Carbon dioxide
- Oxygen (Correct answer)
- Methane
Correct answer: Oxygen
Photosynthesis splits water and releases oxygen as a byproduct.
Question 118: According to the same-name theory, there were only two things left after the "Big Bang"?
- gravity and mass
- time and space
- antimatter and matter (Correct answer)
- electrons and neutrons
Correct answer: antimatter and matter
According to the Big Bang theory, immediately after the Big Bang, the universe was an extremely hot and dense state where fundamental particles, including matter and antimatter, were created in nearly equal amounts. While other fundamental forces and particles existed, the initial composition of the universe primarily involved these two opposing forms of mass-energy.
Question 119: Which is the best example of analyzing cues for clustering?
- Recording vital signs only
- Reading the chart aloud
- Grouping related signs and symptoms to identify a pattern (Correct answer)
- Listing data alphabetically
Correct answer: Grouping related signs and symptoms to identify a pattern
Clustering groups related cues to reveal meaningful patterns.
Question 120: A ball is thrown straight up. What is the direction of its acceleration at the top of its path?
- Forward
- Upward
- Zero
- Downward (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Downward
At the very top of its path, when a ball is thrown straight up, its instantaneous vertical velocity is zero, but it is still under the influence of gravity. The force of gravity continuously pulls the ball downward, resulting in a constant downward acceleration (approximately 9.8 m/s² on Earth), which causes it to fall back down.
Question 121: What does the suffix '-ology' mean?
- Pain in
- Study of (Correct answer)
- Disease of
- Surgical removal
Correct answer: Study of
'-Ology' means the study of, as in cardiology (study of the heart).
Question 122: Which of the following is true of gas particles?
- The distance separating particles is small.
- They exert little to no force on one another. (Correct answer)
- They do not have mass.
- They are generally stationary.
Correct answer: They exert little to no force on one another.
According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, gas particles are in constant, random motion and are widely separated. They are considered to have negligible volume and exert very weak or negligible attractive or repulsive forces on one another. This allows them to move freely and independently within their container.
Question 123: What is the name of the process by which a solid changes directly into a gas?
- Melting
- Sublimation (Correct answer)
- Condensation
- Evaporation
Correct answer: Sublimation
Sublimation is the direct transition of a solid to a gas without becoming liquid.
Question 124: A person with AB- blood should not receive blood from which other blood type?
- AB+ (Correct answer)
- A-
- B-
- O-
Correct answer: AB+
A person with AB- blood has A and B antigens but lacks the Rh factor. They can safely receive blood from A-, B-, O-, and AB- donors. However, they cannot receive AB+ blood because it contains the Rh antigen, which their immune system would recognize as foreign and attack, leading to a severe transfusion reaction.
Question 125: A researcher notices bacteria grow faster in warm temperatures. What is the best next step?
- Add more nutrients
- Test bacteria at different temperatures (Correct answer)
- Increase light levels
- Change bacterial species
Correct answer: Test bacteria at different temperatures
To scientifically validate the observation that bacteria grow faster in warm temperatures, the best next step is to systematically test bacterial growth across a range of different temperatures. This controlled experiment would help establish an optimal temperature for growth and quantify the relationship, while keeping other variables constant.
Question 126: What is the hormone that assists estrogen in stimulating the formation of the endometrium?
- testosterone
- oxytocin
- progesterone (Correct answer)
- luteinizing hormone
Correct answer: progesterone
Progesterone is a key steroid hormone primarily produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation. It works in conjunction with estrogen to prepare the uterine lining (endometrium) for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. Progesterone stimulates the thickening and vascularization of the endometrium, making it receptive for pregnancy.
Question 127: A push or a pull on an item is defined as _________.
- Average speed
- Force (Correct answer)
- Velocity
- Vector quantity
Correct answer: Force
Force is defined as a push or a pull that can cause an object to accelerate, change its velocity, or deform. It is a vector quantity, possessing both magnitude and direction. Forces are fundamental to understanding motion and interactions in physics.
Question 128: What type of bond holds the two strands of a DNA double helix together?
- Ionic bonds
- Hydrogen bonds (Correct answer)
- Peptide bonds
- Covalent bonds between strands
Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds
Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs hold the two DNA strands together.
Question 129: Which type of inheritance pattern is demonstrated when both alleles are fully expressed in the heterozygous phenotype?
- Complete dominance
- Epistasis
- Incomplete dominance
- Codominance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Codominance
Codominance occurs when both alleles in a heterozygote are fully and simultaneously expressed, such as AB blood type.
Question 130: What is the speed of sound in a vacuum?
- 25 m/s
- 222 m/s
- 331.4 m/s
- 0 m/s (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0 m/s
Sound waves are mechanical waves, meaning they require a medium (like air, water, or solids) to propagate. They travel by vibrating particles within that medium, transmitting energy. In a vacuum, there are no particles to vibrate, so sound cannot travel, and its speed is therefore 0 m/s.
Question 131: How far does a runner run (in kilometers) in a 1,000 meter race?
- 1 km (Correct answer)
- 3 km
- 1\/2 km
- 0.10 km
Correct answer: 1 km
To convert meters to kilometers, you need to know that 1 kilometer (km) is equal to 1,000 meters (m). Therefore, to find how many kilometers are in a 1,000-meter race, you divide 1,000 by 1,000. This calculation results in 1 kilometer.
Question 132: Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting nutrients and oxygen?
- Excretory system
- Circulatory system (Correct answer)
- Digestive system
- Respiratory system
Correct answer: Circulatory system
The circulatory system, composed of the heart, blood vessels, and blood, is specifically designed to transport essential substances throughout the body. Its primary role is to deliver oxygen and nutrients to all cells and remove metabolic waste products like carbon dioxide, ensuring proper cellular function.
Question 133: Each pound has 453.59 grams. 6,577 grams is the weight of a baby. In pounds and ounces, how much does the baby weigh?
- 17 lb 8 oz.
- 14 lb 8 oz. (Correct answer)
- 12 lb 5 oz.
- 35 lb 8 oz
Correct answer: 14 lb 8 oz.
First, convert the baby's weight from grams to pounds by dividing 6,577 grams by 453.59 grams/pound, which yields approximately 14.5 pounds. Next, separate the whole pounds (14 lbs) and convert the remaining decimal (0.5 lbs) into ounces by multiplying by 16 ounces/pound (0.5 * 16 = 8 ounces). Thus, the baby weighs 14 pounds and 8 ounces.
Question 134: Unstable nuclei, given enough time, will:
- None of the above
- degrade into a further unstable form
- decay into a stable form (Correct answer)
- evolve
Correct answer: decay into a stable form
Unstable nuclei are radioactive and undergo nuclear decay to achieve a more stable configuration. This process involves emitting particles or energy until the nucleus reaches a stable state, often transforming into a different element. Therefore, they naturally decay into a stable form over time.
Question 135: Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
- Are multicellular
- Lack membrane-bound organelles (Correct answer)
- Have a nucleus
- Contain mitochondria
Correct answer: Lack membrane-bound organelles
Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria and archaea, are characterized by their simpler cellular organization compared to eukaryotic cells. A key distinguishing feature is their lack of a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria or the Golgi apparatus; their genetic material is typically found in a nucleoid region.
Question 136: A passage describes the same event from a doctor's and a patient's view. This contrast helps the reader understand:
- The author's address
- The font choices
- Different perspectives on the event (Correct answer)
- The exact time of day
Correct answer: Different perspectives on the event
Presenting two viewpoints helps readers grasp differing perspectives on the event.
Question 137: Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?
- After reviewing the labs, the doctor ordered a new medication.
- Having finished her charting, she clocked out for the night.
- Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief. (Correct answer)
- Running down the hallway, the nurse reached the patient in time.
Correct answer: Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief.
In 'Exhausted from the long shift, the break room offered some relief,' the modifier 'exhausted from the long shift' incorrectly modifies 'break room' rather than a person. A break room cannot be exhausted. The sentence should read: 'Exhausted from the long shift, she found some relief in the break room.'
Question 138: What is the closest definition of the word sinuous?
- Slender
- Thin
- Mischievous
- Supple (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Supple
Sinuous means having many curves and turns, or winding. It also implies flexibility and grace, making 'supple' a close synonym. A sinuous movement or shape is often fluid and elegant, like a snake moving.
Question 139: Convert 3/5 to a decimal.
- 1.6
- 0.6 (Correct answer)
- 3.50
- 0.06
Correct answer: 0.6
To convert a fraction to a decimal, simply divide the numerator by the denominator. For the fraction 3/5, divide 3 by 5. The result of this division is 0.6.
Question 140: Which anatomical directional phrase refers to a bodily component that is positioned in front of the body?
- posterior
- superior
- anterior (Correct answer)
- lateral
Correct answer: anterior
In anatomical directional terms, 'anterior' refers to the front, or toward the front, of the body or a body part. 'Posterior' refers to the back, 'superior' refers to above, and 'lateral' refers to away from the midline. Therefore, 'anterior' correctly describes a component positioned in front of the body.
Question 141: Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?
- Pulmonary artery (Correct answer)
- Pulmonary vein
- Aorta
- Superior vena cava
Correct answer: Pulmonary artery
The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange.
Question 142: calculated by taking the object's initial and final speeds and averaging them
- Force
- average speed
- acceleration
- Average velocity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Average velocity
Average velocity is calculated by taking the displacement (change in position) over time. While the question's phrasing mentions 'initial and final speeds and averaging them,' which is a simplified way to think about average velocity in certain contexts (like constant acceleration), it most closely aligns with the concept of average velocity, which considers the overall change in position over time, encompassing both speed and direction. Average speed, in contrast, is typically total distance divided by total time.
Question 143: During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles?
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Anaphase (Correct answer)
- Telophase
Correct answer: Anaphase
In anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite spindle poles.
Question 144: What do you call substances that cannot be broken down into simpler forms of matter?
- Molecules
- Electron
- Nuclei
- Elements (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Elements
Elements are fundamental substances that consist of only one type of atom and cannot be broken down into simpler chemical substances by ordinary chemical means. They are the basic building blocks of all matter. Molecules are combinations of elements, while electrons and nuclei are subatomic components.
Question 145: Which sentence uses the apostrophe correctly?
- The patients chart is updated.
- The patient's' chart is updated.
- The patient's chart is updated. (Correct answer)
- The patients' chart's are updated.
Correct answer: The patient's chart is updated.
A singular possessive adds apostrophe + s, so "patient's" is correct.
Question 146: Which of the following is the best definition of the word chide?
- Pick
- Whisper
- Yell
- Scold (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Scold
To 'chide' means to express disapproval of or to scold someone gently. It implies a mild rebuke or reprimand, often to correct behavior or express dissatisfaction. Therefore, 'scold' is the most appropriate definition, conveying the act of reprimanding someone.
Question 147: Multiply and reduced to lowest terms 5\/13 x 3 3\/8
- 45\/104
- 104\/45
- 5\/9
- 1 31\/104 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1 31\/104
To multiply 5/13 by 3 3/8, first convert the mixed number to an improper fraction: 3 3/8 becomes (3*8 + 3)/8 = 27/8. Now multiply the fractions: (5/13) * (27/8) = (5*27) / (13*8) = 135/104. Convert this improper fraction back to a mixed number by dividing 135 by 104, which gives 1 with a remainder of 31, resulting in 1 31/104.
Question 148: The suffix '-scopy' means:
- Visual examination (Correct answer)
- Disease process
- Surgical incision
- Surgical removal
Correct answer: Visual examination
'-Scopy' means visual examination, as in endoscopy (visual examination of the interior of the body).
Question 149: A passage discusses hand hygiene compliance: 'Despite strong evidence that proper hand washing reduces infection rates by up to 50%, compliance rates among healthcare workers remain between 40-60%.' The word 'despite' in this context indicates:
- A chronological sequence
- A cause-and-effect relationship
- Agreement between the two ideas
- A contrast between evidence and behavior (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A contrast between evidence and behavior
The word 'despite' signals a contrast â the evidence strongly supports hand washing, yet compliance remains low, creating a contradiction.
Question 150: Which type of cellular transport requires energy in the form of ATP?
- Active transport (Correct answer)
- Osmosis
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
Correct answer: Active transport
Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient using ATP.
Question 151: What process do plants use to make their own food?
- Digestion
- Photosynthesis (Correct answer)
- Fermentation
- Respiration
Correct answer: Photosynthesis
Photosynthesis is the fundamental process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. This vital process uses carbon dioxide and water to produce sugars for food and releases oxygen as a byproduct, forming the basis of most food webs.
Question 152: Based on a passage: 'Nurse practitioners (NPs) have prescriptive authority in all 50 states, though scope of practice varies. In full-practice states, NPs can evaluate, diagnose, and treat patients independently. In restricted-practice states, NPs must maintain a collaborative agreement with a physician.' What is the main idea of this passage?
- Nurse practitioners should have full practice authority everywhere
- NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state (Correct answer)
- Full-practice states have better healthcare than restricted-practice states
- Physician collaboration improves patient outcomes
Correct answer: NP prescriptive authority exists nationwide but practice scope varies by state
The main idea summarizes the central point: NPs have prescriptive authority everywhere, but the scope of independent practice varies by state regulation.
Question 153: Which is the strongest example of evidence-based decision making?
- Choosing what is most familiar
- Doing what is fastest
- Following habit
- Choosing an intervention supported by current research and patient values (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Choosing an intervention supported by current research and patient values
Evidence-based practice combines research with patient values and clinical expertise.
Question 154: If a passage's main idea is implied rather than stated, what should the reader do?
- Skip to the conclusion
- Infer it from supporting details (Correct answer)
- Count the paragraphs
- Assume there is no main idea
Correct answer: Infer it from supporting details
An implied main idea must be inferred by synthesizing the supporting details.
Question 155: When a care plan states a patient is 'ambulatory,' it means the patient is:
- Able to walk (Correct answer)
- Receiving intravenous fluids
- Scheduled for surgery
- Confined to bed rest
Correct answer: Able to walk
'Ambulatory' derives from the Latin 'ambulare,' meaning to walk. An ambulatory patient is capable of walking and does not require a stretcher or bed transport.
Question 156: Which sentence correctly uses a comma?
- After, administering the medication the nurse documented the time and dosage.
- After administering the medication the nurse documented the time and dosage.
- After administering the medication, the nurse documented the time and dosage. (Correct answer)
- After administering, the medication the nurse documented, the time and dosage.
Correct answer: After administering the medication, the nurse documented the time and dosage.
A comma should follow an introductory dependent clause ('After administering the medication') before the main clause begins.
Question 157: A physician orders 'NPO' for a patient before surgery. This means the patient should:
- Limit physical activity
- Be given pain medication only
- Have nothing by mouth (Correct answer)
- Receive only clear liquids
Correct answer: Have nothing by mouth
NPO stands for the Latin 'nil per os,' meaning 'nothing by mouth.' Patients are placed on NPO status before procedures or surgery to prevent aspiration.
Question 158: Which question best reflects evaluating the reliability of a source of clinical information?
- Did a coworker mention it?
- Is the information current and evidence-based? (Correct answer)
- Is the website attractive?
- Is the information easy to read?
Correct answer: Is the information current and evidence-based?
Reliable clinical information must be current and supported by evidence.
Question 159: What does the prefix 'brady-' mean?
- Fast
- Small
- Slow (Correct answer)
- Large
Correct answer: Slow
'Brady-' is a Greek prefix meaning slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate).
Question 160: What would be considered the dependent clause in this sentence? âThe students could finally see the bus, which was running 15 minutes behind schedule.â
- which was running 15 minutes behind schedule (Correct answer)
- running 15 minutes behind schedule
- The students could finally see the bus
- could finally see the bus
Correct answer: which was running 15 minutes behind schedule
A dependent clause contains a subject and a verb but cannot stand alone as a complete thought; it relies on an independent clause for full meaning. In this sentence, 'which was running 15 minutes behind schedule' is a relative clause, a type of dependent clause, introduced by the relative pronoun 'which.' It provides additional, non-essential information about the bus.
Question 161: Which of the following is the most abundant component of whole blood?
- Platelets
- Red blood cells
- White blood cells
- Plasma (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Plasma
Plasma is the liquid matrix of blood, making up approximately 55% of its total volume. It is primarily composed of water (about 92%) but also contains dissolved proteins, hormones, nutrients, electrolytes, and waste products. The cellular components like red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are suspended within this plasma.
Question 162: What happens to the current in a circuit if the resistance increases while voltage stays the same?
- Current decreases (Correct answer)
- Current increases
- Voltage decreases
- Current remains unchanged
Correct answer: Current decreases
According to Ohm's Law, which states V = IR (Voltage = Current x Resistance), current and resistance are inversely proportional when voltage is constant. Therefore, if the resistance in a circuit increases while the voltage remains the same, the current flowing through the circuit must decrease to maintain the equality.
Question 163: Henry was able to help 4 out of 9 of students that requested help in the math lab and Michelle helped 45% of the total students who asked for help. Who helped more students, Henry or Michelle?
- The amount cannot be calculated.
- Henry
- Michelle (Correct answer)
- They both helped the same number of students.
Correct answer: Michelle
To compare who helped more students, convert Henry's fraction to a percentage. Henry helped 4 out of 9 students, which is 4 á 9 â 0.4444, or approximately 44.4%. Michelle helped 45% of the students. Comparing 44.4% to 45%, Michelle helped a slightly higher percentage of students.
Question 164: What is the correct way to write the missing words in this sentence? Cara chose to study Jupiter, Saturn, ____ for her science project.
- Neptune, and the sun
- Neptune, and The Sun
- neptune, and the sun
- Neptune, and the Sun (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Neptune, and the Sun
Planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune) are proper nouns and must always be capitalized. Additionally, 'Sun' is capitalized when referring to our specific star, especially when listed alongside other celestial bodies in an astronomical context. The conjunction 'and' and the article 'the' are not capitalized in this list.
Question 165: The medical term 'dyspnea' refers to:
- Painful urination
- Difficulty swallowing
- Abnormal heart rhythm
- Labored or difficult breathing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Labored or difficult breathing
The prefix 'dys-' means difficult or abnormal, and '-pnea' refers to breathing. Together, dyspnea describes shortness of breath or labored breathing.
Question 166: Which enzyme catalyzes the transcription of DNA into mRNA?
- Helicase
- Reverse transcriptase
- DNA polymerase
- RNA polymerase (Correct answer)
Correct answer: RNA polymerase
RNA polymerase reads the DNA template strand and synthesizes a complementary mRNA molecule during transcription.
Question 167: To 'palpate' an area means to:
- Listen with a stethoscope
- Examine by touch (Correct answer)
- Look closely at it
- Tap it sharply
Correct answer: Examine by touch
Palpate means to examine by feeling with the hands or fingers.
Question 168: Which of the following is the best definition of the word consternation?
- Anger
- Anxiety (Correct answer)
- Laughable
- Strict
Correct answer: Anxiety
The word 'consternation' refers to a feeling of anxiety or dismay, typically at something unexpected. It describes a sense of alarm or dread that can arise from a sudden, unsettling event or situation. Therefore, 'anxiety' is the best definition, reflecting a state of unease or worry.
Question 169: When prioritizing care for multiple patients, a nurse should primarily rely on which framework?
- Following personal intuition about who needs help most
- Treating patients in the order they were admitted
- Using clinical assessment to identify the most urgent physiological needs (Correct answer)
- Addressing the most vocal patient first
Correct answer: Using clinical assessment to identify the most urgent physiological needs
Clinical prioritization should be based on systematic assessment of physiological urgency, using frameworks like ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) or Maslow's hierarchy.
Question 170: A solution that contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute is said to be what?
- Dilute
- Saturated (Correct answer)
- Unsaturated
- Concentrated
Correct answer: Saturated
A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a specific temperature. At this point, no more solute can dissolve, and any additional solute added will typically remain undissolved or precipitate out. This state represents an equilibrium between dissolved and undissolved solute.
Question 171: A passage compares two treatments by listing similarities and differences. What text structure is this?
- Chronological order
- Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
- Cause and effect
- Description
Correct answer: Compare and contrast
Listing similarities and differences between items is the compare-and-contrast structure.
Question 172: A nurse reads a study claiming a new wound care product heals burns 50% faster. The study was funded by the product manufacturer and had only 12 participants. What is the most appropriate response?
- Dismiss the study entirely because it was industry-funded
- Seek additional independent studies with larger sample sizes before changing practice (Correct answer)
- Immediately adopt the new product for all burn patients
- Recommend the product to patients who ask about it
Correct answer: Seek additional independent studies with larger sample sizes before changing practice
Critical thinking requires evaluating evidence quality. A small, industry-funded study needs corroboration from larger, independent research before changing clinical practice.
Question 173: A patient's lab results show a critically low potassium level, but the patient reports feeling fine. What should the nurse do first?
- Ignore the lab value since the patient is asymptomatic
- Verify the lab results by checking for possible errors and reassessing the patient (Correct answer)
- Reassure the patient and document that they feel fine
- Immediately administer potassium supplements
Correct answer: Verify the lab results by checking for possible errors and reassessing the patient
Critical thinking requires verifying unexpected findings before acting. Lab errors occur, and hypokalemia can be asymptomatic initially while still posing cardiac risks.
Question 174: Brian ___________ up ten minutes after his alarm was supposed to go off.
- awoke
- woke (Correct answer)
- woken
- awakened
Correct answer: woke
'Woke' is the simple past tense of the verb 'to wake,' which is appropriate for a completed action in the past. The phrasal verb 'woke up' is a common and natural way to express this. 'Woken' is the past participle and requires an auxiliary verb (e.g., 'had woken'). 'Awakened' is also correct but 'woke' is more common in this context.
Question 175: What is the closest definition of the word proximal?
- up
- center (Correct answer)
- far
- away
Correct answer: center
In anatomy, 'proximal' refers to a position closer to the center of the body or the point of attachment of a limb. For example, the elbow is proximal to the wrist because it is closer to the body's core. Among the given choices, 'center' best captures the idea of being closer to the main part or origin.
Question 176: Which of the following is true of a negatively charged particle?
- It has no electrons
- It has more protons than electrons
- It has the same number of protons and electrons
- It has more electrons than protons (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It has more electrons than protons
A particle becomes negatively charged when it gains electrons, which carry a negative charge. This creates an imbalance where the number of negatively charged electrons exceeds the number of positively charged protons within the particle. Conversely, a positive charge indicates a deficit of electrons.
Question 177: What is the closest definition of benign?
- Silent
- Painful
- Near
- Harmless (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Harmless
In a medical context, 'benign' describes a condition, tumor, or growth that is not cancerous and will not spread to other parts of the body. It implies that the condition is harmless and typically does not pose a serious threat to health. This is in contrast to 'malignant,' which means cancerous.
Question 178: What type of bond holds the two strands of DNA together in a double helix?
- Peptide bonds
- Ionic bonds
- Hydrogen bonds (Correct answer)
- Covalent bonds
Correct answer: Hydrogen bonds
Hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs (A-T and G-C) hold the two strands of the DNA double helix together.
Question 179: What is the most abundant element in the universe?
- Hydrogen (Correct answer)
- Nitrogen
- Oxygen
- Helium
Correct answer: Hydrogen
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the entire universe, making up approximately 75% of its baryonic mass. It is the fundamental building block of stars and is prevalent in interstellar gas and dust clouds.
Question 180: A nurse documents that a patient is 'febrile.' This term means the patient has:
- Decreased urine output
- Difficulty breathing
- An elevated body temperature (Correct answer)
- Swelling in the extremities
Correct answer: An elevated body temperature
'Febrile' comes from the Latin 'febris,' meaning fever. A febrile patient has a body temperature above the normal range (above 38°C / 100.4°F).
Question 181: If Angel ________________ the module like she was supposed to, she would have known what was on the exam.
- will have read
- shouldnât have read
- had read (Correct answer)
- would have read
Correct answer: had read
This sentence uses the third conditional structure, which describes a hypothetical situation in the past and its hypothetical result. The 'if' clause requires the past perfect tense ('had read') to indicate a condition that did not occur in the past. The main clause then uses 'would have known' to express the consequence.
Question 182: Citric acid is found in lemon juice. Which of the following pH levels is most likely for lemon juice?
- 7
- 2 (Correct answer)
- 15
- 9
Correct answer: 2
Citric acid is a common acid found in citrus fruits like lemons. Acids are characterized by a pH value less than 7, with stronger acids having lower pH values. Lemon juice is known to be quite acidic, making a pH of 2 the most appropriate choice among the given options for a highly acidic substance.
Question 183: Which clue helps identify the meaning of a word through contrast?
- The title of the passage
- Words like 'however' or 'unlike' (Correct answer)
- The length of the sentence
- Punctuation marks
Correct answer: Words like 'however' or 'unlike'
Words like 'however,' 'unlike,' 'but,' 'in contrast,' or 'on the other hand' are crucial contrast clues that help identify the meaning of an unfamiliar word. These signal words indicate that the information following them will present an opposite or different idea from what was previously stated. By understanding this opposition, readers can infer the meaning of the unknown term.
Question 184: Where is the hyoid bone located?
- Leg
- Rib cage
- Neck (Correct answer)
- Pelvis
Correct answer: Neck
The hyoid bone is a unique, U-shaped bone located in the anterior part of the neck, situated between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. It is distinctive because it is the only bone in the human body that does not articulate directly with any other bone, instead being suspended by muscles and ligaments. It plays a vital role in speech, swallowing, and supporting the tongue.
Question 185: What does -COOH mean?
- Hydroxyl group
- Amino group
- Carboxyl group (Correct answer)
- Carbonyl group
Correct answer: Carboxyl group
The functional group -COOH represents a carboxyl group. This group consists of a carbon atom double-bonded to one oxygen atom and single-bonded to a hydroxyl (-OH) group. Carboxyl groups are characteristic of organic acids, such as carboxylic acids, and play a crucial role in many biological molecules.
Question 186: If a writer wants to appear objective, the writing should be free of:
- Clear organization
- Accurate facts
- Supporting evidence
- Biased or emotional language (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Biased or emotional language
Objective writing avoids bias and emotional appeals, relying on facts.
Question 187: In 'Her explanation was lucid, leaving no room for confusion,' the word 'lucid' means:
- Loud and forceful
- Long and detailed
- Confusing and vague
- Clear and easy to understand (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Clear and easy to understand
'Leaving no room for confusion' shows that 'lucid' means clear and understandable.
Question 188: Which term describes an organism's observable physical traits?
- Phenotype (Correct answer)
- Allele
- Genotype
- Chromosome
Correct answer: Phenotype
Phenotype refers to the expressed, observable characteristics of an organism.
Question 189: Read the following: 'The hypothalamus regulates body temperature through a negative feedback mechanism. When body temperature rises above the set point, vasodilation and sweating are triggered. When it falls below, vasoconstriction and shivering occur.' What is the author's primary purpose?
- To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation (Correct answer)
- To compare the hypothalamus to a thermostat
- To describe symptoms of hypothermia
- To argue that the hypothalamus is the most important brain structure
Correct answer: To explain the mechanism of temperature regulation
The passage objectively explains how the hypothalamus regulates temperature through negative feedback, without making arguments or comparisons.
Question 190: Calculate the quotient of 54, 256 \/ 45 (Round to the nearest tenth)
- 1,235
- 1,200
- 1,205.7 (Correct answer)
- 5,122.5
Correct answer: 1,205.7
To calculate the quotient of 54,256 divided by 45, perform the division: 54,256 á 45 = 1205.6888... To round to the nearest tenth, look at the hundredths digit. Since it is 8 (which is 5 or greater), round up the tenths digit. Therefore, 1205.6888... rounded to the nearest tenth is 1,205.7.
Question 191: Which of the following is the best definition of an author's 'tone'?
- The author's attitude toward the subject (Correct answer)
- The main idea of the text
- The sequence of events
- The number of supporting details
Correct answer: The author's attitude toward the subject
Tone refers to the writer's attitude or emotional stance toward the topic.
Question 192: What type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels?
- Cardiac muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Smooth muscle (Correct answer)
- Striated muscle
Correct answer: Smooth muscle
Smooth muscle lines hollow organs and vessels and contracts involuntarily.
Question 193: Which of the following statements about most metals is false?
- They are gases at room temperature (Correct answer)
- They are ductile
- They make up the majority of elements on the periodic table
- None of the above
Correct answer: They are gases at room temperature
Most metals are known for properties like ductility, malleability, and being good conductors of heat and electricity. They constitute the majority of elements on the periodic table and are typically solid at room temperature, with mercury being a notable exception. Therefore, the statement that they are gases at room temperature is false.
Question 194: Which of the following correctly orders the levels of biological organization from smallest to largest?
- Tissue, cell, organ system, organ
- Organ, tissue, cell, organ system
- Organ system, organ, tissue, cell
- Cell, tissue, organ, organ system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cell, tissue, organ, organ system
Cells form tissues, tissues form organs, and organs form organ systems.
Question 195: average speed = d/t <br/> is the distance an object travels divided by the time it takes to travel in the same direction.
- Force
- Velocity (Correct answer)
- Scalar Quantity
- Acceleration
Correct answer: Velocity
Velocity is defined as the rate at which an object changes its position, and it includes both magnitude (speed) and direction. The given definition, 'distance an object travels divided by the time it takes to travel in the same direction,' explicitly includes direction, making it velocity rather than just speed.
Question 196: A survey firm must make phone calls to 136 people. To make the 136 long-distance calls, how many buttons must be pressed?
- 1360 (Correct answer)
- 800
- 1300
- 1600
Correct answer: 1360
This question assumes a standard number of buttons pressed for each long-distance phone call. If each call requires 10 button presses (e.g., '1' + area code + 7-digit number), then for 136 calls, the total number of button presses would be 136 calls * 10 buttons/call, which equals 1360 buttons.
Question 197: Which best describes clinical judgment?
- An interpretation and conclusion about a patient's needs leading to action (Correct answer)
- Following orders blindly
- Memorizing facts
- Charting only
Correct answer: An interpretation and conclusion about a patient's needs leading to action
Clinical judgment interprets data and concludes on needs and actions.
Question 198: What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration [H+] of 1 x 10^-4 M?
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 2
- 10
- 14
Correct answer: 4
pH = -log[H+] = -log(1 x 10^-4) = 4. This solution is acidic since the pH is below 7.
Question 199: Why does a helium balloon rise in air?
- It is lighter than air (Correct answer)
- It repels gravity
- It heats up the air around it
- It has magnetic properties
Correct answer: It is lighter than air
A helium balloon rises because helium gas is less dense than the surrounding air. According to Archimedes' principle, an object immersed in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Since the helium balloon displaces a volume of air that weighs more than the balloon itself (including the helium), it experiences a net upward force, causing it to rise.
Question 200: Which of the following is grammatically correct?
- She could except anything from him, accept a lie.
- She could accept anything from him, accept a lie.
- She could except anything from him, except a lie.
- She could accept anything from him, except a lie. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: She could accept anything from him, except a lie.
This sentence correctly uses the homophones 'accept' and 'except.' 'Accept' means to receive or agree to something, which is appropriate for 'accept anything from him.' 'Except' means excluding or other than, correctly used to indicate 'except a lie.' The other options incorrectly interchange these words.
Question 201: What does 'erythro-' mean?
- Yellow
- White
- Blue
- Red (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Red
'Erythro-' means red, as in erythrocytes (red blood cells) and erythema (skin redness).
Question 202: A patient presents with symptoms that could indicate either condition A or condition B. The treatments for each condition are contradictory. What critical thinking approach is most appropriate?
- Wait for the conditions to resolve on their own
- Treat for both conditions simultaneously
- Gather additional assessment data to differentiate between the two conditions before initiating treatment (Correct answer)
- Treat for the more common condition since it is statistically more likely
Correct answer: Gather additional assessment data to differentiate between the two conditions before initiating treatment
When differential diagnoses require contradictory treatments, gathering additional data to reach a more definitive conclusion is essential before acting.
Question 203: Which process converts glucose into pyruvate in the cytoplasm without requiring oxygen?
- Electron transport chain
- Krebs cycle
- Glycolysis (Correct answer)
- Photosynthesis
Correct answer: Glycolysis
Glycolysis breaks glucose into two pyruvate molecules in the cytosol anaerobically.
Question 204: The suffix '-ectomy' refers to:
- Disease of
- Incision into
- Surgical removal (Correct answer)
- Inflammation
Correct answer: Surgical removal
'-Ectomy' comes from Greek and means surgical removal, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix).
Question 205: The process by which white blood cells move out of capillaries into surrounding tissue is called:
- Pinocytosis
- Phagocytosis
- Chemotaxis
- Diapedesis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Diapedesis
Diapedesis (also called extravasation) is the process by which leukocytes squeeze through the walls of capillaries to reach the site of infection or injury in surrounding tissues.
Question 206: Which sentence is grammatically correct?
- None of these are grammatically correct.
- Kevin prays fervently at St. Maryâs Church for his sisterâs salvation. (Correct answer)
- Kevin prays at St. Maryâs Church fervently for his sisterâs salvation.
- Kevin prays for his sisterâs salvation at St. Maryâs Church, fervently.
Correct answer: Kevin prays fervently at St. Maryâs Church for his sisterâs salvation.
When multiple adverbial phrases are present, the general order for clarity and natural flow is often manner, place, then time. In this sentence, 'fervently' describes *how* Kevin prays (manner), 'at St. Maryâs Church' describes *where* he prays (place), and 'for his sisterâs salvation' describes *why* he prays (purpose). Placing 'fervently' directly after the verb 'prays' and before the other prepositional phrases creates the most grammatically correct and natural-sounding sentence structure.
Question 207: Which of the following is not true of synovial joints?
- They are the most moveable joint type in the body.
- They are the most common joint in the body.
- They have a fluid-filled capsule that surrounds their articulating surface.
- They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Synovial joints are characterized by a fluid-filled capsule, articular cartilage, and are highly movable, such as the knee or shoulder. Intervertebral discs, however, are cartilaginous joints (specifically symphyses) that allow for limited movement and provide shock absorption between vertebrae. Therefore, synovial joints are not found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column.
Question 208: Convert 0.65 to a fraction in lowest term
- 1\/65
- 13\/20 (Correct answer)
- 20\/13
- 65\/100
Correct answer: 13\/20
To convert the decimal 0.65 to a fraction in lowest terms, first write it as a fraction over 100: 65/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 5. This reduces the fraction to 13/20.
Question 209: Which sentence states a fact rather than an opinion?
- Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level. (Correct answer)
- The movie was too long and boring.
- Everyone should exercise more often.
- Summer is the best season of the year.
Correct answer: Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius at sea level.
A boiling point is a measurable, verifiable fact, while the others express judgments.
Question 210: What is called by the release of prolactin during breastfeeding?
- Cell permeability
- Gene regulation
- Negative feedback
- Positive feedback (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Positive feedback
The release of prolactin during breastfeeding is a classic example of a positive feedback loop. When an infant suckles, sensory nerves in the nipple send signals to the hypothalamus, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release prolactin. Prolactin then promotes milk production, and increased suckling leads to even more prolactin release, amplifying the response until the stimulus is removed.
Question 211: Which one is the correct verb form to use in this sentence? My shower ___ a leak Friday night.
- sprung
- sprang (Correct answer)
- spranged
- spring
Correct answer: sprang
The sentence describes an event that occurred in the past ('Friday night'), so the simple past tense form of the verb 'to spring' is required. 'Sprang' is the correct simple past tense. 'Sprung' is the past participle and would require a helping verb, such as 'has sprung' or 'had sprung'.
Question 212: Which strategy is best when encountering an unfamiliar word?
- Look at surrounding words for clues (Correct answer)
- Skip the word entirely
- Ignore it if itâs not a noun
- Guess its meaning randomly
Correct answer: Look at surrounding words for clues
When encountering an unfamiliar word, the most effective strategy is to use context clues by looking at the surrounding words, sentences, and paragraphs. These clues often provide definitions, synonyms, antonyms, or examples that help readers deduce the word's meaning without interrupting their reading flow. This approach enhances comprehension and vocabulary development.
Question 213: What is the complementary DNA base pairing for the sequence A-T-G-C?
- C-G-T-A
- A-T-G-C
- G-C-A-T
- T-A-C-G (Correct answer)
Correct answer: T-A-C-G
Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.
Question 214: In an exothermic reaction, what happens to energy?
- Energy is converted entirely to matter
- Energy is absorbed from the surroundings
- Energy remains unchanged
- Energy is released to the surroundings (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Energy is released to the surroundings
Exothermic reactions release energy (usually as heat) to the surroundings, resulting in a negative enthalpy change (ÎH < 0).
Question 215: Which one of the following elements is liquid at room temperature?
- Mercury (Correct answer)
- Manganese
- Magnesium
- Zinc
Correct answer: Mercury
Among the given options, Mercury (Hg) is the only element that is liquid at standard room temperature and pressure. Manganese, Magnesium, and Zinc are all solid metals under these conditions.
Question 216: During final exams 172 students visited the math lab in total. If 4 out of 11 were male what is the percentage of female students who visited the math lab? (Round to the nearest tenth). a. 63.6%\t
- 63.64%
- 63%
- 63.6% (Correct answer)
- 62.5%
Correct answer: 63.6%
If 4 out of 11 students were male, then the remaining students are female. This means 11 - 4 = 7 out of 11 students were female. To find the percentage of female students, divide the number of female students by the total number of students in the ratio (7/11) and multiply by 100%. This calculation yields approximately 63.636%, which rounds to 63.6% to the nearest tenth.
Question 217: How many centimeters is 1 foot? (Note that one inch equals 2.54 cm.)
- 15 centimeters
- 35 centimeters
- 30.48 centimeters (Correct answer)
- 27 centimeters
Correct answer: 30.48 centimeters
First, convert 1 foot to inches, knowing that 1 foot equals 12 inches. Then, convert these 12 inches to centimeters by multiplying by the given conversion factor of 2.54 cm per inch. So, 12 inches * 2.54 cm/inch = 30.48 centimeters.
Question 218: A human weighs 76 kg. What is this person's weight on the earth?
- 820 N
- 745 N (Correct answer)
- 455 N
- 690 N
Correct answer: 745 N
Weight is the force of gravity acting on an object's mass. It is calculated using the formula Weight (W) = mass (m) * acceleration due to gravity (g). On Earth, the approximate value for g is 9.8 m/s². Therefore, W = 76 kg * 9.8 m/s² = 744.8 N, which rounds to 745 N.
Question 219: A baseball weighs 0.145 kg. It needs to be thrown at what speed to have a kinetic energy of 57 J?
- 8.3 m/s
- 50.5 m/s
- 28.0 m/s (Correct answer)
- 55.9 m/s
Correct answer: 28.0 m/s
Kinetic energy (KE) is calculated using the formula KE = ½mv², where m is mass and v is velocity. To find the velocity, we rearrange the formula to v = â((2 * KE) / m). Plugging in the given values: v = â((2 * 57 J) / 0.145 kg) = â(114 / 0.145) = â(786.2) â 28.04 m/s.
Question 220: Convert 0.60 to ratio in simplest form
- 1:6
- 2:6
- 3:5 (Correct answer)
- 2:50
Correct answer: 3:5
To convert the decimal 0.60 to a ratio in simplest form, first write it as a fraction: 60/100. Then, simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 20. This reduces the fraction to 3/5, which can be expressed as the ratio 3:5.
Question 221: Lisa prepares soup by combining spices in a saucepan of boiling water and stirring until the spices are completely dissolved. She then adds a variety of diced veggies. What is the solute in her mixture?
- Vegetables
- Water
- Spices (Correct answer)
- Heat
Correct answer: Spices
In a solution, the solute is the substance that gets dissolved, and the solvent is the substance that does the dissolving. In Lisa's soup, the spices are dissolved in the boiling water. Therefore, the spices are the solute in this mixture.
Question 222: A shoe company sends out 7 trucks loaded with nursing shoes that cost the company $1,572 per truck. If they send out 750 boxes per truck, what would be the profit if the cost per box is $ 125.40?
- 646,170.00 (Correct answer)
- 45,357.60
- 614,400.00
- 79,490.40
Correct answer: 646,170.00
This problem requires calculating total revenue and total cost to find the profit. Assuming '$125.40 per box' is the selling price, the total revenue is (7 trucks * 750 boxes/truck) * $125.40/box = 5250 boxes * $125.40/box = $658,350. If the total cost per truck was effectively $1740 (to match the given answer, implying an additional cost of $168 per truck beyond the stated $1572), then the total cost for 7 trucks is 7 * $1740 = $12,180. The profit is Total Revenue - Total Cost = $658,350 - $12,180 = $646,170.
Question 223: In 'The benign tumor required monitoring but posed no immediate danger,' the word 'benign' most nearly means:
- Harmless (Correct answer)
- Painful
- Aggressive
- Contagious
Correct answer: Harmless
Posing 'no immediate danger' clarifies that 'benign' means harmless.
Question 224: Inductive reasoning in clinical practice involves:
- Ignoring patient data
- Following orders without thought
- Applying a general rule to a case
- Forming a general conclusion from specific observations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Forming a general conclusion from specific observations
Inductive reasoning builds general conclusions from specific cues.
Question 225: Which of the following best defines a supporting detail?
- Unrelated facts
- Examples or facts that support the main idea (Correct answer)
- Repeated information
- A personal opinion
Correct answer: Examples or facts that support the main idea
A supporting detail is a specific piece of information, such as an example, fact, statistic, or description, that serves to elaborate on and provide evidence for the main idea of a passage. These details strengthen the author's argument or explanation, making the central point more understandable, credible, and convincing. Without them, the main idea would lack substantiation.
Question 226: If a specific reversible process reached equilibrium, what would happen if more reactants were added?
- The equilibrium would change in favor of the formation of additional products. (Correct answer)
- The equilibrium position would move, resulting in the formation of more reactants.
- The reaction would heat up
- Nothing, because the reaction has reached equilibrium.
Correct answer: The equilibrium would change in favor of the formation of additional products.
This scenario is described by Le Chatelier's Principle, which states that if a change of condition is applied to a system in equilibrium, the system will shift in a direction that relieves the stress. Adding more reactants is a stress, so the equilibrium will shift to consume these reactants. This results in the formation of additional products to re-establish equilibrium.
Question 227: What does the prefix 'poly-' mean?
- Half or partial
- Two or double
- Many or multiple (Correct answer)
- One or single
Correct answer: Many or multiple
'Poly-' means many or multiple, as in polyuria (excessive urine production) or polyneuropathy (disease affecting many nerves).
Question 228: The word 'bilateral' means:
- On the front of the body
- On both sides of the body (Correct answer)
- On the back of the body
- On one side of the body
Correct answer: On both sides of the body
'Bilateral' means pertaining to or affecting both sides, from 'bi' (two) and 'lateral' (side).
Question 229: How many valence electrons does an oxygen atom (atomic number 8) have?
- 4
- 2
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 8
Correct answer: 6
Oxygen has the electron configuration 2, 6 â meaning 2 electrons in the first shell and 6 in the second (valence) shell.
Question 230: Which of the following is not true of epithelial tissue?
- It is vascular (Correct answer)
- It helps form certain glands
- It lines cavities in the body
- It rests on a basement membrane
Correct answer: It is vascular
Epithelial tissue is avascular, meaning it does not have its own direct blood supply. Instead, it receives nutrients and oxygen by diffusion from the underlying connective tissue, which is vascular. Epithelial tissue does, however, line body cavities, form glands, and rests on a basement membrane.
Question 231: Subtract 2\/ â 6\/ (Enter numerical value only).
- 7 8\/10
- 2 8\/10
- 7 5\/13
- 2 17\/21 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2 17\/21
The question 'Subtract 2/ - 6/' is incomplete, but assuming it refers to a subtraction of mixed numbers that results in 2 17/21, the general process involves finding a common denominator for the fractions, converting mixed numbers to improper fractions if necessary for borrowing, and then subtracting the numerators and whole numbers. For example, if the problem was 6 1/7 - 3 1/3, you would convert to 6 3/21 - 3 7/21, then borrow to get 5 24/21 - 3 7/21, resulting in 2 17/21.
Question 232: Which situation best demonstrates the law of conservation of momentum?
- A book falls off a table
- Two skaters push off each other and roll away (Correct answer)
- A ball stops due to friction
- A battery powers a toy car
Correct answer: Two skaters push off each other and roll away
The law of conservation of momentum states that in a closed system, the total momentum remains constant. When two skaters push off each other, they exert equal and opposite forces (Newton's Third Law), resulting in equal and opposite changes in their individual momenta, but the total momentum of the two-skater system before and after the push remains conserved.
Question 233: What is the sodium charge in the compound NaCl?
- +1 (Correct answer)
- â1
- 3
- 0
Correct answer: +1
In the ionic compound NaCl (sodium chloride), sodium (Na) is an alkali metal in Group 1 of the periodic table, meaning it readily loses one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration. When sodium loses an electron, it forms a cation with a charge of +1 (Na+).
Question 234: What is the meaning of incision?
- Injection
- Cut (Correct answer)
- Fracture
- Closure
Correct answer: Cut
An 'incision' is a surgical cut made in skin or flesh, typically during an operation or medical procedure. It is a precise opening created by a surgeon's instrument. Therefore, 'cut' is the most direct and accurate definition of an incision.
Question 235: A mutation that changes a single nucleotide base in DNA is called what?
- Point mutation (Correct answer)
- Frameshift insertion
- Nondisjunction
- Chromosomal deletion
Correct answer: Point mutation
A point mutation is a change in a single nucleotide base within the DNA sequence.
Question 236: When summarizing a passage, the reader should include which of the following?
- The main idea and key supporting points (Correct answer)
- Every minor detail
- Only the first sentence
- Personal opinions about the topic
Correct answer: The main idea and key supporting points
A good summary captures the central idea and the most important supporting points concisely.
Question 237: Which of the following states of matter has a definite volume?
- Liquid and solid (Correct answer)
- Gas and liquid
- Gas, liquid, and volume
- Gas and solid
Correct answer: Liquid and solid
Solids have a definite shape and a definite volume because their particles are tightly packed in fixed positions. Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container, as their particles are close but can move past each other. Gases, however, have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, expanding to fill any container.
Question 238: Choose the correct word: The nurse gave the medication to ____ patient was in pain.
- whom
- which
- whose
- who (Correct answer)
Correct answer: who
"Who" is the subject of the verb "was," so it is correct here.
Question 239: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word contrite?
- Sad
- Lonely
- Remorseful (Correct answer)
- Excited
Correct answer: Remorseful
The word 'contrite' describes feeling or expressing deep regret or penitence for wrongdoing. It implies a sense of sorrow and guilt for one's actions. Therefore, 'remorseful' is the most fitting synonym, conveying a similar feeling of regret and sorrow for past actions.
Question 240: What is the molarity of a solution containing 58.5 grams of NaCl dissolved in enough water to make 2 liters of solution? (Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)
- 0.25 M
- 2.0 M
- 1.0 M
- 0.5 M (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 0.5 M
Molarity = moles of solute / liters of solution. Moles of NaCl = 58.5g / 58.5g/mol = 1 mol. Molarity = 1 mol / 2 L = 0.5 M.
Question 241: The rate at which a vehicle's velocity changes over time?
- Velocity
- Acceleration (Correct answer)
- Force
- Projectile Motion
Correct answer: Acceleration
Acceleration is defined as the rate at which an object's velocity changes over time. Velocity includes both speed and direction, so acceleration can involve a change in speed, a change in direction, or both. It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.
Question 242: During meiosis, genetic diversity is increased by the exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes. What is this process called?
- Cytokinesis
- Nondisjunction
- Crossing over (Correct answer)
- Independent assortment
Correct answer: Crossing over
Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material at points called chiasmata.
Question 243: A passage states, 'The committee's proposal, while ambitious, lacked the funding necessary to succeed.' What is the author's attitude toward the proposal?
- Enthusiastically supportive
- Skeptical of its feasibility (Correct answer)
- Completely dismissive
- Indifferent and detached
Correct answer: Skeptical of its feasibility
The phrase 'lacked the funding necessary to succeed' signals doubt about whether the proposal can work.
Question 244: Viscosity increases in what circumstance?
- When carbon is introduced
- Temperature decrease (Correct answer)
- Temperature increase
- Noneâviscosity is constant
Correct answer: Temperature decrease
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. When temperature decreases, the kinetic energy of the fluid's particles also decreases, causing them to move slower and experience stronger intermolecular forces. This increased resistance to movement among particles leads to an increase in the fluid's viscosity.
Question 245: Why is it important to identify bias in a passage?
- To find the authorâs name
- To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content (Correct answer)
- To memorize the content
- To understand emotional words
Correct answer: To evaluate the trustworthiness of the content
Identifying bias in a passage is critical because it reveals the author's potential leanings, prejudices, or one-sided perspectives, which can influence the information presented. Recognizing bias allows readers to critically evaluate the content's objectivity, question its reliability, and determine the trustworthiness of the information. This critical assessment is essential for forming well-informed and balanced opinions.
Question 246: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
- Ionic bond
- Covalent bond (Correct answer)
- Hydrogen bond
- Metallic bond
Correct answer: Covalent bond
Covalent bonds form when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, typically occurring between nonmetal elements.
Question 247: Which of the following organ systems is responsible for creating movement via contraction?
- Muscular (Correct answer)
- Respiratory
- Skeletal
- Cardiovascular
Correct answer: Muscular
The muscular system is specifically designed for generating movement through the contraction of muscle fibers. It includes skeletal muscles (for voluntary movement), smooth muscles (for involuntary movements in internal organs), and cardiac muscle (for pumping blood). This system enables locomotion, maintains posture, and facilitates the movement of substances within the body.
Question 248: When a passage contains both facts and the author's interpretation, a careful reader should:
- Read only the opinions
- Ignore the facts
- Accept everything as fact
- Distinguish facts from opinions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Distinguish facts from opinions
Critical reading requires separating verifiable facts from the author's opinions.
Question 249: Which of the following would produce Hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution and would turn a litmus test from blue to red?
- Vinegar (Correct answer)
- Detergent
- Lye
- Ammonia
Correct answer: Vinegar
Acids are substances that produce hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in an aqueous solution and turn blue litmus paper red. Vinegar contains acetic acid, which exhibits these properties. Ammonia, lye, and detergent are bases, which produce hydroxide ions (OH-) and turn red litmus blue.
Question 250: The term 'benign' in medical terminology means:
- Of unknown origin
- Cancerous and spreading
- Requiring immediate treatment
- Not harmful or not cancerous (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Not harmful or not cancerous
'Benign' means not harmful, not cancerous, or not threatening to health, as opposed to 'malignant' which indicates cancerous or harmful.
Question 251: Which of the following elements does not appear on the periodic table?
- Bromine
- Chlorine
- Magnesium oxide (Correct answer)
- Phosphorous
Correct answer: Magnesium oxide
The periodic table lists all known chemical elements. Chlorine, Bromine, and Phosphorous are all individual elements found on this table. Magnesium oxide (MgO), however, is a chemical compound formed from the elements Magnesium (Mg) and Oxygen (O), not an element itself, and thus does not appear on the periodic table.
Question 252: When two interventions seem equally valid, critical thinking requires the nurse to:
- Ask another patient
- Weigh risks and benefits for the specific patient (Correct answer)
- Pick randomly
- Choose the faster one
Correct answer: Weigh risks and benefits for the specific patient
Comparing risks and benefits for the individual guides sound decisions.
Question 253: Which word is a context clue that signals a contrast in a sentence?
- Therefore
- Because
- However (Correct answer)
- Similarly
Correct answer: However
'However' introduces an idea that contrasts with what came before.
Question 254: In the sentence 'The nurse was meticulous, checking every detail twice,' the word 'meticulous' most nearly means:
- Careless and rushed
- Tired and bored
- Careful and precise (Correct answer)
- Friendly and warm
Correct answer: Careful and precise
Checking every detail twice shows careful, precise attention, defining 'meticulous.'
Question 255: Which of the following is the best definition of the word incongruent?
- Discouraged
- Incompatible (Correct answer)
- Sinister
- Discontented
Correct answer: Incompatible
The word 'incongruent' means not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something. It describes things that are inconsistent, unsuitable, or do not fit well together. Therefore, 'incompatible' is the best definition, as it signifies a lack of suitability or agreement between things.
Question 256: A patient is described as 'lethargic.' What does this mean?
- Alert and oriented
- Drowsy and sluggish (Correct answer)
- Feverish and flushed
- Agitated and restless
Correct answer: Drowsy and sluggish
Lethargic means abnormally drowsy, sluggish, or lacking energy.
Question 257: What is the meaning of the suffix '-ectomy'?
- Visual examination
- Inflammation
- Surgical repair
- Surgical removal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Surgical removal
The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision of a body part or tissue.
Question 258: A reader encounters an unfamiliar word but understands it from the surrounding sentence. The reader used:
- A glossary index
- Context clues (Correct answer)
- The page number
- The title only
Correct answer: Context clues
Determining meaning from surrounding text is the use of context clues.
Question 259: 45.\t5 1\/2 divide by 2 1\/2
- 2 1\/5 (Correct answer)
- 21
- 2 3\/4
- 2.0
Correct answer: 2 1\/5
To divide mixed numbers, first convert them into improper fractions. 5 1/2 becomes 11/2, and 2 1/2 becomes 5/2. Then, multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction: (11/2) * (2/5). The 2s cancel out, leaving 11/5. Finally, convert the improper fraction back to a mixed number: 11 divided by 5 is 2 with a remainder of 1, so the answer is 2 1/5.
Question 260: A passage describes a research study: 'Participants who received the experimental drug showed a 40% reduction in symptoms compared to the placebo group. However, 15% of participants experienced significant side effects including nausea and dizziness.' Which statement represents an inference from this passage?
- Fifteen percent of participants had side effects
- Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks (Correct answer)
- Some participants experienced nausea
- The drug reduced symptoms by 40%
Correct answer: Healthcare providers would need to weigh the benefits against the side effect risks
An inference goes beyond what is explicitly stated. The benefit-risk assessment is logically implied but not directly stated in the passage.
Question 261: What is the tone of a passage?
- The authorâs attitude or mood (Correct answer)
- The text's font style
- The length of the passage
- The number of paragraphs
Correct answer: The authorâs attitude or mood
The tone of a passage refers to the author's attitude or emotional stance towards the subject matter or the audience. It is conveyed through specific word choices, sentence structure, and overall writing style, influencing how the reader perceives the text's message. Recognizing the tone helps readers understand the author's perspective and the underlying mood of the writing.
Question 262: Which of the following is the closest definition of the word succinct?
- Short (Correct answer)
- Sweet
- Old
- Angry
Correct answer: Short
The word 'succinct' means expressed clearly and precisely in few words; concise. It emphasizes brevity and clarity in communication, getting straight to the point without unnecessary detail. Therefore, 'short' is the most direct and accurate definition, implying conciseness.
Question 263: The prefix 'tachy-' means:
- Fast (Correct answer)
- Painful
- Heavy
- Slow
Correct answer: Fast
'Tachy-' means fast or rapid, as in tachycardia (abnormally fast heart rate).
Question 264: When a nurse delegates a task, critical thinking ensures the nurse:
- Delegates to anyone available
- Avoids supervision
- Delegates everything
- Matches the task to the delegate's scope and competence (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Matches the task to the delegate's scope and competence
Safe delegation matches tasks to scope and competence.
Question 265: The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is -9.8 m/s². Which part of this integer provides direction information, converting it to a vector quantity?
- The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is upward, therefore we know it's a vector quantity.
- Because the seconds are squared in the units, we know it's a vector quantity.
- Because the negative sign indicates the magnitude of the acceleration, we know it's a vector quantity.
- We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: We know it's a vector quantity because the negative sign indicates a downward acceleration.
A vector quantity is a physical quantity that has both magnitude (size) and direction. The value -9.8 m/s² for acceleration due to gravity includes a negative sign, which specifically indicates the direction of this acceleration. By convention, the negative sign signifies that the acceleration is directed downwards, towards the center of the Earth, thus providing directional information.
Question 266: What is the largest organ of the human body?
- Skin (Correct answer)
- Brain
- Lungs
- Liver
Correct answer: Skin
The skin is the body's largest organ by surface area and weight.
Question 267: When prioritizing care for multiple patients, the nurse should use:
- Room number order
- Personal preference
- Urgency and acuity of needs (Correct answer)
- Alphabetical order
Correct answer: Urgency and acuity of needs
Prioritization is based on urgency and acuity of patient needs.
Question 268: What does it mean to draw an inference?
- Identify the author's name
- Rewrite the text
- Form a conclusion based on information (Correct answer)
- Make a guess with no basis
Correct answer: Form a conclusion based on information
To draw an inference means to form a conclusion or make an educated guess based on the information explicitly provided in the text, combined with one's own prior knowledge and reasoning. It involves 'reading between the lines' to understand implied meanings or consequences that are not directly stated by the author. This skill is crucial for deeper comprehension and critical thinking.
Question 269: A doctor advises a patient to reduce their intake of diet soda by 25%... <br> The patient currently consumes four 12 oz. diet Coke cans per day. If the patient cuts his soda intake by 25%, how many ounces of diet soda may he drink?
- 30 oz
- 15 oz
- 36 oz (Correct answer)
- 10 oz
Correct answer: 36 oz
The patient currently consumes 4 cans * 12 oz/can = 48 ounces of diet soda per day. To reduce intake by 25%, calculate 25% of 48 oz, which is 0.25 * 48 = 12 oz. Subtract this reduction from the original intake: 48 oz - 12 oz = 36 oz. Alternatively, the patient will drink 75% of their original intake: 0.75 * 48 oz = 36 oz.
Question 270: Which nurse action best demonstrates intellectual humility?
- Ignoring colleagues
- Refusing to ask for help
- Assuming expertise in all areas
- Acknowledging the limits of one's knowledge and seeking input (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Acknowledging the limits of one's knowledge and seeking input
Intellectual humility means recognizing knowledge limits and seeking help.
Question 271: The word 'prognosis' refers to:
- The predicted outcome of a disease (Correct answer)
- The cause of a disease
- The identification of a disease
- The prevention of a disease
Correct answer: The predicted outcome of a disease
'Prognosis' refers to the predicted course and outcome of a disease or condition, including the chance of recovery.
Question 272: Which is the largest decimal?
- 0.6
- 0.667
- 0.68 (Correct answer)
- 0.0688
Correct answer: 0.68
To determine the largest decimal, compare the numbers digit by digit from left to right, starting after the decimal point. It's helpful to add trailing zeros so all numbers have the same number of decimal places for an easier comparison. Comparing 0.0688, 0.6670, 0.6800, and 0.6000, 0.68 has the largest value in the hundredths place (8), making it the largest decimal among the options.
Question 273: A reader concludes that a character is nervous because the text describes 'trembling hands and a shaky voice.' This is an example of:
- Identifying the title
- Stating a direct fact
- Counting syllables
- Drawing an inference (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Drawing an inference
Using described physical details to conclude the character's emotion is making an inference.
Question 274: The word 'patent' as used in 'a patent airway' means:
- Open and unobstructed (Correct answer)
- Swollen and inflamed
- Narrow and constricted
- Blocked and closed
Correct answer: Open and unobstructed
Patent means open and unobstructed, as in a clear airway.
Question 275: Which biomolecule serves as the primary long-term energy storage in animals?
- Glycogen
- Glucose
- Cellulose
- Fats (lipids) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fats (lipids)
Lipids store the most energy per gram for long-term reserves in animals.
Question 276: Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
- Cerebellum (Correct answer)
- Cerebrum
- Medulla oblongata
- Hypothalamus
Correct answer: Cerebellum
The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements and maintains balance.
Question 277: A passage reads: 'While antibiotics have saved countless lives since their discovery, their overuse has led to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA. Public health experts warn that without significant changes in prescribing practices, we may enter a post-antibiotic era.' The tone of this passage is best described as:
- Optimistic and encouraging
- Neutral and indifferent
- Cautionary and concerned (Correct answer)
- Hostile and accusatory
Correct answer: Cautionary and concerned
The passage acknowledges benefits but emphasizes risks with warning language ('warn,' 'post-antibiotic era'), creating a cautionary and concerned tone.
Question 278: The prefix 'hypo-' means:
- Above normal
- Around a structure
- Below normal (Correct answer)
- Between structures
Correct answer: Below normal
'Hypo-' means below or under, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Question 279: The refractive index of chloroform is 1.44. In this medium, what is the speed of light?
- 2.08 x 10â¸m/s (Correct answer)
- 4.6 x 10⸠m/s
- 3.08 x 10â¸m/s
- 2.27 x 10â¸m/s
Correct answer: 2.08 x 10â¸m/s
The speed of light in a medium (v) can be calculated using the formula v = c / n, where c is the speed of light in a vacuum (approximately 3.00 x 10⸠m/s) and n is the refractive index of the medium. Plugging in the given values, v = (3.00 x 10⸠m/s) / 1.44 â 2.08 x 10⸠m/s.
Question 280: Which valve is in charge of stopping blood from flowing backward from the right ventricle to the right atrium?
- Pulmonary valve
- Tricuspid valve (Correct answer)
- Mitral valve
- Semilunar valve
Correct answer: Tricuspid valve
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. Its essential function is to prevent the backflow of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium when the ventricle contracts. This ensures that blood flows in the correct direction towards the pulmonary artery.
Question 281: The prefix 'arthr-' refers to:
- Muscles
- Blood vessels
- Joints (Correct answer)
- Nerves
Correct answer: Joints
'Arthr-' means joint, as in arthritis (inflammation of joints) or arthroscopy (visual examination of a joint).
Question 282: What is the closest definition of the word occlude?
- To forget
- To close tightly (Correct answer)
- To revisit
- To leave out
Correct answer: To close tightly
To occlude means to stop, close up, or block an opening or passage. In a medical context, it often refers to the blockage of a blood vessel or duct, preventing the flow of blood or other fluids. For example, a blood clot can occlude an artery.
Question 283: If a wound is 'suppurating,' it is:
- Drying out
- Discharging pus (Correct answer)
- Bleeding heavily
- Healing cleanly
Correct answer: Discharging pus
Suppurating means forming or discharging pus.
Question 284: My dearest friend was in a terrible automobile accident last Sunday night that left him hurt ____________.
- baddest
- badly (Correct answer)
- worst
- bad
Correct answer: badly
'Badly' is an adverb that correctly modifies the verb 'hurt,' describing the extent or manner of the injury. 'Bad' is an adjective and should not be used to modify a verb. Therefore, 'hurt badly' is the grammatically correct way to express the severity of the injury.
Question 285: If a genetic mutation occurs in a somatic (body) cell, what is the likely result?
- It will be inherited by offspring
- It will spread to all future generations
- It may cause disease in the individual (Correct answer)
- It will not affect the organism at all
Correct answer: It may cause disease in the individual
A genetic mutation occurring in a somatic (body) cell affects only the individual in which it arises and is not passed on to offspring. While not inheritable, such mutations can lead to various consequences within that individual, including cellular dysfunction, uncontrolled cell growth (cancer), or other diseases.
Question 286: What part of the body is being visualized in a cystoscopy?
- Knee
- Vagina
- Abdomen
- Bladder (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bladder
A cystoscopy is a medical procedure used to examine the inside of the bladder and urethra. A thin, flexible tube with a camera (cystoscope) is inserted through the urethra into the bladder, allowing a doctor to visualize these structures and diagnose conditions.
Question 287: Which kingdom do bacteria belong to that lack a true membrane-bound nucleus?
- Animalia
- Prokaryotes (Correct answer)
- Plantae
- Fungi
Correct answer: Prokaryotes
Bacteria are prokaryotes, lacking a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles.
Question 288: When evaluating health information from the internet, which source would be considered most reliable for evidence-based nursing practice?
- A pharmaceutical company's product website
- A popular health blog with thousands of followers
- A peer-reviewed systematic review from the Cochrane Library (Correct answer)
- A patient forum discussing personal experiences
Correct answer: A peer-reviewed systematic review from the Cochrane Library
Peer-reviewed systematic reviews from established databases like Cochrane represent the highest level of evidence in evidence-based practice.
Question 289: What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10^-4 M?
- 10
- -4
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 14
Correct answer: 4
pH equals the negative log of [H+], so -log(1x10^-4) = 4.
HESI Admission Assessment (A2) Exam
The HESI A2 exam is a pre-admission test for nursing and allied health programs, evaluating academic readiness in various subjects.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong â answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds