Ohio General X-Ray Machine Operator (GXMO) Knowledge Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When a patient body part measures 4–5 cm more than the standard chart thickness, the general rule is to:

Decrease SID by 10%
Increase kVp by 15%
Increase mAs by 30%
Double the mAs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Double the mAs

The standard rule is to double mAs for every additional 4–5 cm of body part thickness to compensate for increased tissue attenuation.

Question 2: What is the significance of documentation in Patient Positioning?

Only required during audits
Only management needs to document
It provides a record for accountability, quality assurance, and legal compliance (Correct answer)
Documentation is unnecessary busy work

Correct answer: It provides a record for accountability, quality assurance, and legal compliance

Proper documentation supports accountability, enables quality review, and satisfies legal requirements.

Question 3: What is the importance of communication skills in Image Quality?

Clear communication prevents errors, builds relationships, and ensures understanding among all parties (Correct answer)
Technical skills are sufficient without communication
Communication skills cannot be learned
Communication is only important for managers

Correct answer: Clear communication prevents errors, builds relationships, and ensures understanding among all parties

Effective communication is essential for coordination, error prevention, and stakeholder relationships.

Question 4: The Waters projection is most commonly used to evaluate which anatomical structures?

Maxillary sinuses and orbital floors (Correct answer)
Cervical vertebrae
Mastoid air cells
Frontal sinuses and ethmoid sinuses

Correct answer: Maxillary sinuses and orbital floors

The Waters (parietoacanthial) projection provides the best view of the maxillary sinuses and orbital floor, useful for detecting blow-out fractures.

Question 5: What does the term "half-value layer" (HVL) refer to in radiation physics?

The maximum radiation dose a patient can receive
The thickness of material needed to reduce the radiation beam by half (Correct answer)
The time required for an X-ray machine to cool down
The amount of radiation that reaches the detector

Correct answer: The thickness of material needed to reduce the radiation beam by half

The Half-Value Layer (HVL) is a critical concept in radiation physics that describes the penetrating power of an X-ray beam and the effectiveness of shielding materials. It refers to the thickness of a specific material required to reduce the intensity of an X-ray beam to exactly half of its original value. HVL measurements are important for quality control and ensuring appropriate beam filtration in diagnostic radiology.

Question 6: Processor quality control temperature for the developer in a film processor should typically be maintained at approximately:

120°F (49°C)
68°F (20°C)
75°F (24°C)
95°F (35°C) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 95°F (35°C)

Developer temperature is maintained at approximately 95°F (35°C) for standard rapid-access film processors; deviations alter development time and film density.

Question 7: How does technology impact modern practices in Image Quality?

Technology improves efficiency, accuracy, and access to information while requiring new skills (Correct answer)
Technology is only useful for record keeping
Technology has no impact on this field
Technology replaces all human judgment

Correct answer: Technology improves efficiency, accuracy, and access to information while requiring new skills

Technology enhances capabilities while also requiring practitioners to develop new competencies.

Question 8: When using Automatic Exposure Control (AEC), the radiographer still manually selects:

Exposure time
kVp (Correct answer)
All exposure factors
mAs

Correct answer: kVp

With AEC, the radiographer selects kVp (and often mA station); the AEC device automatically controls exposure time to achieve proper receptor exposure.

Question 9: What is the purpose of the X-ray machine’s control panel?

To cool down the X-ray tube
To generate X-rays
To adjust exposure parameters and settings (Correct answer)
To filter out unnecessary X-rays

Correct answer: To adjust exposure parameters and settings

The control panel serves as the primary interface for the radiologic technologist to operate the X-ray machine. Its purpose is to allow for the selection and adjustment of various exposure parameters, such as kilovoltage peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). These adjustments are crucial for optimizing image quality and minimizing patient radiation dose for each specific examination.

Question 10: A patient is scheduled for a barium swallow examination but states they ate a full meal two hours ago. The technologist should:

Administer a laxative and proceed after 30 minutes
Proceed with the exam since two hours is sufficient fasting time
Replace the barium with a water-soluble contrast agent
Notify the radiologist and likely reschedule the exam (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the radiologist and likely reschedule the exam

Barium swallow studies typically require NPO status; recent food intake may obscure findings and the radiologist must be consulted before proceeding.

Question 11: What is the term for radiation that can remove electrons from atoms it interacts with?

Non-ionizing radiation
Thermal radiation
Ionizing radiation (Correct answer)
Background radiation

Correct answer: Ionizing radiation

Ionizing radiation carries enough energy to eject electrons from atoms, creating ion pairs that can damage biological tissue.

Question 12: What role does continuing education play in Image Quality?

Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments (Correct answer)
It is optional and rarely helpful
Only required for new practitioners
Only beneficial for management

Correct answer: Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments

Continuing education ensures practitioners stay current with advances in their field.

Question 13: Which type of grid is designed to be used at a specific SID range and will produce grid cutoff if used outside that range?

Moving (Bucky) grid
Focused grid (Correct answer)
Cross-hatch grid
Parallel grid

Correct answer: Focused grid

A focused grid has grid lines angled to align with the divergence of the X-ray beam at a specific SID, causing cutoff artifacts if used at incorrect distances.

Question 14: A non-ambulatory patient requires a chest radiograph. If a PA erect projection cannot be obtained, the preferred alternative is:

PA recumbent
AP erect (Correct answer)
Lateral decubitus
AP supine

Correct answer: AP erect

An AP erect projection is preferred over supine because it allows the diaphragm to descend and provides better visualization of lung fields and fluid levels.

Question 15: Using a small focal spot instead of a large focal spot will primarily result in:

Increased image contrast
Increased radiographic density
Reduced patient dose
Improved recorded detail/sharpness (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Improved recorded detail/sharpness

A smaller focal spot reduces geometric unsharpness (penumbra effect), improving spatial resolution and recorded detail.

Question 16: Which of the following is an important consideration when positioning a pediatric patient for an X-ray?

Using larger image receptors to cover the entire body
Ensuring the child remains still and calm during the procedure (Correct answer)
Increasing the radiation dose to compensate for the child’s small size
Using the same settings as for adult patients

Correct answer: Ensuring the child remains still and calm during the procedure

Ensuring the child remains still and calm during the procedure is a critical consideration when positioning pediatric patients for an X-ray. Children often have difficulty holding still, which can lead to motion blur artifacts on the image, compromising diagnostic quality. Technologists use various techniques, including gentle immobilization or parental assistance, to minimize movement and reduce the need for repeat exposures.

Question 17: Which badge placement guideline applies when a radiographer wears a lead apron during fluoroscopy?

Wear the badge at waist level outside the apron
No badge is needed when wearing a lead apron
Wear the badge inside the apron at chest level
Wear the badge at collar level outside the apron to estimate effective dose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wear the badge at collar level outside the apron to estimate effective dose

When wearing a lead apron, the dosimeter badge should be worn at collar level (thyroid region) outside the apron to best estimate effective dose to unshielded radiosensitive organs.

Question 18: A lateral lumbar spine radiograph shows the vertebral bodies but the spinous processes are not visible. What technique error is most likely responsible?

Excessive mAs causing overexposure
Grid lines superimposed on the image
Patient rotation during exposure
Insufficient penetration (too low kVp) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Insufficient penetration (too low kVp)

Low kVp results in insufficient penetration through the dense posterior elements, making the spinous processes invisible on the lateral projection.

Question 19: What does "quantum mottle" in an X-ray image indicate?

The presence of metal objects in the X-ray field
Overexposure of the X-ray film
An uneven distribution of X-ray photons reaching the detector (Correct answer)
Incorrect patient positioning

Correct answer: An uneven distribution of X-ray photons reaching the detector

Quantum mottle, also known as quantum noise, appears as a grainy or speckled appearance on an X-ray image. It indicates an uneven distribution of X-ray photons reaching the detector, typically due to an insufficient number of photons. This lack of sufficient information results in a noisy image and can be mitigated by increasing the mAs (quantity of X-rays) to ensure more photons reach the detector.

Question 20: Grid ratio is defined as the ratio of:

Grid strip height to lead strip width
Primary to scatter radiation
Lead strip height to inter-space width (Correct answer)
Number of lead strips per cm

Correct answer: Lead strip height to inter-space width

Grid ratio = h/D, where h is the height (depth) of the lead strips and D is the width of the radiolucent interspaces between them.

Question 21: The recommended SID (source-to-image distance) for a routine PA chest X-ray is:

56 inches (142 cm)
40 inches (102 cm)
48 inches (122 cm)
72 inches (183 cm) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 72 inches (183 cm)

A 72-inch SID is used for PA chest X-rays to minimize magnification of the heart and reduce patient dose.

Question 22: Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of free air (pneumoperitoneum) on an upright abdominal radiograph?

Air under the diaphragm (Correct answer)
Air-fluid levels in the bowel
Soft tissue calcifications
Loss of psoas muscle shadow

Correct answer: Air under the diaphragm

Free intraperitoneal air rises to the highest point in the abdomen and appears as a radiolucent crescent under the diaphragm on an upright view.

Question 23: What quality metrics are most important in Image Quality?

Only financial metrics
No metrics are needed
Only speed of completion
Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction

Quality in Image Quality is measured through multiple dimensions including outcomes, processes, and satisfaction.

Question 24: Which anatomical structure is located at the level of the sternal angle (angle of Louis) and is used as a landmark for chest X-rays?

T4-T5 intervertebral disc (Correct answer)
T1-T2 intervertebral disc
T8-T9 intervertebral disc
L1-L2 intervertebral disc

Correct answer: T4-T5 intervertebral disc

The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds to the level of the T4-T5 intervertebral disc and marks the carina of the trachea.

Question 25: Which term describes the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between two adjacent structures that have very similar subject contrast?

Spatial resolution
Modulation transfer function
Contrast resolution (Correct answer)
Dynamic range

Correct answer: Contrast resolution

Contrast resolution (low-contrast detectability) is the ability to differentiate between structures with similar densities, distinct from spatial resolution which refers to sharpness.

Question 26: For an AP shoulder projection, which rotation demonstrates the glenohumeral joint space most clearly?

15–20 degrees external rotation of the arm (Correct answer)
Neutral arm position
15–20 degrees internal rotation of the arm
45-degree posterior oblique

Correct answer: 15–20 degrees external rotation of the arm

External rotation of the arm 15–20 degrees places the greater tubercle in profile and opens the glenohumeral joint space for best visualization.

Question 27: Which pathological condition would appear most radiolucent (dark) on a standard radiograph?

Consolidation (pneumonia)
Pleural effusion
Emphysema (Correct answer)
Atelectasis

Correct answer: Emphysema

Emphysema causes hyperinflation and destruction of alveolar walls, increasing air content in the lungs and producing areas of decreased density (radiolucency) on the radiograph.

Question 28: What is the primary purpose of standardized procedures in Patient Positioning?

To create unnecessary bureaucracy
To slow down work processes
To benefit only management
To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure consistency, safety, and quality across all practitioners

Standardized procedures ensure that all practitioners deliver consistent, safe, and high-quality outcomes.

Question 29: What type of interaction causes an x-ray photon to be completely absorbed while ejecting an inner-shell electron from an atom?

Pair production
Coherent scatter
Photoelectric effect (Correct answer)
Compton scatter

Correct answer: Photoelectric effect

In the photoelectric effect, the x-ray photon is totally absorbed and its energy is used to eject a bound inner-shell electron called a photoelectron.

Question 30: Which projection is best for demonstrating fluid levels in the sinuses?

Towne projection
Lateral recumbent projection
Supine AP projection
Erect PA or Waters projection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Erect PA or Waters projection

Erect positioning (PA or Waters) allows fluid to pool at the bottom of sinuses, creating visible air-fluid levels on the radiograph.

Question 31: When reviewing an image for diagnostic quality, which criterion confirms adequate penetration on a lateral thoracic spine radiograph?

The lung fields appear uniformly radiolucent
The spinous processes are clearly visualized
The ribs are visible without overexposure
Intervertebral disc spaces are visible through the superimposed shoulders (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intervertebral disc spaces are visible through the superimposed shoulders

On a lateral thoracic spine, the intervertebral disc spaces must be visible through the shoulders to confirm sufficient penetration of all superimposed structures.

Question 32: Which quality control test is used to evaluate the accuracy of the X-ray beam collimator light field relative to the radiation field?

Focal spot size test
Half-value layer (HVL) measurement
Beam alignment/collimator accuracy test (Correct answer)
kVp accuracy test

Correct answer: Beam alignment/collimator accuracy test

The beam alignment test uses a radio-opaque ruler or template to compare the light field to the actual radiation field, ensuring they coincide within tolerance limits.

Question 33: Which of the following is an appropriate measure to reduce radiation exposure to a patient?

Using the highest possible kVp setting
Employing the ALARA principle (Correct answer)
Decreasing the distance between the X-ray source and the patient
Increasing the exposure time

Correct answer: Employing the ALARA principle

The ALARA principle, standing for 'As Low As Reasonably Achievable,' is a fundamental tenet of radiation protection. It mandates that all radiation exposures should be kept to the lowest possible level, considering economic and social factors. Employing ALARA involves using proper shielding, optimizing exposure parameters, and minimizing exposure time to effectively reduce patient radiation dose.

Question 34: The '15% rule' states that increasing kVp by 15% requires what mAs adjustment to maintain the same density?

No mAs change needed
Halve the mAs (Correct answer)
Increase mAs by 15%
Double the mAs

Correct answer: Halve the mAs

Increasing kVp by 15% doubles the effect on density, so mAs must be halved to maintain the original exposure level.

Question 35: What should be done if an X-ray image shows inadequate detail or blurring?

Decrease the mAs (milliampere-seconds) setting
Use a higher kVp setting
Check and adjust the patient’s positioning and ensure they remain still (Correct answer)
Increase the exposure time

Correct answer: Check and adjust the patient’s positioning and ensure they remain still

If an X-ray image shows inadequate detail or blurring, the most common cause is patient motion or incorrect positioning during the exposure. Patient movement results in motion blur, while improper positioning can lead to distorted or superimposed anatomical structures. Therefore, checking and adjusting the patient's positioning and ensuring they remain still are crucial steps to improve image quality.

Question 36: What is pair production and at what minimum photon energy does it occur?

Complete photon absorption creating an ion pair; occurs above 33 keV
Electron ejection from outer shell; occurs above 10 keV
Creation of an electron-positron pair from a photon near a nucleus; requires at least 1.02 MeV (Correct answer)
Coherent scatter of two photons; occurs at any energy

Correct answer: Creation of an electron-positron pair from a photon near a nucleus; requires at least 1.02 MeV

Pair production occurs when a photon with at least 1.02 MeV interacts near an atomic nucleus and is converted into an electron-positron pair.

Question 37: What is the term for the unsharpness created by patient movement during exposure?

Motion unsharpness (Correct answer)
Parallax unsharpness
Receptor unsharpness
Geometric unsharpness

Correct answer: Motion unsharpness

Motion unsharpness occurs when the patient moves during the exposure, blurring the image; it is minimized by using short exposure times and proper immobilization.

Question 38: What is the primary source of occupational radiation exposure for radiographers during fluoroscopic procedures?

Leakage radiation from the tube housing
Primary beam exiting the image intensifier
Scatter radiation from the patient (Correct answer)
Characteristic radiation from the table

Correct answer: Scatter radiation from the patient

During fluoroscopy, scatter radiation originating from the patient's body is the primary source of occupational exposure for the radiographer or radiologist.

Question 39: For a lateral wrist projection, the wrist is positioned so that the ulna and radius are:

Superimposed (Correct answer)
Separated by 2 cm
Perpendicular to the IR
At 45-degree oblique

Correct answer: Superimposed

In the lateral wrist projection, the ulna and radius should be directly superimposed to confirm true lateral positioning.

Question 40: How should risk be managed in Radiation Safety?

By avoiding all risk entirely
By ignoring potential problems
Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks (Correct answer)
Risk management is not necessary

Correct answer: Through identification, assessment, mitigation strategies, and ongoing monitoring of potential risks

Effective risk management involves a systematic process of identifying, evaluating, and addressing potential threats.

Question 41: What is the significance of documentation in Radiation Safety?

Only required during audits
Documentation is unnecessary busy work
It provides a record for accountability, quality assurance, and legal compliance (Correct answer)
Only management needs to document

Correct answer: It provides a record for accountability, quality assurance, and legal compliance

Proper documentation supports accountability, enables quality review, and satisfies legal requirements.

Question 42: How should ethical dilemmas be handled in Patient Positioning?

Ignore ethical concerns
Make decisions based solely on personal preference
Always choose the cheapest option
Follow established ethical guidelines, consult with supervisors, and prioritize stakeholder welfare (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Follow established ethical guidelines, consult with supervisors, and prioritize stakeholder welfare

Ethical decision-making requires following professional guidelines and prioritizing the welfare of all stakeholders.

Question 43: The speed of an X-ray film-screen system refers to:

Its sensitivity to radiation (ability to produce diagnostic density with less exposure) (Correct answer)
The rate at which the processor develops film
Focal spot size
The time required for automatic exposure control to terminate the exposure

Correct answer: Its sensitivity to radiation (ability to produce diagnostic density with less exposure)

Screen-film speed (e.g., 100, 200, 400) indicates the system's sensitivity; higher speed requires less radiation to achieve the same image density, reducing patient dose.

Question 44: A radiographer increases kVp while reducing mAs to maintain similar image density. What effect does this have on patient dose?

Patient dose remains exactly the same
Patient dose is unaffected because only mAs matters
Patient dose decreases (Correct answer)
Patient dose increases significantly

Correct answer: Patient dose decreases

Increasing kVp and reducing mAs (the 15% rule) generally reduces patient entrance skin dose because higher-energy photons penetrate tissue more efficiently, requiring less total beam output.

Question 45: A radiograph of the hand shows small, round, dense opacities scattered throughout the soft tissues. What is the most likely interpretation?

Film processing artifact
Scatter fog
Air artifact
Soft tissue calcifications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Soft tissue calcifications

Round, dense opacities in soft tissue on radiographs typically represent calcifications, which can be vascular, dystrophic, or metastatic in nature.

Question 46: According to the inverse square law, if SID is doubled, x-ray beam intensity at the image receptor:

Decreases to one-quarter (Correct answer)
Decreases by half
Quadruples
Doubles

Correct answer: Decreases to one-quarter

The inverse square law states intensity is inversely proportional to the square of distance; doubling SID reduces intensity to 1/4.

Question 47: Doubling the mAs while keeping all other factors constant will:

Increase image contrast
Halve patient dose
Double radiographic density (Correct answer)
Reduce scatter radiation

Correct answer: Double radiographic density

mAs controls x-ray quantity; doubling mAs doubles the number of photons reaching the image receptor, doubling radiographic density.

Question 48: Artifacts caused by dirt or debris on a CR (computed radiography) imaging plate most commonly appear as:

White (unexposed) or black dots and lines on the image (Correct answer)
Increased overall image noise
Reduced spatial resolution only
Overexposure in one corner

Correct answer: White (unexposed) or black dots and lines on the image

Foreign material on a CR plate blocks or scatters the laser during readout, creating white (or occasionally dark) artifacts on the processed image.

Question 49: What is the most important foundational concept in Image Quality?

Ignoring established guidelines
Understanding core principles and their practical application in Image Quality (Correct answer)
Memorizing all rules without understanding
Only following instructions from supervisors

Correct answer: Understanding core principles and their practical application in Image Quality

Core principles provide the foundation for all decision-making and practice in Image Quality.

Question 50: What role does continuing education play in Patient Positioning?

Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments (Correct answer)
It is optional and rarely helpful
Only beneficial for management
Only required for new practitioners

Correct answer: Keeping practitioners current with evolving best practices and new developments

Continuing education ensures practitioners stay current with advances in their field.

Question 51: Which of the following is the correct sequence for handing a patient with a known latex allergy?

Schedule the patient last in the day to allow latex particles to settle
Notify the department in advance, use a latex-free environment, and have emergency medication available (Correct answer)
Use latex gloves but double glove for extra protection
Proceed normally since latex allergy is rarely severe

Correct answer: Notify the department in advance, use a latex-free environment, and have emergency medication available

Patients with latex allergy require a latex-free environment, advance preparation, and availability of emergency anaphylaxis medications.

Question 52: What is characteristic radiation?

Scatter radiation from patient interactions
Radiation produced when electrons decelerate near a nucleus
Radiation emitted by radioactive nuclei
X-rays emitted when outer-shell electrons fill vacancies left by ejected inner-shell electrons (Correct answer)

Correct answer: X-rays emitted when outer-shell electrons fill vacancies left by ejected inner-shell electrons

Characteristic radiation is produced when an outer-shell electron transitions to fill an inner-shell vacancy, releasing a photon with energy equal to the difference between the two shell binding energies.

Question 53: In digital radiography, exposure index (EI) values are used to:

Measure beam HVL
Set kVp automatically
Control collimator position
Indicate the amount of radiation that reached the detector for a given exposure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Indicate the amount of radiation that reached the detector for a given exposure

The exposure index (EI) is a numerical indicator of detector exposure level, helping technologists identify over- or underexposure even when the displayed image looks acceptable.

Question 54: Which tissue type is considered most radiosensitive according to the law of Bergonié and Tribondeau?

Rapidly dividing stem cells (Correct answer)
Muscle cells
Nerve cells
Mature bone cells

Correct answer: Rapidly dividing stem cells

Bergonié and Tribondeau stated that cells are most radiosensitive when they are undifferentiated, rapidly dividing, and have a long mitotic future.

Question 55: What is the most important foundational concept in Radiation Safety?

Ignoring established guidelines
Memorizing all rules without understanding
Understanding core principles and their practical application in Radiation Safety (Correct answer)
Only following instructions from supervisors

Correct answer: Understanding core principles and their practical application in Radiation Safety

Core principles provide the foundation for all decision-making and practice in Radiation Safety.

Question 56: An Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) device terminates the exposure when:

The patient holds their breath
A preset mAs value is reached
A preset amount of radiation reaches the detector (Correct answer)
kVp reaches its maximum setting

Correct answer: A preset amount of radiation reaches the detector

AEC devices use ionization chambers at the image receptor to measure radiation and automatically terminate the exposure once the correct density threshold is reached.

Question 57: Protective gonad shielding should NOT be used when:

Shielding would obscure the area of diagnostic interest (Correct answer)
The patient is a child
The gonads are within 5 cm of the primary beam
The patient is of reproductive age

Correct answer: Shielding would obscure the area of diagnostic interest

Gonad shielding should not be applied if it will cover the area being imaged, as this would compromise diagnostic quality.

Question 58: What is the primary function of the X-ray tube in an X-ray machine?

To capture and store X-ray images
To cool down the X-ray machine
To produce and direct X-rays towards the patient (Correct answer)
To generate high-frequency electrical signals

Correct answer: To produce and direct X-rays towards the patient

The X-ray tube is the core component of an X-ray machine, responsible for generating the X-rays. Inside the tube, electrons are accelerated from a cathode to an anode, producing X-rays upon impact. These X-rays are then directed towards the patient to create diagnostic images.

Question 59: What quality metrics are most important in Radiation Safety?

Only financial metrics
Only speed of completion
Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction (Correct answer)
No metrics are needed

Correct answer: Measurable outcomes, process compliance, and stakeholder satisfaction

Quality in Radiation Safety is measured through multiple dimensions including outcomes, processes, and satisfaction.

Question 60: What is the importance of communication skills in Radiation Safety?

Communication is only important for managers
Communication skills cannot be learned
Technical skills are sufficient without communication
Clear communication prevents errors, builds relationships, and ensures understanding among all parties (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clear communication prevents errors, builds relationships, and ensures understanding among all parties

Effective communication is essential for coordination, error prevention, and stakeholder relationships.

Ohio General X-Ray Machine Operator (GXMO) Knowledge Exam

The Ohio GXMO Knowledge Exam tests candidates on radiation safety, radiographic equipment and physics, image quality, digital imaging, technique, and patient care — required for licensure to operate diagnostic x-ray equipment under the Ohio Department of Health.

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90 min

Time Limit

70%

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