GPHC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield GPHC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A customer requests omeprazole OTC for heartburn. For how long is it recommended before GP review? → Up to 4 weeks; refer if no improvement or symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks
2. Which medication is most commonly implicated in iatrogenic hypoglycaemia? → Sulphonylureas (e.g., gliclazide) and insulin
3. What is the definition of a 'wholesale dealer' under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012? → A person who sells or supplies medicines for the purpose of sale or supply by others
4. Which schedule of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations exempts certain preparations from CD safe custody requirements? → Schedule 5
5. Which drug is used to treat acute anaphylaxis as the first-line emergency treatment? → Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.5 mg (1:1000)
6. Which of the following is NOT a legal requirement on an NHS FP10 prescription form? → The patient's NHS number
7. A patient requests their community pharmacist to provide a copy of their Summary Care Record (SCR). Under what circumstances can the pharmacist access the SCR? → Only with the patient's informed consent and for direct patient care purposes
8. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate in rheumatoid arthritis? → Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, reducing DNA synthesis and inflammation
9. What is the OTC age restriction for selling aspirin in the UK? → Not recommended under 16 years due to Reye's syndrome risk
10. Which OTC antacid ingredient is most likely to cause constipation? → Aluminium hydroxide
11. According to NICE, which antidepressant class should be avoided in patients with a recent MI? → Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
12. Which formulation type is designed to release drug over an extended period to reduce dosing frequency? → Modified-release tablet
13. Which excipient acts as a preservative in multi-dose eye drops? → Benzalkonium chloride
14. What is the maximum period of validity for an NHS prescription for a Schedule 2 controlled drug? → 28 days
15. Which polymorphic form of a drug is generally more soluble? → Amorphous form
16. Which solubility enhancing technique involves forming a complex between drug and cyclodextrin? → Complexation
17. Which OTC antihistamine is least sedating and therefore preferred for daytime use? → Loratadine or cetirizine (second-generation antihistamines)
18. Which of the following is a recognised serious interaction between clarithromycin and simvastatin? → Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis due to CYP3A4 inhibition
19. What is the primary concern when prescribing NSAIDs to an elderly patient with chronic kidney disease? → Worsening renal function due to prostaglandin inhibition reducing renal blood flow
20. How many millimoles of sodium are in 500mL of sodium chloride 0.9% infusion? (Molecular weight of NaCl = 58.5, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5) → 77 mmol
21. What does the term 'near miss' mean in pharmacy dispensing? → An error that was caught before it reached the patient
22. Which property of a drug most influences its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier? → Lipophilicity
23. In pharmaceutical compounding, a 'tincture' is defined as: → An alcoholic extract of plant material
24. What must a pharmacist do if they have a conscientious objection to dispensing a legal prescription? → Refer the patient to another provider who can dispense it
25. Which strength of naloxone is carried as an emergency medicine in community pharmacies under some NHS England schemes? → Naloxone 400 micrograms/mL injection and/or 1.8 mg intranasal spray
26. The Yellow Card Scheme is used to report suspected adverse drug reactions (ADRs) to which UK organisation? → Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA)
27. Which OTC product is used for the treatment of scabies? → Permethrin 5% cream
28. Under the Medicines Act 1968, which category of medicines can only be sold or supplied from a registered pharmacy by or under the supervision of a pharmacist? → Pharmacy (P) medicines
29. A patient taking warfarin is prescribed clarithromycin. What interaction should you counsel about? → Increased INR and bleeding risk
30. Under GPhC standards, a pharmacist must maintain their competence through: → Continuing professional development (CPD) relevant to their scope of practice