Grant Professionals Certification (GPC) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the first step in effective grant research?

Contacting funders directly.
Defining your project's goals and needs. (Correct answer)
Drafting a budget.
Reviewing past grant awards.

Correct answer: Defining your project's goals and needs.

The first and most critical step in effective grant research is clearly defining your organization's project goals, objectives, and specific needs. This foundational understanding allows you to accurately identify potential funders whose priorities align with your project, making the subsequent research and application process much more targeted and efficient. Without this clarity, grant research can be unfocused and unproductive.

Question 2: A private foundation's grant agreement requires records be kept for 5 years. Organizational policy says 3 years. Which applies?

Whichever the finance director prefers
The longer 5-year requirement in the grant agreement (Correct answer)
The 3-year policy
Neither; private grants have no retention rules

Correct answer: The longer 5-year requirement in the grant agreement

Contractual funder requirements govern when they exceed internal policy.

Question 3: Which statement about the GPC credential is accurate?

It is only available to federal employees
It is awarded automatically after joining a professional association
It must be maintained through recertification that documents ongoing professional activity (Correct answer)
It is a one-time credential that never expires

Correct answer: It must be maintained through recertification that documents ongoing professional activity

GPC holders must periodically recertify by documenting continued professional development and practice.

Question 4: Why is maintaining confidentiality important in record keeping?

To protect sensitive personal and professional information from unauthorized access (Correct answer)
To reduce the number of people who need training
To make file storage easier to manage
Only because it is a legal requirement

Correct answer: To protect sensitive personal and professional information from unauthorized access

Maintaining confidentiality in record keeping protects sensitive personal, medical, financial, and professional information from unauthorized access, maintaining trust and legal compliance.

Question 5: What is the best way to set realistic expectations with a client new to grant seeking?

Avoid discussing rejections
Focus only on the largest national funders
Explain typical success rates, timelines, and readiness requirements up front (Correct answer)
Promise quick awards to build enthusiasm

Correct answer: Explain typical success rates, timelines, and readiness requirements up front

Educating clients about realistic outcomes and timelines builds trust and prevents disappointment.

Question 6: An auditor finds grant charges lacking documentation that they benefited the award. Under the cost principles, these costs are most likely:

Allowable if under $10,000
Reclassified as program income
Unallowable or questioned costs (Correct answer)
Automatically allowable as indirect costs

Correct answer: Unallowable or questioned costs

Costs must be adequately documented and allocable to the award to be allowable under 2 CFR 200.403.

Question 7: What is a common consequence of failing to submit required reports on time?

Automatic approval for a grant extension.
Loss of current or future funding opportunities. (Correct answer)
Reduced paperwork requirements.
Increased flexibility with funders.

Correct answer: Loss of current or future funding opportunities.

A common consequence of failing to submit required reports on time is the loss of current or future funding opportunities. Timely reporting is a fundamental condition of most grant agreements, demonstrating accountability and responsible management. Non-compliance can severely damage an organization's reputation with funders, jeopardizing its ability to secure future support.

Question 8: Which document best supports salary charges for an employee who splits time between two federal awards?

Time and effort records reflecting actual work performed (Correct answer)
The employee's original job offer letter
A supervisor's verbal confirmation
An annual budget estimate of percentages

Correct answer: Time and effort records reflecting actual work performed

Salary charges must be supported by records that accurately reflect the work actually performed.

Question 9: What is the purpose of emergency action plans in the workplace?

To reduce the need for emergency equipment
To ensure organized and safe response during workplace emergencies (Correct answer)
To fulfill an annual checklist requirement
To schedule fire drills for employee entertainment

Correct answer: To ensure organized and safe response during workplace emergencies

Emergency action plans provide structured procedures for organized, safe responses during workplace emergencies, protecting workers and minimizing harm.

Question 10: To access Grants.gov and SAM.gov, users must authenticate through which federal sign-in service?

ID.me only
Okta Federal
Login.gov (Correct answer)
eAuthentication via USDA

Correct answer: Login.gov

SAM.gov and Grants.gov use Login.gov for secure sign-in with multi-factor authentication.

Question 11: What is the primary ethical obligation of a grant professional?

To maintain integrity and accuracy in all representations. (Correct answer)
To hide financial challenges from funders.
To prioritize the organization's interests over factual reporting.
To secure funding at any cost.

Correct answer: To maintain integrity and accuracy in all representations.

The primary ethical obligation of a grant professional is to maintain integrity and accuracy in all representations. This means ensuring that all information presented in proposals, reports, and communications is truthful, complete, and not misleading. Upholding this standard builds trust with funders, protects the organization's reputation, and ensures the ethical use of philanthropic resources.

Question 12: A program officer suggests a different evaluation design than proposed. How should the grant professional respond?

Change the design without telling program staff
Withdraw the application immediately
Consider the feedback, consult program staff, and revise if feasible (Correct answer)
Ignore the suggestion and submit as originally planned

Correct answer: Consider the feedback, consult program staff, and revise if feasible

Collaboratively weighing funder feedback with program staff leads to feasible, stronger proposals.

Question 13: Under the federal cost principles in 2 CFR 200, which three tests must a cost generally meet to be charged to a federal award?

Approved, audited, and documented
Budgeted, invoiced, and reconciled
Allowable, allocable, and reasonable (Correct answer)
Necessary, matched, and capitalized

Correct answer: Allowable, allocable, and reasonable

Uniform Guidance requires costs to be allowable, allocable to the award, and reasonable in amount.

Question 14: What is the ethical response to discovering a colleague falsifying grant data?

Report the behavior to a supervisor or ethics committee. (Correct answer)
Help cover up the falsification to protect the organization.
Ignore it to avoid workplace conflict.
Only act if the funder discovers the issue.

Correct answer: Report the behavior to a supervisor or ethics committee.

The ethical response to discovering a colleague falsifying grant data is to report the behavior to a supervisor or ethics committee. Falsifying data is a serious ethical breach that undermines the integrity of the organization and the grant profession. Reporting ensures accountability, protects the organization's reputation, and maintains trust with funders.

Question 15: Which practice most effectively keeps a client informed throughout a multi-month grant development project?

Scheduled progress updates tied to milestones (Correct answer)
Sending daily unsolicited drafts
Contacting the client only at submission
Communicating only through the funder

Correct answer: Scheduled progress updates tied to milestones

Regular milestone-based updates maintain transparency and allow timely client input.

Question 16: What is the significance of user training in technology implementation?

It maximizes the return on technology investment by ensuring effective utilization (Correct answer)
It is an unnecessary expense that delays implementation
It should be limited to a one-page instruction sheet
It is only needed for senior management

Correct answer: It maximizes the return on technology investment by ensuring effective utilization

User training is critical to technology implementation success because it ensures staff can effectively utilize the technology, maximizing the return on investment and minimizing errors.

Question 17: What is the primary purpose of a budget justification in a grant proposal?

To list all personnel involved in the project
To outline the project timeline and milestones
To demonstrate the organization's financial history
To explain and justify each budget line item to the funder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To explain and justify each budget line item to the funder

A budget justification provides detailed explanations for each line item, demonstrating that costs are necessary, reasonable, and allowable.

Question 18: Which of the following is a key element of a strong grant proposal?

Generic goals without specifics.
Minimal budget details.
A lengthy list of unrelated projects.
A clear and compelling needs statement. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A clear and compelling needs statement.

A strong grant proposal must include a clear and compelling needs statement that articulates the problem your project aims to address and why it is significant. This section convinces funders of the urgency and relevance of your proposed work, demonstrating a deep understanding of the issue and establishing the foundation for your proposed solutions.

Question 19: A grantee discovers it accidentally charged an unallowable cost to a federal award. What should it do?

Offset it by underreporting other costs
Wait to see if an auditor notices
Remove the cost from the award and notify the funder as required (Correct answer)
Leave it if the amount is small

Correct answer: Remove the cost from the award and notify the funder as required

Unallowable costs must be removed and corrected, with disclosure per award terms.

Question 20: How should you address resistant stakeholders?

Proceed without their input
Remove them from contact lists
Identify and address their specific concerns (Correct answer)
Refer them to legal counsel

Correct answer: Identify and address their specific concerns

To address resistant stakeholders, it is essential to identify and address their specific concerns. Resistance often stems from valid worries, perceived risks, or misunderstandings that need to be acknowledged. By actively listening to their perspectives and collaboratively finding solutions, grant professionals can mitigate resistance and foster greater cooperation.

Question 21: If a federal agency determines a recipient is high risk, which action may it take under 2 CFR 200.208?

Automatically terminate all of the recipient's awards
Double the award amount to build capacity
Waive all reporting requirements
Impose specific conditions such as reimbursement-only payments or additional reporting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Impose specific conditions such as reimbursement-only payments or additional reporting

Agencies may add specific conditions like more frequent reporting or reimbursement payments for higher-risk recipients.

Question 22: Which funding source is most likely to prioritize innovative community programs?

Corporate sponsorships.
Private foundations. (Correct answer)
Local government contracts.
Federal block grants.

Correct answer: Private foundations.

Private foundations are often established with specific philanthropic missions and tend to have more flexibility in their funding priorities compared to government grants. They are frequently interested in supporting innovative, pilot, or specialized community programs that align with their specific areas of interest, making them a prime target for organizations seeking funding for unique initiatives.

Question 23: How long should professional records typically be retained?

Only until the next audit is completed
For exactly one calendar year
According to applicable laws, regulations, and organizational retention policies (Correct answer)
Until the filing cabinet is full

Correct answer: According to applicable laws, regulations, and organizational retention policies

Record retention periods are determined by applicable laws, regulations, professional standards, and organizational policies, which vary by document type and jurisdiction.

Question 24: What should you do if you discover inaccurate data in a submitted grant report?

Blame a third-party vendor for the mistake.
Ignore it unless the funder notices.
Wait until the next reporting cycle to mention it.
Notify the funder immediately and provide corrected information. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the funder immediately and provide corrected information.

Upon discovering inaccurate data in a submitted grant report, the ethical and professional course of action is to notify the funder immediately and provide corrected information. This demonstrates transparency, integrity, and a commitment to accuracy. Prompt correction prevents potential issues of misrepresentation and maintains the funder's trust in the organization's reporting.

Question 25: Under 2 CFR 200.334, the standard retention period for federal award records generally begins on which date?

The date the award is signed
The date the final financial report is submitted (Correct answer)
The end of the organization's fiscal year
The date of the last drawdown

Correct answer: The date the final financial report is submitted

Records must generally be kept 3 years from the date the final financial report is submitted.

Question 26: A grant professional wants to stay current on changes to federal grant regulations such as 2 CFR 200. Which is the BEST strategy?

Monitor official agency updates and participate in professional development (Correct answer)
Ask funders to explain all regulations during application review
Rely on what was learned in initial training years ago
Wait until an auditor identifies a problem

Correct answer: Monitor official agency updates and participate in professional development

Proactively monitoring official sources and training keeps knowledge current with regulatory revisions.

Question 27: What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A legal document required only for government contracts
An informal verbal promise between colleagues
A marketing document used to attract new clients
A formal agreement defining the expected service quality, responsibilities, and metrics (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A formal agreement defining the expected service quality, responsibilities, and metrics

A Service Level Agreement is a formal document that defines expected service quality levels, responsibilities of each party, and measurable performance metrics.

Question 28: Which online system do NIH applicants and grantees use to manage their accounts, track application status, and submit progress reports?

GrantSolutions
JustGrants
eRA Commons (Correct answer)
Research.gov

Correct answer: eRA Commons

eRA Commons is the NIH portal for application tracking, RPPRs, and award management.

Question 29: Why is it unethical to reuse content from another organization's grant proposal?

Funders prefer recycled content.
It saves time during the application process.
Other organizations won't notice.
It constitutes plagiarism and misrepresents original work. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It constitutes plagiarism and misrepresents original work.

It is unethical to reuse content from another organization's grant proposal because it constitutes plagiarism and misrepresents original work. This practice undermines the integrity of the grant professional and the organization, falsely claiming credit for ideas or language that are not their own. Funders expect original, authentic proposals that accurately reflect the applicant's unique capabilities and plans.

Question 30: A peer review circle where grant writers critique each other's drafts primarily develops which skill?

Board governance
Financial auditing
Writing quality and critical analysis (Correct answer)
Event planning

Correct answer: Writing quality and critical analysis

Structured peer critique sharpens both writing and the ability to evaluate proposals.

Question 31: Which of the following is generally an unallowable cost under federal cost principles?

Alcoholic beverages (Correct answer)
Office supplies used for the project
Audit services
Staff training related to the award

Correct answer: Alcoholic beverages

2 CFR 200.423 makes alcoholic beverages unallowable.

Question 32: Which practice best supports data used in grant performance reports?

Reporting rounded estimates without backup
Deleting raw data after the report is filed
Keeping source data such as sign-in sheets and databases that tie to reported outcomes (Correct answer)
Using last year's numbers when current data is late

Correct answer: Keeping source data such as sign-in sheets and databases that tie to reported outcomes

Reported outcomes should be traceable to verifiable source documentation.

Question 33: What does a theory of change primarily articulate?

The funder's reporting deadlines
The organization's board structure
The line-item budget for the project
The causal pathway explaining how and why activities will lead to desired change (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The causal pathway explaining how and why activities will lead to desired change

A theory of change describes the assumptions and causal links connecting interventions to long-term results.

Question 34: A grant professional receives detailed reviewer comments on a declined federal application. The best professional development use of these comments is to:

Dispute every comment with the agency
File them away without reading
Share them publicly to criticize reviewers
Analyze them to identify recurring weaknesses and adjust future writing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Analyze them to identify recurring weaknesses and adjust future writing

Reviewer feedback is a valuable learning tool for strengthening future proposals.

Question 35: Which approach best demonstrates cultural competence when serving a community-based client?

Engaging client staff and community voices to accurately represent needs (Correct answer)
Applying the same proposal template to all communities
Using national statistics only
Avoiding input from program participants

Correct answer: Engaging client staff and community voices to accurately represent needs

Including community perspectives ensures the proposal reflects authentic needs and respectful language.

Question 36: A foundation grant agreement restricts funds to a specific program. How should the nonprofit record these funds in its financial statements?

As a liability to the board
As net assets with donor restrictions (Correct answer)
As program income
As net assets without donor restrictions

Correct answer: As net assets with donor restrictions

Under FASB ASC 958, donor-restricted gifts are reported as net assets with donor restrictions.

Question 37: Which is the strongest documentation that a vendor was checked for federal debarment before contracting?

A prior year's contract with the vendor
The vendor's website
A verbal assurance from the vendor
A dated SAM.gov exclusion search printout saved to the procurement file (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A dated SAM.gov exclusion search printout saved to the procurement file

A dated SAM.gov exclusions record proves the check was made before award.

Question 38: Federal brownfields grants are administered primarily by which agency?

Small Business Administration
Department of Education
Department of Labor
Environmental Protection Agency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Environmental Protection Agency

EPA's Brownfields Program funds assessment, cleanup, and revolving loan fund grants.

Question 39: What is the primary purpose of an evaluation plan in grant management?

Measure whether the project achieves its intended outcomes (Correct answer)
Replace financial reporting
Determine staff salaries
Track the organization's investment portfolio

Correct answer: Measure whether the project achieves its intended outcomes

An evaluation plan defines how progress toward outcomes will be measured and reported.

Question 40: How can subrecipient monitoring be effectively managed?

By avoiding written agreements to save time.
By allowing subrecipients to manage funds without oversight.
Ignoring their expenditures.
Through regular audits, progress reports, and clear contracts. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Through regular audits, progress reports, and clear contracts.

Subrecipient monitoring can be effectively managed through a combination of regular audits, progress reports, and clear contractual agreements. These mechanisms ensure that funds passed to subrecipients are used appropriately, project objectives are met, and compliance with grant terms is maintained. Robust oversight is crucial for accountability and successful project implementation.

Question 41: A client provides program outcome numbers the consultant suspects are inflated. What is the appropriate action?

Lower them without telling the client
Ask the client to verify the data and its source before submission (Correct answer)
Use them since the client is responsible
Remove all outcome data from the proposal

Correct answer: Ask the client to verify the data and its source before submission

Grant professionals must ensure accurate representation and should verify questionable data with the client.

Question 42: A small community group without 501(c)(3) status partners with an established charity that accepts grants on its behalf and provides oversight; the charity is acting as a:

Donor-advised fund
Pass-through foundation
Supporting organization
Fiscal sponsor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fiscal sponsor

A fiscal sponsor lends its tax-exempt status and provides fiscal oversight to a project lacking its own exemption.

Question 43: Which NEPA document is prepared when a federal agency determines a proposed action will likely have significant environmental effects?

Environmental Impact Statement (Correct answer)
Finding of No Significant Impact
Categorical Exclusion
Record of Environmental Consideration

Correct answer: Environmental Impact Statement

An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is required for major federal actions significantly affecting the human environment.

Question 44: Which organization administers the GPC credential?

Council on Foundations
Grant Professionals Certification Institute (GPCI) (Correct answer)
National Council of Nonprofits
Grant Professionals Association (GPA)

Correct answer: Grant Professionals Certification Institute (GPCI)

The GPC is awarded by the Grant Professionals Certification Institute, an independent certifying body.

Question 45: What is the best practice for documenting a grant proposal submission through Grants.gov?

Rely on the funder to confirm receipt later
Print only the cover page
Keep the confirmation and tracking number emails in the grant file (Correct answer)
Save a screenshot of the login page

Correct answer: Keep the confirmation and tracking number emails in the grant file

Grants.gov confirmation and validation emails with tracking numbers prove timely submission.

Question 46: A funder requires a 1:1 cost share on a $100,000 grant. How much must the grantee contribute?

$50,000
$100,000 (Correct answer)
$10,000
$200,000

Correct answer: $100,000

A 1:1 match means the grantee contributes one dollar for each grant dollar awarded.

Question 47: A prospective client offers a grant consultant 10% of any award secured instead of an hourly fee. Under the GPA Code of Ethics, what should the consultant do?

Accept, since contingency pay aligns incentives
Decline and propose a flat or hourly fee instead (Correct answer)
Accept if the percentage is capped at 5%
Accept only if the funder approves in writing

Correct answer: Decline and propose a flat or hourly fee instead

The GPA Code of Ethics prohibits compensation based on a percentage of grant funds awarded.

Question 48: What role does continuing education play in maintaining certification?

It is purely optional with no impact on certification
It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices (Correct answer)
It only applies to entry-level professionals
It is required only for international practice

Correct answer: It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and practices

Continuing education is essential to maintaining certification as it ensures professionals remain current with industry developments and evolving standards.

Question 49: Under the 2024 Uniform Guidance revisions, final reports are generally due how many days after the end of the period of performance?

30 days
120 days (Correct answer)
60 days
90 days

Correct answer: 120 days

The 2024 revisions extended the closeout reporting deadline from 90 to 120 calendar days.

Question 50: What does a summative evaluation PRIMARILY determine?

The overall effectiveness and impact of a program at its conclusion (Correct answer)
Which staff should be hired
How to adjust activities during implementation
Which funders to approach next

Correct answer: The overall effectiveness and impact of a program at its conclusion

Summative evaluation judges overall results and impact after the program is completed.

Question 51: What is the primary purpose of grant management after an award is received?

To reallocate funds without notifying the funder.
To spend the entire budget as quickly as possible.
To ignore reporting deadlines.
To ensure funds are used as outlined in the proposal and deliverables are met. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure funds are used as outlined in the proposal and deliverables are met.

The primary purpose of grant management post-award is to ensure strict adherence to the grant agreement. This involves meticulously tracking expenditures to confirm funds are used only for approved activities, monitoring progress against the project timeline, and ensuring all promised deliverables and outcomes are achieved and reported to the funder.

Question 52: What is the primary purpose of an organizational readiness assessment before starting grant work for a new client?

To determine whether the client has the capacity and documentation to compete and manage awards (Correct answer)
To pick the longest application to pursue first
To set the consultant's hourly rate
To identify board members to solicit personally

Correct answer: To determine whether the client has the capacity and documentation to compete and manage awards

Readiness assessment reveals gaps in capacity, data, financials, and compliance systems before applying.

Question 53: What is the primary role of a team leader?

To closely supervise every task performed by team members
To take credit for all team accomplishments
To shield team members from all challenges and difficulties
To guide, support, and enable team members to achieve shared objectives (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To guide, support, and enable team members to achieve shared objectives

A team leader's primary role is to guide, support, and enable team members to work effectively toward shared objectives while fostering growth and development.

Question 54: Under the 2024 revisions to the Uniform Guidance, what is the threshold of federal expenditures in a fiscal year that triggers a Single Audit?

$250,000
$1,000,000 (Correct answer)
$750,000
$500,000

Correct answer: $1,000,000

The 2024 revisions raised the Single Audit threshold from $750,000 to $1,000,000 in federal expenditures.

Question 55: Under the 2024 Uniform Guidance revisions, what is the de minimis indirect cost rate that eligible recipients may use without a negotiated rate?

20% of salaries and wages
10% of total direct costs
8% of total project costs
Up to 15% of modified total direct costs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Up to 15% of modified total direct costs

The 2024 revisions raised the de minimis rate from 10% to up to 15% of MTDC.

Question 56: Which document is the standard federal cover form used for most federal grant applications?

SF-425
W-9
Form 990
SF-424 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: SF-424

The SF-424 Application for Federal Assistance is the standard cover form for federal grant applications.

Question 57: What is the most significant risk of pasting confidential applicant or beneficiary data into a public generative AI tool?

The text may become too long
Data may be retained or used outside the organization's control, breaching confidentiality (Correct answer)
The tool may translate the text
Formatting may change

Correct answer: Data may be retained or used outside the organization's control, breaching confidentiality

Public AI tools may store or use inputs, so entering confidential data can violate privacy obligations and policies.

Question 58: Which subscription database from Candid is widely used for researching foundation funders and their grant histories?

Grants.gov Search
Foundation Directory (FDO) (Correct answer)
Charity Navigator
GuideStar Pro only

Correct answer: Foundation Directory (FDO)

Candid's Foundation Directory provides searchable profiles and grant records for foundations and corporate funders.

Question 59: Which factor is most critical in cultural competency?

Speaking the loudest in meetings
Using standardized templates
Understanding community values and norms (Correct answer)
Focusing only on legal requirements

Correct answer: Understanding community values and norms

Cultural competency is essential for effective engagement with diverse communities in grant writing and project implementation. Understanding a community's unique values, beliefs, and social norms allows grant professionals to design programs that are truly relevant, respectful, and impactful. This approach fosters trust and ensures that initiatives genuinely address community needs, leading to more successful and sustainable outcomes.

Question 60: How often must an organization renew its SAM.gov registration to remain eligible for federal awards?

Every 6 months
Every 3 years
Only when contact information changes
At least every 12 months (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least every 12 months

SAM.gov registrations expire after one year and must be renewed annually to stay active.

Question 61: What is the role of documentation in regulatory compliance?

It provides verifiable evidence that standards are being met (Correct answer)
It is optional if verbal confirmation is available
It serves no practical purpose beyond record-keeping
It is only necessary for international operations

Correct answer: It provides verifiable evidence that standards are being met

Documentation provides verifiable evidence that regulatory requirements are being met and creates an audit trail for compliance verification.

Question 62: How should you handle a situation where a funder requests preferential treatment?

Comply quietly to maintain the relationship.
Offer preferential treatment only if the funder increases the grant amount.
Politely decline and explain the need for impartiality. (Correct answer)
Agree but hide it from other applicants.

Correct answer: Politely decline and explain the need for impartiality.

When a funder requests preferential treatment, the ethical response is to politely decline and explain the need for impartiality. Grant professionals must uphold fairness and integrity in all dealings, ensuring that all applicants or partners are treated equally based on merit and established criteria. This maintains professional ethics and avoids conflicts of interest.

Question 63: What is an ethical approach to handling confidential information from a funder?

Posting it on the organization's website for transparency.
Protecting it as specified in agreements and only disclosing to authorized parties. (Correct answer)
Using it to benefit other unrelated projects.
Sharing it with unauthorized staff to gain insights.

Correct answer: Protecting it as specified in agreements and only disclosing to authorized parties.

The ethical approach to handling confidential information from a funder is to protect it as specified in agreements and only disclose it to authorized parties. Grant professionals have a responsibility to safeguard sensitive data, adhering to non-disclosure agreements and organizational policies. This practice maintains trust, ensures data security, and upholds professional integrity.

Question 64: A nonprofit uses new grant funds to pay a staff salary that its general operating budget already covered. What is this practice called?

Leveraging
Indirect cost recovery
Supplanting (Correct answer)
Cost sharing

Correct answer: Supplanting

Supplanting replaces existing funding with grant funds, which many funders prohibit.

Question 65: What is a common mistake in grant budgeting?

Underestimating expenses or omitting indirect costs. (Correct answer)
Aligning the budget with the project scope.
Using standard accounting formats.
Including too much detail.

Correct answer: Underestimating expenses or omitting indirect costs.

A common mistake in grant budgeting is failing to accurately estimate all project expenses, particularly underestimating operational costs or entirely omitting indirect costs (also known as overhead or administrative costs). This oversight can lead to budget shortfalls, making it difficult to fully implement the project as proposed and potentially jeopardizing the organization's financial stability.

Question 66: Which federal form is commonly used to report the financial status of a federal grant award?

SF-424 Application for Federal Assistance
SF-270 Request for Advance or Reimbursement
SF-LLL Disclosure of Lobbying Activities
SF-425 Federal Financial Report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: SF-425 Federal Financial Report

The SF-425 is the standard Federal Financial Report used to report expenditures and cash status.

Question 67: Which federal agency sets and enforces workplace safety standards that apply to most grant-funded employers?

EPA
CDC
FEMA
OSHA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: OSHA

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration enforces workplace safety and health standards.

Question 68: Which consultation does the Endangered Species Act Section 7 require for federally funded projects that may affect listed species?

Consultation with the Army Corps of Engineers only
Consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or NOAA Fisheries (Correct answer)
Consultation with the State Attorney General
Consultation with the Environmental Protection Agency

Correct answer: Consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or NOAA Fisheries

Section 7 requires federal agencies to consult with USFWS or NOAA Fisheries to ensure actions do not jeopardize listed species.

Question 69: Which section of a proposal typically includes a timeline?

Appendices.
Organization history.
Budget justification.
Project narrative or work plan. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Project narrative or work plan.

The project narrative or work plan section of a grant proposal details the specific activities, methodologies, and steps that will be undertaken to achieve the project's objectives. It logically includes a timeline to illustrate the sequence and duration of these activities, providing funders with a clear understanding of the project's implementation schedule.

Question 70: How should professionals evaluate the effectiveness of their development activities?

By counting the total hours spent in training
By assessing whether activities led to improved knowledge, skills, and job performance (Correct answer)
By evaluating only the quality of training materials provided
By comparing costs to colleagues' training budgets

Correct answer: By assessing whether activities led to improved knowledge, skills, and job performance

The effectiveness of professional development should be evaluated by assessing actual improvements in knowledge, skills, and job performance — outcomes rather than inputs.

Question 71: Which of the following demonstrates ethical stewardship of grant funds?

Adhering strictly to the approved budget and project scope. (Correct answer)
Ignoring funder restrictions on fund usage.
Diverting funds to unapproved projects.
Using grant funds for personal expenses.

Correct answer: Adhering strictly to the approved budget and project scope.

Ethical stewardship of grant funds is demonstrated by adhering strictly to the approved budget and project scope. This means using funds precisely as intended and agreed upon with the funder, without diversion to unapproved activities or personal expenses. Such adherence ensures accountability, maximizes the intended impact of the grant, and maintains trust with the funding organization.

Question 72: Which situation represents a programmatic (rather than financial) risk in a grant-funded project?

Inadequate cash reserves
Late drawdown of federal funds
Misallocation of indirect costs
Failure to recruit enough participants to meet target outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Failure to recruit enough participants to meet target outcomes

Programmatic risk concerns delivering activities and achieving stated outcomes.

Question 73: When adopting a new grants management software system, what step is MOST important to ensure successful implementation?

Keep using spreadsheets in parallel indefinitely
Allow each user to set up their own data fields
Train staff and establish clear data-entry procedures (Correct answer)
Buy the most expensive option available

Correct answer: Train staff and establish clear data-entry procedures

Training and standardized procedures ensure consistent data and user adoption of new technology.

Question 74: Which scenario represents a conflict of interest in grant practice?

Submitting multiple applications to different funders.
Attending a grant workshop hosted by a funder.
Collaborating with another nonprofit on a proposal.
Reviewing a grant application from a family member's organization. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reviewing a grant application from a family member's organization.

Reviewing a grant application from a family member's organization represents a clear conflict of interest. This situation creates a potential for personal relationships to improperly influence professional judgment or decision-making. Ethical grant practice requires impartiality, and such a scenario compromises fairness and the integrity of the review process.

Question 75: What should you include in the evaluation plan of a proposal?

Vague descriptions of future goals.
Only qualitative feedback from staff.
Specific metrics and data collection methods. (Correct answer)
A list of unrelated past projects.

Correct answer: Specific metrics and data collection methods.

The evaluation plan in a grant proposal must clearly outline how the project's success will be measured. This includes identifying specific, measurable metrics (e.g., number of participants served, percentage increase in knowledge), the data collection methods that will be used (e.g., surveys, pre/post-tests), and how the data will be analyzed to demonstrate impact and accountability to the funder.

Question 76: When should established methodologies be reconsidered?

Never, once established they should remain permanent
Only during annual reviews regardless of performance
When evidence shows better alternatives exist or when outcomes decline (Correct answer)
Whenever a new employee joins the organization

Correct answer: When evidence shows better alternatives exist or when outcomes decline

Established methodologies should be reconsidered when new evidence suggests better alternatives, when outcomes decline, or when the operating context changes significantly.

Question 77: Which document is most useful for clarifying roles, responsibilities, and deliverables to reduce partner risk in a collaborative grant?

A memorandum of understanding (MOU) (Correct answer)
A board meeting agenda
A donor acknowledgment letter
A press release

Correct answer: A memorandum of understanding (MOU)

An MOU formally defines partner commitments, reducing misunderstanding and performance risk.

Question 78: What is the primary purpose of data analysis in professional practice?

To fulfill annual reporting requirements only
To create complex charts for presentations
To justify decisions that have already been made
To transform raw data into actionable insights for decision-making (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To transform raw data into actionable insights for decision-making

Data analysis transforms raw data into meaningful insights that inform evidence-based decision-making and strategic planning.

Question 79: For fiscal years beginning on or after October 1, 2024, a non-federal entity must obtain a Single Audit when federal expenditures in the year reach:

$1,000,000 or more (Correct answer)
$750,000 or more
$500,000 or more
$250,000 or more

Correct answer: $1,000,000 or more

The 2024 Uniform Guidance revision raised the Single Audit threshold from $750,000 to $1,000,000.

Question 80: A grant professional serving as a reviewer for a federal grant competition gains primarily which professional development benefit?

Insight into how reviewers score proposals against criteria (Correct answer)
Access to confidential applications to reuse later
Exemption from conflict-of-interest rules
Guaranteed funding for her own organization

Correct answer: Insight into how reviewers score proposals against criteria

Serving as a reviewer shows how scoring criteria are applied, while confidentiality and conflict-of-interest rules still apply.

Question 81: In a logic model, which component describes the human, financial, and organizational resources invested in a program?

Inputs (Correct answer)
Outputs
Activities
Impacts

Correct answer: Inputs

Inputs are the resources dedicated to or consumed by the program.

Question 82: Under 2 CFR 200.332, before issuing a subaward, what must a pass-through entity evaluate for each subrecipient?

The subrecipient's risk of noncompliance with federal statutes, regulations, and award terms (Correct answer)
The subrecipient's credit score and bond rating
Only the subrecipient's prior grant win rate
The subrecipient's board diversity statistics

Correct answer: The subrecipient's risk of noncompliance with federal statutes, regulations, and award terms

Pass-through entities must assess each subrecipient's risk of noncompliance to determine appropriate monitoring.

Question 83: A federal award's 3-year retention period is about to end, but an audit involving those records began last month. What should the grantee do?

Transfer records to the funder and destroy copies
Retain records until the audit is resolved and final action taken (Correct answer)
Keep only financial records and discard program files
Destroy records on schedule

Correct answer: Retain records until the audit is resolved and final action taken

Records must be kept until any litigation, claim, or audit started before the period ends is resolved.

Question 84: Why is stakeholder buy-in important for strategic implementation?

Because it eliminates the need for project management
Because it generates positive media coverage
Because successful implementation requires support and cooperation from those affected (Correct answer)
Because it is a legal requirement in all organizations

Correct answer: Because successful implementation requires support and cooperation from those affected

Stakeholder buy-in is critical because successful implementation depends on the active support, cooperation, and engagement of the people who will be affected by or involved in executing the strategy.

Question 85: An auditor identifies a finding on a federal award. What must the grantee typically prepare?

A new grant application
A corrective action plan (Correct answer)
A logic model revision
A letter of support

Correct answer: A corrective action plan

Auditees prepare a corrective action plan addressing each audit finding under 2 CFR 200.511.

Question 86: Before submitting in Grants.gov Workspace, which feature identifies missing required fields and form errors?

Agency Validation
Preview Grant
Check Application (Correct answer)
Subscribe to Opportunity

Correct answer: Check Application

The Check Application function flags errors and missing required information before submission.

Question 87: What should be the first action when a new regulation is enacted that affects your practice?

Assume existing procedures already comply
Review the regulation, assess its impact, and develop an implementation plan (Correct answer)
Wait for enforcement before making changes
Delegate review to the newest team member

Correct answer: Review the regulation, assess its impact, and develop an implementation plan

When new regulations are enacted, professionals should promptly review them, assess their impact on current practices, and develop a structured implementation plan.

Question 88: What is the first phase of strategic planning?

Implementation of tactical initiatives
Performance evaluation and reporting
Environmental analysis and assessment of current position (Correct answer)
Budget allocation and resource distribution

Correct answer: Environmental analysis and assessment of current position

Strategic planning begins with analyzing the current environment, including internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats (SWOT analysis).

Question 89: A grant-funded program serves youth at an outdoor site. Which proposal element most directly addresses participant safety?

An organizational history section
A sustainability plan
A logic model of long-term outcomes
A risk management plan covering supervision, emergencies, and background checks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A risk management plan covering supervision, emergencies, and background checks

A risk management plan shows the funder how participant safety will be protected during program delivery.

Question 90: What is the purpose of a logic model in proposal development?

To showcase the organization's history.
To list staff qualifications.
To map the project's theory of change and outcomes. (Correct answer)
To replace the budget section.

Correct answer: To map the project's theory of change and outcomes.

A logic model is a visual representation that illustrates the causal links between a project's inputs, activities, outputs, and intended short-term, intermediate, and long-term outcomes. It helps grant writers clearly articulate the project's theory of change, demonstrating how proposed activities will lead to desired results, which is crucial for funders to understand the project's impact.

Question 91: What is the main benefit of maintaining a grants calendar or pipeline tracking system?

It replaces the organization's financial audit
It helps manage deadlines, reporting dates, and workload across multiple opportunities (Correct answer)
It eliminates the need for funder research
It guarantees higher award rates

Correct answer: It helps manage deadlines, reporting dates, and workload across multiple opportunities

Centralized tracking prevents missed deadlines and supports realistic workload planning.

Question 92: Which metric is MOST useful for tracking the effectiveness of a grant development program over time?

Number of pages written per proposal
Number of staff meetings held
Total number of funders contacted by email
Success (award) rate and dollars awarded relative to dollars requested (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Success (award) rate and dollars awarded relative to dollars requested

Award rate and dollars awarded versus requested are standard outcome indicators of grant program performance.

Question 93: Who typically should sign and submit a grant application on behalf of a nonprofit client?

The funder's program officer
Any volunteer with portal access
An authorized organizational representative of the client (Correct answer)
The contract grant writer under their own name

Correct answer: An authorized organizational representative of the client

The applicant organization's authorized official certifies and submits the application because it is legally accountable.

Question 94: What is the primary purpose of a Single Audit for organizations receiving federal funds?

To examine an organization's financial statements and federal award compliance (Correct answer)
To evaluate only the programmatic outcomes of a single federal grant
To assess the qualifications of grant writing staff
To review a grant proposal before it is submitted to funders

Correct answer: To examine an organization's financial statements and federal award compliance

A Single Audit examines an organization's financial statements and its compliance with requirements of federal programs when expenditures exceed $750,000.

Question 95: Which type of software is BEST suited for tracking funder relationships, contacts, and communication history across many prospects?

Presentation software
Constituent Relationship Management (CRM) system (Correct answer)
Word processor
PDF editor

Correct answer: Constituent Relationship Management (CRM) system

CRM platforms store and organize contact records, interactions, and relationship history for funders and donors.

Question 96: Which party has the right of timely and unrestricted access to a grantee's records related to a federal award under 2 CFR 200.337?

Any member of the public
Only the grantee's independent auditor
The federal agency, Inspectors General, and the Comptroller General (Correct answer)
Only the program officer

Correct answer: The federal agency, Inspectors General, and the Comptroller General

Federal awarding agencies, IGs, and the GAO Comptroller General hold access rights to pertinent records.

Question 97: How should client complaints be handled professionally?

Listen actively, acknowledge the concern, investigate, and provide a timely resolution (Correct answer)
Transfer the complaint to another department immediately
Explain why the client is wrong
Document the complaint and wait for the client to follow up

Correct answer: Listen actively, acknowledge the concern, investigate, and provide a timely resolution

Professional complaint handling involves active listening, acknowledgment of the client's concern, thorough investigation, and timely resolution with follow-up.

Question 98: When training a nonprofit board on its role in grant seeking, the grant professional should emphasize that board members typically:

Write the technical narrative sections
Submit applications through federal portals
Manage day-to-day grant budgets
Provide governance, approve strategic direction, and may open doors to funders (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Provide governance, approve strategic direction, and may open doors to funders

Boards govern and can leverage relationships, while staff handle operational grant work.

Question 99: A federally assisted project will rehabilitate housing built in 1965. Which hazard requirement is MOST likely to apply?

Asbestos-free certification only
Lead-based paint evaluation and hazard reduction requirements (Correct answer)
No hazard requirements apply to rehabilitation
Radon testing for commercial buildings only

Correct answer: Lead-based paint evaluation and hazard reduction requirements

Housing built before 1978 triggers federal lead-based paint requirements such as HUD's Lead Safe Housing Rule.

Question 100: What's the benefit of stakeholder feedback loops?

They extend project timelines
They allow for course correction and innovation (Correct answer)
They reduce documentation needs
They eliminate the need for evaluations

Correct answer: They allow for course correction and innovation

Stakeholder feedback loops are invaluable for the continuous improvement and success of grant-funded projects. By regularly soliciting and incorporating input from all involved parties, organizations can identify challenges early, make necessary adjustments, and discover innovative solutions. This iterative process ensures projects remain relevant, responsive, and ultimately achieve their intended goals more effectively.

Question 101: Which tool is most useful for tracking grant opportunities?

Informal word-of-mouth referrals.
A dedicated grant research database. (Correct answer)
Social media comments.
A handwritten notebook.

Correct answer: A dedicated grant research database.

A dedicated grant research database is the most efficient and comprehensive tool for tracking grant opportunities. These platforms offer extensive, searchable listings of funders, their priorities, deadlines, and past awards, providing a systematic approach to identifying suitable prospects. Unlike informal methods, they centralize critical information, saving significant time and increasing the likelihood of finding relevant funding matches.

Question 102: What are continuing education units (CEUs)?

Standardized measures of learning activity used to maintain professional certifications (Correct answer)
Government-issued education vouchers
University credits that count toward a degree
Tax deductions for educational expenses

Correct answer: Standardized measures of learning activity used to maintain professional certifications

CEUs are standardized measures of participation in approved continuing education activities, typically required for maintaining professional certifications and licenses.

Question 103: What indicates successful stakeholder engagement?

Completion of paperwork only
Unanimous agreement on all decisions
Stakeholders requesting fewer meetings
Consistent participation and resource sharing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Consistent participation and resource sharing

Successful stakeholder engagement is indicated by consistent participation and resource sharing among relevant parties. This demonstrates genuine commitment and collaboration towards achieving project goals. Active involvement, rather than mere agreement or minimal interaction, signifies that stakeholders are truly invested and contributing to the project's success.

Question 104: What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

To provide detailed information about hazardous chemical products and safe handling (Correct answer)
To track employee attendance
To document equipment maintenance schedules
To list emergency phone numbers only

Correct answer: To provide detailed information about hazardous chemical products and safe handling

Safety Data Sheets provide comprehensive information about hazardous chemicals, including properties, health effects, safe handling procedures, and emergency measures.

Question 105: Which publicly searchable website reports federal award and spending data required under the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act (FFATA)?

USAspending.gov (Correct answer)
Benefits.gov
Grants.gov
Login.gov

Correct answer: USAspending.gov

USAspending.gov is the official source for federal spending and award data mandated by FFATA and the DATA Act.

Question 106: What is the purpose of a technology needs assessment?

To replace all manual processes immediately
To purchase the most expensive available solution
To justify the IT department's budget
To identify gaps between current capabilities and desired outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To identify gaps between current capabilities and desired outcomes

A technology needs assessment systematically identifies gaps between current technological capabilities and desired outcomes, guiding informed technology investment decisions.

Question 107: A program director discovers grant activities are expanding beyond the approved scope without funder approval. What is the primary risk?

The grant will automatically be renewed
The funder must provide supplemental funds
Indirect costs will increase automatically
Costs may be disallowed and the recipient may be noncompliant (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Costs may be disallowed and the recipient may be noncompliant

Activities outside the approved scope may be unallowable and require prior approval to avoid disallowed costs.

Question 108: According to the GPA Code of Ethics, grant professionals should NOT accept compensation that is:

A salaried staff wage
A flat project fee
A percentage of grant funds awarded (Correct answer)
An hourly rate

Correct answer: A percentage of grant funds awarded

Percentage-based or commission compensation is considered unethical in the grant profession.

Question 109: What is a root cause analysis used for?

To calculate the financial cost of errors
To document problems for annual reporting
To identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just addressing symptoms (Correct answer)
To assign blame to individuals who made mistakes

Correct answer: To identify the underlying cause of a problem rather than just addressing symptoms

Root cause analysis is a systematic method used to identify the fundamental underlying cause of a problem, enabling solutions that prevent recurrence rather than just treating symptoms.

Question 110: What is 'drawdown' in the context of federal grant financial management?

The process of reducing the grant budget due to poor performance
The act of requesting and receiving grant funds from the awarding agency (Correct answer)
The transfer of grant funds between fiscal years
The final closeout report submitted to the grantor

Correct answer: The act of requesting and receiving grant funds from the awarding agency

Drawdown is the process by which a grantee requests and receives payment of grant funds from the federal awarding agency, typically through an electronic payment system.

Question 111: Which practice best supports segregation of grant funds in an organization's accounting system?

Assigning each award its own fund or project code (Correct answer)
Depositing grant funds in personal accounts
Recording all grants in one general revenue line
Tracking grant spending only in spreadsheets after year-end

Correct answer: Assigning each award its own fund or project code

Unique codes let expenditures be tracked and reported separately for each award.

Question 112: Why is it important to research a funder's priorities before applying?

To bypass the application process.
To copy their mission statement verbatim.
To delay submitting your proposal.
To ensure your project aligns with their goals. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure your project aligns with their goals.

Researching a funder's priorities before applying is crucial to determine if your project's mission and objectives align with their funding interests. Submitting a proposal to a funder whose goals do not match yours is a waste of time and resources, whereas alignment significantly increases your chances of securing funding by demonstrating a clear fit.

Question 113: How should a grant professional respond when a client requests a proposal by tomorrow for a complex federal opportunity?

Copy another organization's funded proposal
Assess feasibility honestly and explain quality and compliance risks (Correct answer)
Refuse rudely to discourage future rush requests
Accept and guarantee quality

Correct answer: Assess feasibility honestly and explain quality and compliance risks

Honest feasibility assessment protects proposal quality and the client's reputation with funders.

Question 114: Which public document is most useful for researching a private foundation's past grants, assets, and trustees?

IRS Form 990-PF (Correct answer)
Form W-9
Form SS-4
Form 1023

Correct answer: IRS Form 990-PF

Private foundations file Form 990-PF, which lists grants paid, assets, and officers.

Question 115: Under 2 CFR 200, what is the purpose of a federal agency's risk review of an applicant before award?

To replace the NEPA review
To evaluate the applicant's financial stability, management systems, and performance history (Correct answer)
To set the applicant's indirect cost rate
To determine the applicant's tax-exempt status

Correct answer: To evaluate the applicant's financial stability, management systems, and performance history

2 CFR 200.206 requires agencies to evaluate the risks posed by applicants before awarding funds.

Question 116: Which objective best meets SMART criteria?

Provide high-quality tutoring to as many students as possible
Improve literacy among local youth
Students will enjoy reading more after participating
By June 30, 2027, 75% of 120 enrolled third graders will improve reading scores by one grade level on the DIBELS assessment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: By June 30, 2027, 75% of 120 enrolled third graders will improve reading scores by one grade level on the DIBELS assessment

It is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound with a defined population and instrument.

Question 117: Which action violates the Grant Professionals Association (GPA) Code of Ethics?

Collaborating with competitors on community projects.
Declining a grant due to capacity constraints.
Claiming credit for work done by another grant professional. (Correct answer)
Including accurate data about past program outcomes.

Correct answer: Claiming credit for work done by another grant professional.

Claiming credit for work done by another grant professional directly violates the Grant Professionals Association (GPA) Code of Ethics. The GPA emphasizes honesty, integrity, and professional conduct, and misrepresenting the authorship of work is a form of plagiarism. Such an action undermines professional trust and ethical practice within the grant community.

Question 118: Before awarding a federal grant, an agency's review of an applicant's financial stability, management systems, and past performance is known as:

A risk review of the applicant (2 CFR 200.206) (Correct answer)
A single audit
A logic model review
A program evaluation

Correct answer: A risk review of the applicant (2 CFR 200.206)

Federal agencies must evaluate risks posed by applicants before issuing awards under 2 CFR 200.206.

Question 119: What distinguishes quality assurance from quality control?

QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused (Correct answer)
QA is more expensive; QC is free
QA is performed by managers; QC is performed by workers
There is no practical difference between them

Correct answer: QA is proactive and process-focused; QC is reactive and product-focused

Quality assurance is a proactive approach focused on preventing defects through process improvement, while quality control is reactive, focused on identifying defects in products.

Question 120: A client asks the consultant to manage post-award reporting, which was not in the original contract. What is the appropriate step?

Tell the client reporting is the funder's job
Delegate reporting to the program officer
Define reporting services in a new or amended agreement (Correct answer)
Do it informally without changes

Correct answer: Define reporting services in a new or amended agreement

Post-award services are distinct work that should be clearly scoped and agreed in writing.

Question 121: If a grant-funded construction project uncovers unexpected archaeological materials, what is the appropriate first step?

Stop work in the affected area and notify the appropriate authorities under the project's compliance plan (Correct answer)
Request a no-cost extension only
Continue work and report at closeout
Remove the materials to keep the schedule

Correct answer: Stop work in the affected area and notify the appropriate authorities under the project's compliance plan

Unanticipated discoveries generally require halting work and consulting the agency and SHPO under Section 106 procedures.

Question 122: After a proposal is declined, what is the recommended next step?

Resubmit the identical proposal immediately
Remove the funder from the prospect list permanently
Publicly appeal the decision
Request reviewer comments or a debrief from the program officer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Request reviewer comments or a debrief from the program officer

Reviewer feedback reveals weaknesses and strengthens future submissions.

Question 123: What does "supplanting" mean in grant management?

Using grant funds to replace funds already budgeted for the same purpose (Correct answer)
Transferring funds between budget categories with approval
Adding grant funds on top of existing resources
Requesting a no-cost extension

Correct answer: Using grant funds to replace funds already budgeted for the same purpose

Supplanting replaces existing funding with grant funds and is prohibited when a supplement-not-supplant requirement applies.

Question 124: Income a grantee earns directly from a grant-supported activity, such as registration fees for a funded training, is called what?

In-kind contribution
Program income (Correct answer)
Unrestricted revenue
Indirect cost recovery

Correct answer: Program income

Program income is gross income earned by the recipient directly generated by a supported activity.

Question 125: When applying core principles in practice, what should be the first consideration?

Cost reduction opportunities
Client entertainment preferences
Timeline acceleration
Safety and compliance with established standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety and compliance with established standards

Safety and compliance with established standards must always be the primary consideration when applying professional principles.

Grant Professionals Certification (GPC) Exam

The Grant Professionals Certification (GPC) validates the knowledge and skills of grant professionals in research, writing, and management of grant proposals.

125

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

70%

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